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GUYTON > Chapter 3: Genetic Control of Protein Synthesis, Cell Function, and Cell Reproduction > Flashcards

Chapter 3: Genetic Control of Protein Synthesis, Cell Function, and Cell Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

This refers to the entire process from transcription of the genetic code in the nucleus to the translation of the RNA code and formation of proteins in the cytoplasm

A

gene expression

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2
Q

How are the 2 DNA strands held together?

A

by hydrogen bonds between the purine and pyrimidine bases

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3
Q

How many pairs of nucleotides are present in each full turn of the helix in a DNA molecule?

A

10 pairs

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4
Q

How can the DNA control the formation of proteins in the cell?

A

by means of a genetic code

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5
Q

This is the transfer of cell nucleus DNA code to cytoplasm RNA code

A

Transcription

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6
Q

The enzyme that moves along the DNA strand and assembles the RNA molecule

A

RNA polymerase

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7
Q

This refers to the complementary code triplets formed during RNA synthesis

A

codons

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8
Q

These portions of the RNA will control the sequence of amino acids in a protein to be synthesized in the cell cytoplasm

A

codons

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9
Q

What is the difference of ribose from deoxyribose?

A

ribose contains an extra hydroxyl ion

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10
Q

Thymine is replaced by which nucleic acid in RNA?

A

uracil

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11
Q

This enzyme functions to activate the RNA nucleotides during RNA synthesis

A

RNA polymerase

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12
Q

What does RNA polymerase add to each nucleotide during RNA synthesis?

A

2 phosphate radicals to form triphosphates

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13
Q

This is a sequence of nucleotides in the DNA strand, immediately ahead of the gene to be transcribed, to which the RNA polymerase attaches after recognition

A

Promoter

**The RNA polymerase has an appropriate complementary structure that recognizes this promoter and becomes attached to it, which is the essential step for initiating the formation of RNA.

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14
Q

How many turns of the DNA helix is unwound by RNA polymerase upon attachment to the promoter?

A

2 turns

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15
Q

How many turns of the DNA helix is unwound by RNA polymerase upon attachment to the promoter?

A

2 turns

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16
Q

This is the sequence of DNA nucleotides at the end of the DNA gene which causes the RNA polymerase and the newly formed RNA chain to break away from the DNA strand

A

chain-terminating sequence

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17
Q

What ribose nucleotide base combines with adenine of the DNA strand?

A

uracil

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18
Q

This is a large, immature, single strand of RNA that is processed in the nucleus to form mature mRNA.

A

precursor messenger RNA (pre-mRNA)

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19
Q

These are the segments of the pre-mRNA that is removed by the process of splicing

A

introns

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20
Q

These are the segments of pre-mRNA which are retained in the final mRNA

A

exons

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21
Q

This type of RNA directs the splicing of pre-mRNA to mRNA

A

small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

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22
Q

This type of RNA carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm for controlling the type of protein formed

A

messenger RNA (mRNA)

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23
Q

This is the type of RNA that transports activated amino acids to the ribosomes to be used in assembling the protein molecule

A

transfer RNA

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24
Q

This is the type of RNA, along with 75 different proteins, form ribosomes

A

transfer RNA (tRNA)

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25
Q

These are synthetic miRNAs which are short, double-stranded molecules, comprised of 20 to 25 nucleotides, that interfere with expression of specific genes.

A

small interfering RNA (aka short interfering RNA, silencing RNA, siRNA)

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26
Q

This is the physical and chemical structure on which protein molecules are actually assembled

A

ribosomes

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27
Q

This is the type of RNA that can regulate gene transcription and translation

A

microRNA (miRNA)

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28
Q

Approximately how many nucleotides form the single-stranded microRNA? (range)

A

21-23 nucleotides

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29
Q

What is the chain-initiating (start) codon?

A

AUG

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30
Q

What are the chain-terminating (stop) codons?

A

UAA UAG UGA

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31
Q

Approximately how many nucleotides form a tRNA

A

80 nucleotides

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32
Q

Which nucleotide in the tRNA serves as the attachment site of the amino acid?

A

adenylic acid (specifically at its hydroxyl group)

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33
Q

This is the specific code in the tRNA that allows it to recognize a specific codon in the mRNA

A

anticodon

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34
Q

What percentage of the ribosome is constituted by the rRNA?

A

60%

**the remainder of the ribosome is protein, including about 75 types of proteins that are both structural proteins and enzymes needed to manufacture proteins.

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35
Q

The ribosome functions in association with which two types of RNA during protein synthesis

A

tRNA and mRNA

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36
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes in the nucleus are responsible for the formation of ribosomal RNA?

