Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology Exam 1 > Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Abscess

A

A collection of purulent exudate that has accumulated in a contained space formed by the surrounding tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Actinic

A

Relating to or exhibiting chemical changes produced by radiant energy, especially the visible and ultraviolet parts of the spectrum; relating to exposure to the ultraviolet rays of sunlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acute

A

An injury or course of inflammation that is of short duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Angiogenesis

A

The formation and differentiation of blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atrophy

A

The decrease in size and function of a cell, tissue, organ, or whole body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Biochemical mediators

A

Chemicals in the body that activate responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Central

A

Lesion is within bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chemotaxis

A

The movement of white blood cells as directed by biochemcial mediators, to an area of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chronic

A

An injury or course of inflammation that is of long duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C-reactive protein

A

A nonspecific protein, produced in the liver, that becomes elevated during episodes of acute inflammation or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cyst

A

An abnormal sac or cavity lined by epithelium and surrounded by fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cytolysis

A

The dissolution or destruction of a cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Demastication

A

When tooth wear is increased by chewing an abrasive surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Edema

A

tissue swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Emigration

A

The passage of white blood cells through the walls of small blood vessels and into injured tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Epithelialization

A

Process of renewal of new surface of epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Exudate

A

A body fluid with a high protein content that leaves the microcirculation during an inflammatory response that consists of serum that contains WBCs, fibrin, and other protein molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fibroblasts

A

The cells that form fibers as well as intercellular substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fibroplasia

A

The formation of fibrous tissue as usually occurs in healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fistula

A

An abnormal passage that leads from an abscess to the body surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Granulation tissue

A

The intial connective tissue formed in healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Granuloma

A

A lesion composed of a collection of macrophages usually surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes that is a form of chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hyperemia

A

Excess of blood within blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hyperplasia

A

An enlargement of a tissue or organ resulting from an increase in the number of cells; the result of increased cell divison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hypertrophy

A

An enlargement of a tissue or oran resulting from an increase in the size of its individual cells, but not the number of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Inflammation

A

Allows the body to eliminate injurious agents, contain injuries, and heal defectss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Injury

A

An alteration in the environment that causes tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Keloid

A

The excessive scarring that mainly occurs in skin in some cases with healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Leukocytosis

A

An increase in the number of white blood cells circulating in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Leukopenia

A

A decrease in the number of white blood cells circulating in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Local

A

A disease process that is confined to a limited location in the body that is not general or systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

Adnormal enlargement of a lymph node or nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Macrophage

A

The second type of WBC to arrive at a site of injury that was originally a monocyte; it participates in phagocytosis during inflammation and continues to be active in the immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Margination

A

A process during inflammation in which WBCs tend to move to the periphery of the blood vessel as the site of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Microcirculation

A

The small blood vessels, including arterioles, capillaries, and venues of the vascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Myofibroblasts

A

Fibroblasts that have some of the characteristics of smooth muscle cells, such as the ability to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Necrosis

A

The pathologic death of one or more cells or a part of tissue, or an organ that results from irreversible damage to cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Neutrophil

A

The first WBC to arrive at a site of injury; the primary cell involved in acute inflammation also called polymorphonuclear leukocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Opacification

A

Process of becoming opaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Opsonization

A

The enhancement of phagocytosis by a process in which a pathogen is marked, with opsonins, for destruction by phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pavementing

A

Adherence of WBCs to blood vessel walls during inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Peripheral

A

That the lesion is within the gingival tissue or alveolar mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Phagocytosis

A

The ingestion and digestion of particulate material by cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Purulent exudate

A

Exudate containing or forming pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pyrogens

A

The fever-inducing substances produced from either WBCs or pathogenic microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Radicular

A

Pertaining to the root of a tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Regeneration

A

Process by which injured tissue is replaced with tissue identical to that present before the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Repair

A

The restoration of damaged or diseased tissue by cellular change and growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Serous exudate

A

Exudate that has a watery consistency; resembles serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Systemic

A

Pertaining to or affecting the body as a whole, as well as a disease process pertaining to or affecting the body as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Transudate

A

The extravascular fluid component of blood that passes through the endotherlial cell walls of the microcirculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

WBCs

A

Cells within the blood and surrounding tissue, also called leukocytes, that are involved in the inflammatory and immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Traumatic injury

A

A disease process that results from injury that causes tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Waldeyer’s ring

A

The ring of lymphatic tissue formed by the two palatine tonsils, the pharyngeal tonsil, the lingual tonsil, and intervening lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the innate defenses?

