Chapter 2 - Procedures Flashcards
(259 cards)
1
Q
The term varus refers to
A
Turned inward
2
Q
Which elbow fat pad is not visible radiographically in the lateral projection of the normal elbow?
A
Posterior
3
Q
image What could be done to improve the lateral (mediol-ateral) projection of the knee in the fig? (2)
A
- Angle the xray tube 5 degrees cephalad.
- Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.
4
Q
The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in which of the following projections?
A
Lateral oblique elbow
5
Q
An RPO position poorly demonstrates the lumbar zygopophyseal articulations and the pedicles are seen on posterior portion of the vertebral body. What does this indicate?
A
Excessive rotation
6
Q
image Name the structure identified by the number 10 in fig 2-2.
A
Lateral epicondyle
7
Q
The term dorsal can refer to which of three of the following? (3)
A
- Back of the hand.
- Upper surface of the foot.
- Posterior surface of the body.
8
Q
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true. (3)
A
- The right lung has two fissures.
- The inferior portion of a lung is its base.
- Each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane.
9
Q
All of the following statements regarding a PA projection of the skull are true. (3)
A
- The OML is perp to the IR.
- The petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
- The CR is perp to the IR and exits the nasion.
10
Q
image An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in fig 2-3 would include which of the following? (3)
A
- The pulmonary apices are demonstrated.
- The air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated.
- Ten posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm.
11
Q
A congenital defect in which the sternum is depressed posteriorly is termed
A
Pectus excavatum
12
Q
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patello-femoral articulation?
A
Tangential patella
13
Q
Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include which of the following? (2)
A
- Cecum.
- Vermiform appendix.
14
Q
image Which of the following statements are correct regarding fig 2-4? (3)
A
- The image was made in the RPO position.
- The right ureter is best visualized.
- KUB are included.
15
Q
Structures involved in blowout fractures include the (2)
A
- Orbital floor.
- Inferior rectus muscle.
16
Q
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in the formation ankle mortise? (2)
A
- Talotibial.
- Talofibular.
17
Q
The upper surface of the foot may be described as the (2)
A
- Anterior surface.
- Dorsum.
18
Q
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
A
Gastric or bowel mucosa
19
Q
Terms to describe movement include (2)
A
- Extension.
- Eversion.
20
Q
Which of the following is best demonstrated on the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and exiting at the foramen magnum?
A
Occipital bone
21
Q
The RPO position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demo the
A
Anterior rim of the acetabulum
22
Q
image Select the three statements regarding fig 2-5? (3)
A
- The left axillary ribs are well demonstrated.
- The exposure was made on full inspiration.
- The image was made using a 45 degree oblique.
23
Q
Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstrate a nearly frontal view of the sternum?
A
RAO
24
Q
Skeletal muscle is (2)
A
- Striated.
- Involuntary.
25
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? (2)
- Femur.
| - Tibia.
26
How should a chest exam to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?
Include a lateral chest exam performed in dorsal decubitus position.
27
In the axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the hip, the IR should be
Parallel to the femoral neck
28
*image* Which of the following is recommended method to image the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses seen in fig 2-6?
Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal
29
*image* Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the radiograph in fig 2-6? (2)
- The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses.
- The perp plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity.
30
To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the hand in the oblique position, the radiographer should
Use a support sponge for the phalanges
31
Traumatic rib fractures resulting in their detachment from the rib cage is termed
Flail chest
32
The relationship between the fractured ends of long bones is called
Apposition
33
In the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed
15 degrees cephalad to C4
34
In which of the following positions can small amounts of free air in the peritoneal cavity be demonstrated?
Left lateral decubitus
35
Which of the following anatomic structures is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
Cardiac apex
36
For an AP projection of the knee in a patient whose measurement from ASIS to table top is 17cm, which CR direction will best demo the knee joint?
3-5 degrees caudad
37
*image* In which of the following projections was the image in fig 2-7 made?
Medial oblique
38
*image* Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 1 in fig 2-7?
Medial epicondyle
39
*image* Select the correct statement(s) regarding the image shown in fig 2-8? (2)
- There is insufficient internal rotation.
| - The femoral neck is foreshortened.
40
A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially (toward the shoulder). Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? (2)
- Radial head.
| - Capitulum.
41
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
AP or PA through the foramen magnum
42
The floor of the cranium includes all of the following (3)
- Temporal bones.
- Ethmoid bone.
- Sphenoid bone.