A

5 pairs of chromosomes

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37
Q

Ribosomal RNA is specially processed in the ________, where it binds with ribosomal proteins to form granular condensation products that are primordial subunits of ribosomes

A

nucleolus

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38
Q

The miRNAs are encoded from the transcribed DNA of genes, but they are not translated into proteins and are therefore often called:

A

noncoding RNA

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39
Q

These are longer primary precursor RNA transcripts that are involved in the generation of miRNAs

A

pri-miRNAs

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40
Q

What processes the pri-miRNAs to pre-miRNAs in the nucleus?

A

microprocessor complex

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41
Q

These are 70-nucleotide, stem loop structures that are processed in the cytoplasm to become miRNAs

A

pre-miRNAs

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42
Q

This type of RNA can be tailored for any specific sequence of genes. It is designed to avoid nuclear processing by the microprocessor complex and, after it enters the cytoplasm, it activates the RISC, blocking the translation of mRNA.

A

small interfering RNA (aka short interfering RNA, silencing RNA, siRNA)

**synthetic type of miRNA

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43
Q

This is the enzyme found in the cytoplasm that processes pre-miRNA by assembling an RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC), and generates miRNAs

A

dicer enzyme

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44
Q

The ________ regulate gene expression by binding to the complementary region of the RNA and repressing translation or promoting degradation of the messenger RNA (mRNA) before it can be translated by the ribosome.

A

miRNAs

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45
Q

This complex is assembled by the dicer enzyme and works with the miRNA in repressing translation or promoting mRNA degradation

A

RNA-induced Silencing Complex (RISC)

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46
Q

These are clusters of 3-10 ribosomes that are being attached to a single mRNA at the same time

A

polyribosomes

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47
Q

The ribozyme that forms peptide bonds between the successive amino acids, thus adding progressively to the protein chain

A

peptidyl transferase

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48
Q

How many high-energy phosphate bonds are used for each amino acid added to the protein chain?

A

4

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49
Q

The process by which the two reactive sites left on the two successive amino acids bond with each other, resulting in a single molecule.

A

peptide linkage

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50
Q

This is one of the two methods by which the cell regulates its biochemical activities by controlling the degree of action of genes and the formation of gene products themselves.

A

genetic regulation

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51
Q

This is one of the two methods by which the cell regulates its biochemical activities by controlling the activity levels of enzymes that are already formed

A

enzyme regulation

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52
Q

This permits the different cell types in the body to each perform their specialized functions and provides all living organisms with the ability to respond to changes in their environment.

A

genetic regulation (or regulation of gene expression)

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53
Q

True or False:

Regulation of gene expression can occur at any point in the pathways of transcription, RNA processing, and translation.

A

True

54
Q

This is the sequence of bases contained in the basal promoter of a eukaryotic DNA

A

TATA box (TATAAA)

** the binding site of TATA-binding protein (TBP) and several other transcription factors

55
Q

This refers to the collection of several transcription factors that bind to the TATA box

A

transcription factor IID complex

56
Q

This is the transcription factor that binds to both the DNA and RNA polymerase 2 while in the TATA box region, to facilitated transcription.

A

transcription factor IIB

57
Q

This is located farther upstream from the transcription start site and contains several binding sites for positive or negative transcription factors that can affect transcription through interactions with proteins bound to the basal promoter

A

upstream promoter

58
Q

These are regions of DNA that can bind transcription factors, and they can be located a great distance from the gene they act on or even on a different chromosome. They can also be located upstream or downstream of the gene that they regulate.

A

Enhancers

59
Q

These are gene sequences that provide a barrier so that a specific gene is isolated against transcriptional influences from surrounding genes.

A

insulators

**Insulators can vary greatly in their DNA sequence and the proteins that bind to them. One way an insulator activity can be modulated is by DNA methylation, which is the case for the mammalian insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF-2) gene.

60
Q

This is a way of modulating the activity of insulators that is exemplified by the mammalian insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF-2)

A

DNA methylation

61
Q

Between the maternal and paternal DNA sequence for the IGF-2 gene, which one is methylated such that the transcription repressor cannot bind to the insulator allowing the expression of the said gene

A

Paternal DNA

62
Q

These are small proteins where the DNA winds around in each chromosome

A

histones

63
Q

This substance usually acts on directly on the first enzyme in a sequence, rather than on the subsequent enzymes, causing an allosteric conformational change that inactivates it.

A

the synthesized PRODUCT

**Enzyme inhibition
One can readily recognize the importance of inactivating the first enzyme because this prevents buildup of intermediary products that are not used.

64
Q

As an example of enzyme activation, the depletion of ATP in the cell causes the formation of cAMP (breakdown product of ATP) that in turn activates which enzyme that will liberate glucose molecules for the replenishment of ATP?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

65
Q

This is considered as the central theme to life

A

DNA-genetic system

66
Q

Which phase constitutes 95% of the life cycle of the cell?