A 
Physical barrier
Mechanical barrier
Antibacterial barrier
Removal of foreign substances
Inflammation process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Localized signs of inflammation

A 
Redness
Swelling
Heat
Pain
Loss of normal tissue function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Systemic signs of inflammation

A

Fever
Leukocytosis
Elevated CRP
Lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

White blood cells in the inflammatory response

A

White blood cells or leukocytes
Monocytes circulating in blood –> macrophages in tissue
Lymphocytes and plasma cells
Eosinophils and mast cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

These are seen in chronic inflammation and the immune response

A

Lymphocytes and plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

These are seen in both inflammation and immune response

A

Eosinophils and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the function of Neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Multilobed nucleus and granular cytoplasm that contains lysosomal enzymes

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Constitues 60% to 70% of WBC population

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the functions of macrophages?

A

Phagocytosis; play a role in immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Single round nucleus and do not have granular cytoplasm

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Constitues 3% to 8% of WBC population

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What biochemical mediators may be derived from?

A

Blood
Endotherlial cells
White blood cells and platelets
Pathogenic organisms as they injure the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Three interrelated systems

A

Interaction takes place during activation, among their products, and within their various actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the three interrelated systems associated with biochemical mediators

A

Kinin system
Clotting mechanism
Complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Kinin system

A
  • Active in early phase of inflammation
  • Dilation of blood vessels at the site of injury
  • Permeability of local blood vessels
  • Induces pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Clotting mechanism

A

Clots blood and midates inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Complement system

A
  • Involves the production of a sequential cascade of plasma proteins
  • Some components cause WBCs known as mast cells to release histamine
  • Other components cause cell death, from chemotactic factors for WBCs and enhance phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Other biochemical mediators released by the body

A

Prostaglandins

Lysosomal enzymes

74
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Cause increased vascular dilation and permeability, tissue pain and redness, and changed in connective tissue

75
Q

Lysosomal enzymes (Released by body)

A

Act as chemotactic factors

May cause damage to connective tissue and to the clot

76
Q

Other biochemical mediators released by pathogenic microorganisms

A

Endotoxin

Lysosomal enzyme

77
Q

Endotoxin

A
  • Produced by cell walls of gram-negative bacteria

* Serves as chemotacitc factor; can activate complement, function as an antigen, and damage bone and tissue

78
Q

Fever (systemic manifestations)

A
  • Controlled by hypothalamus
  • Pyrogens
  • Hypothalamus increases body temperature by way of prostaglandins
79
Q

Leukocytosis (systemic manifestations)

A

Increase to 10,000 to 30,000/mm^3 of blood

It is the body’s attempt to provide more cells for phagocytosis

80
Q

increase in lymphocytes

A

viral infection

81
Q

increase in neutrophils

A

bacterial infection

82
Q

increase in eosinophils

A

allergic reaction

83
Q

Used to monitor tissue healing

A

Elevated levels of C-reactive protein

84
Q

Chronic inflammation

A

Cause by persistent injuries

Repair cannot be completed until source of injury is removed

85
Q

Cells involved in chronic inflammation

A 
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Fibroblasts
86
Q

Formulation of granulomas

A

Microscopic groupings of macrophages surrounded by lymphocytes and plasma cells
Associated with foreign body reactions and some infections such as TB

87
Q

Nonsteroidal antinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A 
Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
Ibuprofen
88
Q