43
Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the
AP projection
44
*image* In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in fig 2-9?
LAO
45
*image* The distal ileum is labeled in fig 2-9 as number
6
46
A kyphotic curve is formed by the (2)
- Sacral vertebrae.
| - Thoracic vertebrae.
47
Which of the following projections/positions will best demonstrate a subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
PA oblique scapular Y
48
Correct prep for a patient scheduled for an UGI series is most likely to be
NPO after midnight
49
Which of the following positions can be used to demo the axillary ribs of the right thorax?
LAO
50
The interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms are best demonstrated in which of the following projections?
Lateral Oblique Foot
51
The sternal angle is approx the same level as the
T5
52
The following are anatomical features of the femur. Rearrange them in order from distal to proximal. (6)
Lateral Condyle > Medial Epicondyle > Body/shaft > Lesser Trochanter > Greater Trochanter > Head
53
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
Erect
54
*image* Select the correct statement(s) regarding fig 2-10. (2)
The degree of obliquity is correct. The middle phalanges are foreshortened.
55
What is the relationship between the MSP and MCP?
Perpendicular
56
All of the following structures are associated with the posterior femur. (3)
- Popliteal surface.
- Intercondyloid fossa.
- Linea aspera.
57
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Norgaard method, "ball-catcher's position?" (3)
- Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained.
- It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis.
- The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up.
58
*image* What condition(s) is/are demonstrated in fig 2-11? (2)
- Pneumothorax.
| - Pleural Effusion.
59
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-L3?
Inferior Costal Margin
60
To visualize or "open" the right SI joint the patient is positioned
25-30 degrees LPO
61
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? (3)
- Scapular Y projection.
- Inferosuperior Axial.
- Transthoracic Lateral.
62
Which of the following is/are distal to the tibial plateau? (2)
- Tibial Condyles.
| - Tibial Tuberosity.
63
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include (2)
- Lesser tubercle in profile.
| - Superimposed epicondyles.
64
Which of the following are mediastinal structures? (3)
- Heart.
- Trachea.
- Esophagus.
65
*image* Which of the following statements are correct regarding fig 2-12? (3)
- The atlantoaxial articulation is well demonstrated.
- The odontoid process is incompletely visualized.
- More flexion is required to move upper incisors more inferiorly.
66
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small, bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
Avulsion fracture
67
That portion of the humerus which articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint is the
Trochlea
68
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that (2)
- The radius and ulna be superimposed distally.
| - The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.
69
In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the
Subarachnoid space between the 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae
70
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the
Bregma
71
*image* Which of the following statements are true regarding the radiograph in fig 2-13? (4)
- The image is an oblique projection of the shoulder.
- The glenoid cavity and humeral head are superimposed.
- The acromion process is projected laterally.
- The coracoid process is free of superimposition.
72
Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? (2)
- When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
- To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the inital exam.
73
The lumbar vertebral transverse process is represented by which part of the "scottie dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
Nose
74
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation?
30 degrees RPO
75
Which of the following places the anatomical points of the hand's third digit in correct order from proximal to distal?
Carpometacarpal joint > base of metacarpal > metacarpophalangeal joint > proximal interphalangeal joint > head of middle phalange > distal interphalangeal joint > ungual tuft
76
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosty?
Osgood-Schlatter disease
77
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the (2)
- Atlantoaxial joint.
| - Radioulnar joint.
78
Components of the bony thorax include the (3)
- Manubrium.
- Ribs.
- Thoracic Vertebrae.
79
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
Right main stem bronchus
80
*image* The PA chest radiograph shown in fig 2-14 demonstrates (2)
- Rotation.
| - Scapulae removed from lung fields.
81
*image* The letter B in fig 2-14 indicates
A left anterior rib
82
The laryngeal prominence is formed by the
Thyroid cartilage
83
Types of articulations lacking a joint cavity include (2)
- Fibrous.
| - Cartilaginous.
84
The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
MSP 20 degrees to the IR
85
The structure located midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis is the
Dome of the acetabulum
86
*image* The structure labeled 4 in fig 2-15 is the
Maxillary sinus
87
*image* Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in fig 2-15?
SMV projection
88
The uppermost portion os the iliac crest is at approx the same level as
L4
89
*image* The radiograph shown in fig 2-16 demonstrates the articulation between the
Talus and navicular
90
*image* The ulnar styloid process seen in fig 2-17 is indicated by number
9
91
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an
30 degree oblique
92
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
Avoid superimposition on the apices
93
That portion of a long bone from which is lengthens/grows is the
Metaphysis
94
Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
Lateral projection
95
What part of the scottie dog, seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the pedicle
Eye
96
*image* All of the following statements regarding the position shown in fig 2-18 are true (3)
- A right pneumothorax could be demonstrated.