A

Interphase

**the interval between mitosis

67
Q

What is the first step of cell reproduction?

A

Replication of all DNA in the chromosome

68
Q

How many hours prior to mitosis is the DNA duplicated?

A

5 to 10 hours before mitosis

69
Q

The duplication of DNA is completed after how many hours?

A

4-8 hours

70
Q

in what direction does the DNA polymerase add nucleotides along the DNA template strand?

A

5’ to 3’ direction

71
Q

This enzyme causes bonding of successive DNA nucleotides to one another, using high-energy phosphate bonds to energize these attachments

A

DNA ligase

72
Q

These enzymes uncoil the DNA helixes by breaking the hydrogen bonding between the base pairs of the DNA

A

DNA helicases

73
Q

This is the area that will be the template for replication to begin

A

Replication fork

** the Y shape separation of the 2 DNA strands

74
Q

Replication progresses only in what direction

A

5’ to 3’ direction

75
Q

Which strand of the uncoiled DNA in oriented in the 3’ to 5’ direction toward the replication fork?

A

Leading strand

76
Q

Which strand of the uncoiled DNA is oriented in the 5’ to 3’ direction, away from the replication fork?

A

Lagging strand

77
Q

This is a short piece of RNA that binds to the 3’ end of the leading strand once the DNA strands have been separated as a starting point for DNA replication

A

Primer

**these are generated by DNA primase

78
Q

This is the process by which the DNA polymerases create the new strand

A

Elongation

79
Q

These are pieces of DNA added to the strand between primers in the lagging strand

A

Okazaki fragments

80
Q

This enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments to form a single unified strand

A

DNA ligase

81
Q

These enzymes remove the RNA primers and proofreads the newly formed DNA, checking and clipping off any mismatched or unpaired residues

A

exonucleases

82
Q

This enzyme can transiently/reversibly break the phosphodiester bond in the backbone of the DNA strand to prevent the DNA in front of the replication fork from being overwound.

A

topoisomerase

83
Q

The process of replication produces two DNA molecules, each with one strand from the parent DNA and one new strand. For this reason, DNA replication is often described as ___________; half of the chain is part of the original DNA molecule and half is brand new.

A

semiconservative

84
Q

The repair progress achieved by the same DNA polymerases and DNA ligases that are used in replication

A

DNA proofreading

85
Q

Theses are organizations of small, bobbin-like cores wherein small segments of each DNA helix are coiled

A

histones

**some of the regulatory proteins decondense the histone packaging of the DNA and allow small segments at a time to form RNA

86
Q

This is the point of attachment of the two newly formed chromosomes after replication

A

centromere

87
Q

These are the cellular structures wherein or around which the first events of mitosis take place

A

centrioles

88
Q

This refers to the duplicated but still attached chromosomes

A

chromatids

89
Q

This cellular structure is a small cylindrical body about 0.4 micrometer long and about 0.15 micrometer in diameter, consisting mainly of nine parallel tubular structures arranged in the form of a cylinder.

A

centriole

90
Q

How many centrioles are present in the cell after interphase?

A

4 centrioles or 2 pairs

91
Q

This refers to each pair of centrioles along with its attached pericentriolar material

A

centrosome

92
Q

This structure, described as a spiny star, are microtubules that grow radially away from each pair of centrioles as the pair move apart from each other

A

aster

**Some of the spines of the aster penetrate the nuclear membrane and help separate the two sets of chromatids during mitosis

93
Q

This refers to the complex of microtubules extending between two new centriole pairs

A

spindle

94
Q

This refers to the entire set of microtubules plus the two pairs of centrioles in a mitotic cell

A

mitotic apparatus

95
Q

This is the phase of mitosis wherein the chromosomes of the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes

A

Prophase

96
Q

This is the stage of mitosis wherein the growing microtubular spines of the aster fragment the nuclear envelope, and multiple microtubules from the aster attach to the chromatids at the centromeres, pulling one chromatid of each pair toward one cellular pole and its partner toward the opposite pole

A

Prometaphase

97
Q

These are minute contractile protein molecules which may be composed of the muscle protein actin, extending between the respective spines and, using a stepping action (as in muscle), actively slide the spines in a reverse direction along each other during metaphase

A

molecular motors

98
Q

What is the stage of mitosis wherein the chromatids are pulled tightly by their attached microtubules to the very center of the cell?

A

Metaphase

99
Q

What part of the mitotic spindle is formed as the chromatids are pulled tightly by their attached microtubules to the very center of the cell?

A

equatorial plate

100
Q

How many chromosomes and chromatids are there by the end of the anaphase stage of mitosis?

A 
92 chromosomes (2 sets of 46 daughter chromosomes)
92 chromatids (46 pairs of sister chromatids were separated)
101
Q

What forms the contractile ring that cause the pinching off during telophase?