Sterodial antinflammatory drugs

A

Prednisone

89
Q

Scar tissue

A

Matured, fibrous connective tissue

It is whiter and paler because of increased collagen and decreased vascularity

90
Q

What are the types of repair for scar tissue

A

Primary intention
Secondary intention
Tertiary intention

91
Q

Microscopic events 2 weeks after injury

A

Initial granulation tissue and its fibers have been remodeled
Matured, fibrous connective tissue is called scar tissue
It is whiter and paler because of increased collagen and decreased vascularity

92
Q

Factors affecting amount of scar tissue

A
  1. )Heredity
  2. )Strength and flexibility needed in the tissue
  3. )Tissue type
  4. )Type of repair
    - Healing by primary intention
    - Healing by secondary intention
    - Healing by tertiary intention
93
Q

Healing by primary intention

A

Healing of an injury in which there is little loss of tissue

The margins are close together and very little granulation tissue forms

94
Q

Healing by secondary intention

A

The edges of the injury cannot be joined during healing

A large clot forms, resulting in increased granulation tissue

95
Q

Healing by tertiary intention

A

Delaying surgical tissue repair until infection is resolved
An injured area may become infected, especially with puncture wounds
In some situations, an infected injury is left open until infection is controlled

96
Q

Osteoblasts create

A

New bone tissue

97
Q

Factors delaying bone formation

A 
Blood supply at site
Growth factors
Edema
Injury
Infection
Removal of osteoblast-producing tissues
Excessive or inadequate movement of bone tissue
98
Q

Factors influencing repair of bone

A

Nutrition
Age
Tobacco use

99
Q

Local factors that impair healing

A 
Bacterial infection
Tissue destruction and necrosis
Hematoma
Excessive movement of injured tissue
Poor blood supply
100
Q

Systemic factors that impair healing

A

Malnutrition
Immunosuppression
Genetic connective tissue disorders
Metabolic disorders

101
Q

Injuries to Teeth

A 
Attrition
-Bruxism
Abrasion
Abfraction
Erosion
-Bulimia
-Methamphetamine abuse
102
Q

Attrition

A

Tooth-to-tooth wear

May be observed in both primary and permanent dentition

103
Q

Bruxism

A 
Grinding and clenching teeth for nonfunctional purposes, such as:
Occlusal interferences
Stress
Tension 
Seizure disorders
104
Q

Signs and symptoms of bruxism

A 
Wear facets
Abnormal rate of attrition 
Hypertrophy of masticatory muscles 
Increased muscle tone
Muscle tenderness 
Muscle fatigue
Cheek biting 
Pain in the temporomandibular (TM) joint area 
Tooth mobility 
Pulpal sensitivity to cold
105
Q

Management of bruxism

A

Occlusal adjustments to eliminate occlusal interferences and fabrication of an acrylic splint

106
Q

Abrasion

A

Pathologic wearing away of tooth structure that results from a repetitive mechanical habit
Most frequently seen as a notching on root surfaces with gingival recession

107
Q

Abfraction

A

Cause: Microfracture of tooth structure in areas of concentration of stress

  • May be related to fatigue, flexure, fracture, and deformation of tooth structure
  • May occur in combination with abrasion
108
Q

Appearance of abfraction

A

Typically appears as wedge-shaped lesions at the cervical areas of teeth

109
Q

Preventive treatment of abfraction

A

Fabricating an acrylic splint

110
Q

Erosion

A

Loss of tooth structure as a result of chemicals, without bacterial involvement

  • Tooth structure may be lost around a restoration, making the restoration stand out, distinguishing it from abrasion or attrition
  • Correlate location of erosion and abrasion with patient’s history
111
Q

Potential causes of Erosion

A 
Industrial factors
Intraorally applied cocaine hydrochloride drug abuse
Overuse of soft drinks
Baby bottle caries
Sucking on lemons
Chronic vomiting (Bulimia)
112
Q

Bulimia

A

An eating disorder characterized by food binges followed by self-induced vomiting

  • The patient with bulimia maintains a normal body weight but is secretive about eating habits
  • May see electrolyte imbalance and/or malnutritionIrritation of oral mucosa and lipsTraumatic lesions on the backs of the fingers
113
Q