- A left pleural effusion could be demonstrated.
- The CR is directed horizontally to the level of T7.
97
Which of the following positions best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
45 degree internal rotation
98
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
C4
99
What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?
High and horizontal
100
*image* Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image seen in fig 2-19? (2)
- It provides a lateral view.
| - It is useful in trauma situations.
101
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body parts? (2)
- Short, wide, and transverse heart.
| - High and peripheral large bowel.
102
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
Hydronephrosis
103
Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? (2)
- Clavicular body.
| - AC joint.
104
All of the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true (3)
- The large bowel must be completely empty prior to exam.
- Retained fecal material can obscure pathology.
- Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions.
105
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the (3)
- Fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
- Patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
- Femoral condyles should be superimposed.
106
Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the hemidiaphragm?
Emphysema
107
The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is
Hematemesis
108
The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
Serosa
109
Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?
Internal rotation
110
*image* In the PA projection of the hand seen in fig 2-20, which numeral identifies the interphalangeal joint?
6
111
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?
Internal rotation
112
*image* With the patient positioned in fig 2-21, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?
Intercondyloid fossa
113
*image* Which of the following structures is illustrated by number 2 in fig 2-22?
Zygomatic arch
114
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? (2)
- Condyloid.
| - Sellar.
115
Which of the following carpal(s) is/are best demonstrated by ulnar flexion/deviation? (2)
- Lateral carpals.
| - Scaphoid.
116
*image* What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in fig 2-23?
Angle the CR about 30 degree cephalad
117
An LPO fails to clearly demonstrate the lumbar zygopophyseal articulations. The pedicles are seen on the anterior portion of the vertebral body. What does this indicate?
Insufficient rotation
118
In which type of fracture are on the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
Compound
119
The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections? (2)
- Lateral T-spine.
| - Lateral L-spine.
120
Which of the following is/are recommended to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region? (2)
- Close collimation.
| - Lead mat on table posterior to the patient.
121
Which of the following are/is associated with a colles fracture? (2)
- Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid.
| - Posterior or backward displacement.
122
Which type of ileus is characterized by cessation of peristalsis?
Paralytic
123
The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is the
Tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method
124
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate (2)
- Foreign body.
| - Soft tissue.
125
*image* Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the images shown in fig 2-24? (2)
- Image A was made with cephalad angulation.
| - Image B was made with caudal angulation.
126
Which body habitus type is characterized by a long thorax and very low, medial stomach?
Asthenic
127
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?
Horizontal beam lateral
128
Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include
Radial styloid process
129
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is/are true? (2)
- The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
- An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.
130
An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is called
Contrecoupe
131
The most distal portion of the pharynx is the
Laryngopharynx
132
Which part of the mandible will be best visualized with the patient's head in the PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad?
Rami
133
During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate (2)
- Ureteral filling.
| - The renal pelvis.
134
The plane passing vertically through the body and dividing into anterior and posterior halves is the
MCP
135
The act of expiration will cause the (2)
- Sternum and ribs to move inferiorly.
| - Diaphragm to move superiorly.
136
*image* The number 2 in fig 2-25 indicates
Spinous process of L1
137
The AP axial projection of the cervical spine demonstrates which of the following?
C3-C7 cervical bodies
138
CR angulation may be required to avoid (2)
- Foreshortening or self-superimposition.
| - Superimposition of overlying structures.
139
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
140
Foot motion caused by turning the ankle outward is termed
Eversion
141
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
Patient supine with CR 30-35 degrees angle cephalad
142
Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following (3)
- Object shape does not coincide with the shape of the x-ray beam.
- Object plane is not parallel with the x-ray tube and/or IR.
- Anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR.
143
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prosthesis, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
MRI
144
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? (2)
- IPL perpendicular to the IR.
| - IOML parallel to the transverse axis of the IR.
145
*image* The radiograph shown in fig 2-26 was most likely made in which of the following positions?
Prone recumbent
146
Persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is called
A patent ductus arteriosus
147
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
Must be supported parallel to the IR
148
The cartilaginous portion of growing bone found at the extremities of long bones is the
Epiphysis
149
How should a mobile chest examination be performed to demonstrate air-fluid levels on a patient seated semi upright about 70 degrees?