A

microfilaments (actin and myosin)

102
Q

What are the 3 factors or ways that control the growth of cells?

A
  1. Presence of growth factors
  2. Space for growth
  3. Presence of secretions
103
Q

This is a region of repetitive nucleotide sequences located at each end of a chromatid that serves as a protective cap that prevent the chromosome from deterioration during cell division

A

Telomere

104
Q

These are considered to be disposable chromosomal buffers that help maintain stability of the genes but are gradually consumed during repeated cell divisions

A

Telomeres

105
Q

Each time a cell divides, an average person loses about how many base pairs from the ends of that cell’s telomeres? (range)

A

30 to 200

106
Q

This is the enzyme that adds bases to the ends of the telomeres so that many more generation of cells can be produced

A

telomerase

107
Q

What chemical (or drug) makes it possible to prevent formation of mitotic spindle and therefore prevent mitosis, even though replication of the DNA continues; hence, resulting to larger cells?

A

colchicine

108
Q

This refers to changes in the physical and functional properties of cells as they proliferate in the embryo to form the different body structures and organs

A

cell differentiation

109
Q

The differentiation of cells results not from loss of gene but from selective repression of different gene _________

A

promoters

110
Q

Electron micrographs suggest that some segments of DNA helixes that are wound around histone cores become so condensed that they no longer uncoil to form RNA molecules. One explanation for this is as follows. It has been supposed that the cellular genome begins at a certain stage of cell differentiation to produce a __________ that forever after represses a select group of genes. Therefore, the repressed genes never function again.

A

regulatory protein

111
Q

What is the maximum and potential number of proteins that a human cell can produce, respectively?

A 
Max = 8,000 to 10,000
Potential = 20,000 to 25,000
112
Q

This is known as the primary organizer of the embryo because it forms a focus around which the remainder of the embryo develops

A

primordial chordamesoderm

113
Q

The primordial chordamesoderm differentiates into a _________ that contains segmentally arranged somites and, as a result of inductions in the surrounding tissues, causes the formation of essentially all the organs of the body

A

mesodermal axis

114
Q

What structure of the eye is formed when the developing eye vesicles come into contact with the ectoderm of the head and cause the ectoderm to thicken.

A

lens

**Another instance of induction occurs when the developing eye vesicles come into contact with the ectoderm of the head and cause the ectoderm to thicken into a lens plate that folds inward to form the lens of the eye. Therefore, a large share of the embryo develops as a result of such inductions, with one part of the body affecting another part, and this part affecting still other parts.

115
Q

This process involves a specific proteolytic cascade that causes the cell to shrink and condense, disassemble its cytoskeleton, and alter its cell surface so that a neighboring phagocytic cell, such as a macrophage, can attach to the cell membrane and digest the cell

A

programmed cell death or

apoptosis

116
Q

This is the process, in contrast to programmed cell death, wherein cells die as a result of an acute injury and usually swell and burst due to loss of cell membrane integrity

A

necrosis

117
Q

The leakage of cell contents during necrosis results to:

A

inflammation and injury to neighboring cells

118
Q

This is an orderly cell death that results in disassembly and phagocytosis of the cell before any leakage of its contents occur, and neighboring cells usually remain healthy

A

apoptosis

119
Q

These are the family of proteases that are activated to initiate apoptosis

A

caspases

**caspases are synthesized and stored in the cell as inactive procaspases

120
Q

Inactive form of caspases

A

procaspases

121
Q

These are normal genes that code for various proteins that control cell adhesion, growth, and division

A

proto-oncogenes

122
Q

These are abnormally functioning genes resulting from mutated or excessively activated proto-oncogenes

A

oncogenes

123
Q

These are genes which suppress the activation of specific oncogenes

A

antioncogenes or tumor suppressor genes

124
Q

This a factor that greatly increases the probability of mutations by the formation of ions that are highly reactive and can rupture DNA strands in tissue cells, causing many mutations

A

ionizing radiations

125
Q

These are chemical substances that greatly increase the probability of mutations in cells

A

carcinogens

126
Q

Dyes derived from ____ are known to be carcinogenic

A

aniline

127
Q

This a factor that greatly increases the probability of mutations as it leads to rapid mitotic replacement of the cells, the more rapid the mitosis, the greater the chance for mutation

A

physical irritants

128
Q

These oncoviruses are capable of inserting itself directly into one of the chromosomes, thereby causing a mutation that leads to cancer

A

DNA viruses

129
Q

This is the enzyme of some RNA viruses that causes DNA to be transcribed from RNA which will then be inserted into the animal cell genome, leading to cancer

A

reverse transcriptase

130
Q

These are produced by cancer cells that cause many new blood vessels to grow into the cancer, thus supplying the nutrients required for cancer growth

A

angiogenic factors

GUYTON (20 decks)

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