Management of bulimia

A
  • Fluoride rinse and toothpaste
  • Rinse with water after purging
  • Avoid brushing immediately after vomiting
  • Use very soft toothbrush
  • May require full-coverage restorative dental treatment
114
Q

Methamphetamine abuse (Meth Mouth)

A

Rapid destruction of teeth as a result of:

  • Methamphetamine acid content
  • Decreased salivary flow
  • Cravings for high-sugar beverages
  • Lack of oral hygiene
115
Q

Injuries to oral soft tissue

A
  • Aspirin burns
  • phenol burns
  • electric burns
  • other burns
  • lesions associated with cocaine use
  • lesions from self-induced injury
  • Hematoma
  • traumatic ulcer
  • Frictional keratosis
  • Linea alba
  • Nictotinic stomatitis
  • Tobacco pouch keratosis
  • Traumatic neuroma
  • Amalgam tattoo
  • Melanosis
  • Solar Cheilitis
  • Mucocele
  • Necrotizing sialometaplasia
  • Sialolith
  • Acute and chronic sialadenitis
116
Q

Aspirin burn

A

Topical application is a common misuse of this product

  • The tissue becomes necrotic and white
  • The surface may slough off, leaving a painful ulcer
  • The ulcer usually heals in 7 to 21 days
117
Q

Phenol burn

A

Used in dentistry as a cavity-sterilizing agent and a cauterizing agent
Will cause whitening and sloughing of the area as a result of tissue destruction

118
Q

Dental materials that can cause burns

A 
Phenol
Sodium hypochlorite
Ferric sulfate
Formocresol
Eugenol
119
Q

Electric burn

A
  • May be seen in infants or young children who have chewed an electrical cord
  • May be quite extensive, damaging oral tissue and even tooth buds
  • May cause permanent disfigurement and scarring
  • –Treatment
    1. )Plastic surgery
    2. )Oral surgery
    3. )Orthodontic therapy
120
Q

Thermal Burns

A

-Hot food burns:
From soup or cheese on pizza
-Products containing hydrogen peroxide or eugenol

121
Q

Lesions associated with cocaine use

A

Lesions located at the midline of the hard palate may vary from ulcers to keratotic lesions to exophytic reactive lesions as a result of smoking crack cocaine
Necrotic ulcers of the tongue and epiglottis have been reported as a result of freebasing cocaine

122
Q

Lesions from self-induced injuries

A

Chronic lip, cheek, or tongue biting
Trauma to the gingiva from a fingernail
Lesions may range from ulceration to epithelial hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis

123
Q

Traumatic Ulcer

A
  • Cheek, lip, or tongue biting
  • Denture irritation
  • Mucosal injury
  • Overzealous brushing
  • –Treatment
    1. )Usually heals within 7 to 14 days unless the trauma persists
    2. )May require a biopsy
124
Q

Traumatic granuloma

A

-The result of persistent trauma
Appearance: Hard (indurated), raised lesion
Heals rapidly after biopsy

125
Q

Hematoma

A
  • Accumulation of blood within tissue as a result of trauma
  • Appears as a red to purple to bluish-gray mass
  • Frequently seen on labial or buccal mucosa
126
Q

Frictional Keratosis

A

A form of hyperkeratosis
Cause: Chronic rubbing or friction against an oral mucosal surface; resembles a callus on skin
Appearance: Opaque white

127
Q

Treatment of frictional keratosis

A
  • Identify the traumatic cause of the lesion
  • Eliminate the cause
  • *Must be differentiated from idiopathic leukoplakia because leukoplakia may be premalignant
128
Q

Linea Alba

A
  • A white, raised line most commonly on the buccal mucosa at the occlusal plane
  • May be the result of a teeth-clenching habit
  • Sometimes the pattern of the teeth can be seen in the lesion
  • Microscopic appearance: Epithelial hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis
  • -No treatment necessary
129
Q

Nicotine Stomatitis

A
  • A benign lesion typically associated with pipe and/or cigar smoking; may also occur with cigarette smoking
  • Initial appearance: Erythema
  • Increased opacity as keratinization occurs
  • Raised red areas occur at the openings of ducts of inflamed minor salivary glands
130
Q