With CR parallel to the floor
150
The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?
Right iliac
151
Which of the following is/are true regarding radiographic examination of the AC joints? (2)
- The procedure is performed in the erect position.
| - Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
152
A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is
Ewing sarcoma
153
With the patient on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the
Trendelenberg position
154
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
SMV
155
*image* Which of the following statements are true with respect to the image seen in fig 2-27? (2)
- The zygapophyseal articulations are demonstrated.
| - All seven cervical vertebrae are visualized.
156
Which of the following ia/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur?
Patellar surface
157
In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?
Supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant)
158
*image* In fig 2-28, the structure indicated as number 2 is which of the following?
Tubercle of the rib
159
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? (2)
- Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders.
- Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.
160
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint joint be visualized?
Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
161
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the (2)
- Talotibial joint is visualized.
| - TIbia and fibula are superimposed.
162
*image* The position illustrated in the radiograph in fig 2-29 may be obtained with the patient
Supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad
163
All of the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel (3)
- Lateral Rectum.
- AP axial sigmoidcolon.
- RAO and LAO abdomen.
164
Which of the following projections best demonstrates the ankle mortise?
Medial oblique 15-20 degrees
165
Which type of pediatric fracture specifically involves the bony growth plate?
Salter-Harris
166
*image* Which aspect(s) of the scapula is/are demonstrated in fig 2-30?
It's posterior aspect
167
*image* Which of the following is represented by number 3 in fig 2-30?
Acromion process
168
*image* Which of the following is represented by number 8 in fig 2-30?
Apex
169
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
Completely within the orbits
170
When evaluating the PA axial projection of the skull with 15 degree caudal angle, which of the following should be demonstrated? (3)
- Petrous pyramids in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.
- Equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally.
- Symmetrical petrous pyramids.
171
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?
Hepatic/right colic flexure
172
HSG may be performed for demonstration of (3)
- Uterine tubal patency.
- Mass lesions in the uterine cavity.
- Uterine position.
173
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
Right lateral decubitus
174
In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the
Intervertebral foramina nearest the IR
175
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration (2)
- Raises the ribs.
| - Depresses the abdominal viscera.
176
All of the following are palpable bony landmarks that can be used in radiography of the pelvis (3)
- Pubic Symphysis.
- Greater trochanter.
- Iliac crest.
177
*image* Which of the following statements is/are true regarding fig 2-31? (3)
- It demonstrates RAO sternum.
- Exposure was made during shallow respiration.
- Sternum was projected in the left thorax.
178
*image* To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in fig 2-32, the radiographer should
Direct the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad
179
During an air contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized in the AP recumbent position?
Transverse colon
180
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
First metacarpal
181
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? (2)
- The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal.
| - The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.
182
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in an infant or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
10-15 degrees caudal
183
During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on (3)
- The respiratory phase.
- Body habitus.
- Patient position.
184
For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? (2)
- Patency of the biliary ducts.
| - Biliary tract calculi.
185
For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium filled stomach should enter
Midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
186
In the lateral projection of the foot, the (2)
- Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR.
| - Metatarsals are superimposed.
187
Which of the following is/are appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? (2)
- Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient.
| - Call for help and use the log rolling method to turn the patient.
188
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
Lateral
189
*image* The structure labeled 4 in fig 2-33 is the
Odontoid process
190
*image* In fig 2-33, the posterior arch of the atlas is indicated by the number
number 3
191
Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?
Voiding cystourethrogram
192
Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include (2)
- Both joints must be included in long bone studies.
| - Two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.
193
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
Medial oblique 15-20 degrees
194
In the AP projection of the ankle, the (2)
- Plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
| - Fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
195
Which of the following sequences correctly describes a path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins.
196
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
Left SI joint
197
An AC separation will be best demonstrated in which of the following projections?
AP erect, both shoulders
198
Causes of death in 70% of people older than 65 years include (2)
- Stroke.
| - Heart disease.
199
In the axiolateral projection of the hip, the CR should be
Perpendicular to the femoral neck
200
*image* Select the statements that correctly describe the image seen in fig 2-34. (4)
- An axial projection the calcaneus is seen.
- The talocalcaneal joint is visualized.
- The ankle is dorsiflexed.
- The sustentaculum tali is visualized.
201
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is called
Aspiration
202
ERCP usually involves (2)
- Introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct.
- Introduction of barium directly into the duodenum.