Smokeless Tobacco Keratosis (STK)

A
  • A white lesion located where chewing tobacco is placed, most often in the mucobuccal fold
  • Early lesions may have a granular or wrinkled appearance
  • Long-standing lesions may be more opaquely white and have a corrugated surface
131
Q

Tobacco Pouch Keratosis

A

Treatment:

  • Tobacco cessation
  • May require biopsy
  • Long-term exposure to chewing tobacco has been associated with increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma
132
Q

Amalgam tattoo

A

-A flat, bluish-gray lesion of the oral mucosa, caused by the introduction of amalgam into tissue
-May occur during placement or removal of an amalgam restoration or during an extraction
-May be seen in any location in the oral cavity, most commonly on the gingiva or alveolar ridge
-Amalgam particles may be seen on radiograph, aiding in diagnosis
-Patient history may help
-Must be differentiated from malignant melanoma
**Treatment:
None, providing melanoma has been ruled out

133
Q

Melanosis

A
  • Normal physiologic pigmentation of oral mucosa
  • May be genetic
  • May occur as a result of inflammation: -Postinflammatory melanosis
  • If presenting as a macule, a biopsy may be warranted
  • Labial melanotic macule on vermilion of lips
  • Smoker’s melanosis
134
Q

Solar Cheilitis (Actinic Cheilitis)

A

-A degeneration of the tissue of the lips, caused by exposure to the sun
-Appearance:
*Lips appear dry and cracked
*The vermilion appears pale pink and mottled
*The interface between lips and skin is indistinct
-Microscopically: Epithelium is thinner than normal; degenerative CT changes
-Smoking and alcohol use increase risk of squamous cell carcinoma
-Biopsy may be indicated for persistent scaling or ulceration
*Prevention
Avoid sun exposure
Use sun-blocking agents

135
Q

Mucocele (Mucous Retention lesion)

A
  • A lesion formed when a salivary gland duct is severed and the mucous salivary gland secretion spills into the adjacent connective tissue
  • *Not a true cyst because it is not lined with epithelium
136
Q

Mucous Retention Lesions: Mucocele, Mucous Cyst, or Mucous Retention Cyst

A
  • Dilated salivary gland ducts that developed as a result of duct obstruction
  • Treatment: Removal of affected minor salivary gland
137
Q

Ranula

A
  • A unilateral mucocele-like lesion that forms on the floor of the mouth
  • Associated with the ducts of submandibular and sublingual glands

**Will only be found in the floor of the mouth

138
Q

Sialolith

A
  • A salivary gland stone
  • May be found in both minor and major salivary glands
  • Formed by precipitation of calcium salts around a central core
  • May often be seen on radiographs
139
Q

Treatment of Sialolith

A

Sometimes the calcification can be “milked” from the duct

It may require surgical removal; this may damage the duct

140
Q

Necrotizing Sialometaplasia

A

A benign condition of salivary glands
Moderately painful swelling and ulceration
Thought to result from blockage of blood supply to affected area, resulting in salivary gland necrosis
Salivary gland epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium
The ulcer usually heals by secondary intention
Biopsy is needed to establish diagnosis

141
Q

Acute and Chronic Sialadenitis

A

Painful swelling of the involved salivary gland caused by obstruction of the salivary gland duct
Diagnosis
May involve injection of a radiopaque dye into the gland, followed by a radiograph (sialogram)
Treatment
May require antibiotics

142
Q

Lesions from Reactive Connective Tissue Hyperplasia

A 
Pyogenic granuloma
Giant cell granuloma
Irritation fibroma
Denture-induced fibrous hyperplasia
Papillary hyperplasia of the palate
Gingival enlargement
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
143
Q

Reactive Connective Tissue Hyperplasia

A
  • Proliferating, exuberant granulation tissue and dense fibrous connective tissue resulting from overzealous repair
  • May be a response to a single event or chronic low-grade injury
144
Q