203
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the
Laminae
204
The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed (2)
- Parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.
| - In contact with the lateral surface of the body.
205
Appropriate radiation protection strategies for the pediatric patient include which of the following?
Use appropriate gonadal shielding. Shield torso when examining upper extremities.
206
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? (2)
- Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA).
| - Stent placement.
207
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast through a uterine cannula?
HSG
208
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
Hilus
209
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called?
Pulse
210
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? (2)
- Dorsum sella.
| - Posterior arch of C1.
211
Which of the following projections/positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?
AP and Scapular Y
212
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition?
AP oblique, medial rotation
213
Which of the following bone participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? (2)
Ischium. Pubis.
214
All of the following are associated with the knee joint (3)
- Fatpad.
- Menisci.
- Collateral ligament.
215
The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed (2)
- 15 degrees cephalad.
| - Two inches superior to the pubic symphysis.
216
Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate cartilage degeneration in the knees?
AP erect
217
Elements of the correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include (3)
- Weight evenly distributed on feet.
| - Elevation of the chin.
218
*image* Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the images shown in fig 2-35? (2)
- Image B demonstrates internal rotation.
| - The greater tubercle is demonstrated in image A.
219
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
AP Abdomen
220
The adult cranial bones contain a layer of cancellous tissue between the inner and outer layers called
Diploe
221
In the AP axial projection, or bilateral frog leg position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axis of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?
Abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
222
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed (2)
- Following inversion or eversion injuries.
| - To demonstrate a ligament tear.
223
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? (2)
- Lateral forearm.
| - Internal rotation shoulder.
224
Image identification markers should include (3)
- Patient's name and/or ID number.
- Date.
- Right or left marker.
225
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the (3)
- Epicondyles perpendicular to the IR.
- Hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
- Hand lateral and in internal rotation.
226
*image* The image shown in fig 2-36 was made in what position?
Right lateral decubitus
227
Which of the following equipment is required when preparing the examining room for myelography? (4)
- Footboard for fluoro table.
- Shoulder support for fluoro table.
- Surgical masks.
- Water-soluble nonionic contrast.
228
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
LPO
229
Which of the following is/are effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? (3)
- Use of PA projection.
- Use of breast shields.
- Use of compensating filtration.
230
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
Diarthrodial
231
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow resting on the table and flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
Coronoid process
232
Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following?
AP projection, left lateral decubitus position
233
Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilms' tumor?
IVU
234
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to (2)
- Make the vertebral column parallel with the IR.
| - Place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR.
235
Which of the following sinus groups is best demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?
Sphenoidal
236
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?
A post-pubertal adolescent
237
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
Emergency and trauma radiography
238
Which of the following structures is/are located in the RUQ? (2)
- GB.
| - Hepatic flexure.
239
The facial bones include the (4)
- Palatine.
- Maxilla.
- Vomer.
- Mandible.
240
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
AP medial oblique
241
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate (2)
- Postraumatic swelling to the spinal cord.
| - Posterior disk herniation.
242
Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? (2)
- Creatinine.
| - BUN.
243
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? (2)
- Fractured lateral malleolus.
| - Fractured medial malleolus.
244
Which of the following descriptive terms could be associated with an AP recumbent position? (2)
- Supine.
| - Dorsal decubitus.
245
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the (2)
- Common carotid arteries.
| - Vertebral arteries.
246
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? (3)
- Suspected perforation of a hallow viscus.
- Suspected large bowel obstruction.
- Preoperative patients.
247
The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is
Distal
248
*image* Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine shown in fig 2-37? (2)
- Zygapophyseal articulations.
| - Inferior articular processes.
249
Which of the following statements is/are correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? (3)
- The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR.
- The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs.
- Arms must be raised high to prevent upper arm soft tissue superimposition of lung field.
250
*image* Which of the following is well demonstrated just posterior to the lumbar vertebrae in fig 2-38?
Psoas muscle
251
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? (2)
- Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed cauded 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa.
- Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia.
252
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
Vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed
253
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) projection
254
The AP trendelenburg position is often used during an UGI exam to demonstrate
Hiatal hernia
255
*image* What is the structure labeled number 2 in fig 2-39?
Scaphoid
256
*image* What is the structure labeled number 3 in fig 2-39?
Radial styloid
257
Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
Dorsal decubitus position
258
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
Flexion and extension laterals
259
If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheek bones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head
15 degrees toward the side being examined