Pyogenic Granuloma

A

A proliferation of connective tissue containing numerous blood vessels and inflammatory cells occurring as a response to injury
The name is a misnomer; the lesion is neither pyogenic (pus forming) nor a true granuloma

145
Q

Appearance of pyogenic granuloma

A

Ulcerated
Soft to palpation
Bleeds easily
Deep red to purple
Generally elevated, may be sessile or pedunculated
Most commonly observed on the gingiva, it may be seen on other intraoral areas
May vary in size from a few millimeters to several centimeters
Usually develops rapidly and then remains static
Most common in teenagers and young adults, but may occur at any age
If seen in a pregnant female, it is called a pregnancy tumor

146
Q

TX of pyogenic granuloma

A

Surgically excised if it does not regress spontaneously

147
Q

Pregnancy Tumor

A

Pyogenic granuloma seen in pregnant women

  • The lesions are identical to those seen in men and nonpregnant women
  • May be caused by hormonal changes and increased response to plaque
  • They often regress after delivery
148
Q

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma

A
  • A lesion that contains many multinucleated giant cells, well-vascularized connective tissue, RBCs, and chronic inflammatory cells
  • Reactive lesion
  • *Clinical appearance resembles that of pyogenic granuloma
  • *Treatment: Surgical excision
149
Q

Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma

A

-Exophytic, usually well-demarcated sessile or pedunculated gingival lesion
-Clinically it appears to emanate from the interdental papilla
-Has been reported in both children and adults
Composed of cellular fibrous connective tissue
-Treatment consists of complete surgical excision with thorough scaling of the adjacent teeth

150
Q

Fibroma, Irritation Fibroma, Traumatic Fibroma, and Focal Fibrous Hyperplasia

A

**The most common mass on the gingiva

Caused by trauma

151
Q

Appearance of Fibroma, Irritation Fibroma, Traumatic Fibroma, and Focal Fibrous Hyperplasia

A

Appearance: A broad-based, persistent exophytic lesion composed of dense, scarlike connective tissue with few blood vessels. Usually a small lesion, less than 1 cm in diameter

152
Q

Denture-Induced Fibrous Hyperplasia

A

Cause: Ill-fitting denture
Location: In elongated folds of tissue adjacent to denture flange
Composed of dense, fibrous CT surfaced with stratified squamous epithelium

153
Q

TX of Denture-Induced Fibrous Hyperplasia

A

Surgical removal
Relining of prosthesis
New denture

154
Q

Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia of the Palate

A

Denture-induced hyperplasia

Appearance: Palatal mucosa covered by multiple erythematous papillary projections; “cobblestone” appearance

155
Q

TX of Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia of the Palate

A

Treatment: Surgical removal of hyperplastic papillary tissue before new denture construction

156
Q

Gingival Enlargement

A

An increase in the bulk of free and attached gingiva, especially the interdental papillae
Gingival margins are rounded
Color may vary from normal pink to pale or erythematous depending on the degree of inflammation and vascularity
May be generalized or localized

157
Q

Gingival enlargement is a reactive response to:

A 
Local irritants
Hormonal changes
Drugs
Hereditary conditions
Idiopathic factors
Leukemia
158
Q

TX of gingival enlargement

A

Gingivoplasty
Gingivectomy
Meticulous oral hygiene

159
Q

Chronic Hyperplastic Pulpitis (Pulp Polyp)

A
  • An excessive proliferation of chronically inflamed dental pulp tissue
  • Occurs in teeth with large, open carious lesions often in primary and permanent molars
  • Usually asymptomatic
  • Granulation tissue with inflammatory cells, primarily lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • Neutrophils may be present
  • Generally surfaced by stratified squamous epithelium
160
Q

TX of Chronic Hyperplastic Pulpitis (Pulp Polyp)

A

Endodontic therapy

Extraction

161
Q

Caries or trauma may result in:

A

Inflammation
Infection
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
Necrosis of the pulp

162
Q

The inflammatory process begins

A

in pulp and then extends to the periapical area

Accessory canals may lead to areas of inflammation on the lateral portion of the root

163
Q

Periapical Abscess

A
  • Acute periapical abscess: Purulent exudate surrounded by connective tissue containing neutrophils and lymphocytes
  • Inflammation produces severe pain
  • Tooth may slightly extrude from tooth socket
  • May or may not test positive with electric pulp testing
164
Q

TX of periapical abscess

A

May develop directly from inflammation in the pulp
More commonly develops in an area of previously existing chronic inflammation
Treatment
Drainage and endodontic therapy
Extraction

165
Q

Fistula formed from Periapical abscess

A
  • comes from Fistulous tract
  • takes the Channel of least resistance
  • *Presence of fistula warrants a radiographic evaluation
166
Q

Periapical Granuloma

A

A localized mass of chronically inflamed granulation tissue that forms at the opening of the pulp canal, generally at the apex of a nonvital tooth root.

  • Composed of granulation tissue containing lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages
  • May also contain neutrophils, areas of dense fibrous connective tissue, or epithelial rests of Malassez
167
Q

Characteristics of Periapical granuloma

A

Chronic process
Most cases are asymptomatic
Tooth may be sensitive to pressure and percussion
Tooth may be slightly extruded from the socket

168
Q

TX of periapical granuloma

A
  1. )Endodontic therapy

2. )Extraction

169
Q

Radicular cyst

A
  • A true epithelium-lined cyst
  • Associated with the root of a nonvital tooth
  • ***The most commonly occurring cyst in the oral region
  • A result of proliferation of the rests of Malassez
  • Usually asymptomatic and discovered on radiograph
170
Q

Radiographic appearance of radicular cyst

A

Radiolucent
Well circumscribed
Same as periapical granuloma

171
Q

TX of radicular cyst

A
  • Endodontic therapy
  • Apicoectomy
  • Extraction and curettage of periapical tissue
172
Q

Residual Cyst

A
  • Forms after tooth extraction and all or part of radicular cyst is left behind
  • Treatment: Surgical removal
173
Q

Root Resorption (RR)

A

External resorption: Nonreversible resorption of the tooth structure, beginning at the outside of the tooth

174
Q

Causes of RR

A
  1. )Inflammation
  2. )Pressure
  3. )Reimplantation (Tooth that has been knocked out but placed back in socket in an attempt to save tooth.)
  4. )Idiopathic
175
Q

Internal tooth or root resorption

A

Resorption often associated with an inflammatory response in the pulp or an idiopathic reason
Appearance

176
Q

Clinical appearance of Internal RR

A

A pinkish area in the crown resulting from the vascular, inflamed connective tissue
Radiographically: Radiolucent

177
Q

Treatment of internal or root resorption

A
  • If the root is not perforated, calcium hydroxide is placed and endodontic treatment is performed in an attempt to save the tooth
  • If the tooth is perforated, it must be removed
178
Q

Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis (Condensing Osteitis)

A
  • A change in the bone near the apices of teeth
  • Thought to be a reaction to low-grade infection
  • Generally asymptomatic
  • If painful, may be associated with pulpal inflammatory disease
  • Radiopaque
  • Borders may be diffuse or well defined
  • Commonly associated with the mandibular first molar
179
Q

TX of Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis (Condensing Osteitis)

A

No treatment usually necessary

Biopsy to rule out other radiopaque lesions such as osteoma, complex odontoma, or ossifying fibroma

180
Q

Alveolar Osteitis (“Dry Socket”)

A
  • A postoperative complication following tooth removal in which the blood clot is lost before healing can take place, leaving raw, exposed nerve endings
  • Most often occurring in mandibular third molar areas
  • Patient may complain of pain, bad odor, and bad taste
181
Q

Risk Factors for Alveolar Osteitis (“Dry Socket”)

A

Dissolution of the clot at the surgical site
Traumatic extraction
Presence of infection before extraction
Tobacco smoking after extraction

182
Q

TX for Alveolar Osteitis (“Dry Socket”)

A

Gentle irrigation

Daily application of Dry Socket Paste containing eucalyptol until symptoms are relieved

Pathology Exam 1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions