Chapter 3- Human Anatomy Flashcards
(285 cards)
1
Q
How many planes are used in anatomical descriptions for identification?
A
3
2
Q
What are the planes used in anatomic terminology?
A
Median “midsagittal” plane (vertical⬆️⬇️)
Transverse plane (horizontal ⬅️➡️)
Front “coronal” plane (FWD & AFT)
3
Q
Superior is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Nearer to the head
Transverse plane ⬆️⬇️
4
Q
Inferior is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Nearer to the feet
Transverse plane - vertical ⬆️⬇️
5
Q
Anterior (ventral) is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Nearer to the front
Frontal (coronal) plane
(FWD and Aft)
6
Q
Posterior (dorsal) is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Nearer to the back
Frontal (coronal) plane
7
Q
Superficial is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Nearer to the surface of the body
Any plane?
8
Q
Deep is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Farther from the surface of the body
Any plane?
9
Q
Medial is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Nearer to the.... Medial plane (midsagittal)
10
Q
Lateral is _____, on the _____ plane.
A
Farther from the.... Medial plane (midsagittal)
11
Q
What is flexion?
A
Flexion reduces the angle between two bones at a joint.
12
Q
What is extension?
A
Extension increases the angle between two bones at a joint.
13
Q
What is Abduction?
A
Movement away from the midline of the body (medial plane)
14
Q
What is adduction?
A
Movement toward the midline of the body (medial plane)
15
Q
What is circumduction?
A
The cone of movement occurs when flexion/extension and abduction/adduction movements are combine, but NO rotation is involved.
16
Q
In circumduction, there is no _____.
A
Rotation
17
Q
What is pronation?
A
Facing down
18
Q
Which way is the palm facing if it is supinated?
A
Facing up
19
Q
What is supination, and on what plane?
A
Superior, facing up
Transverse plane
20
Q
Palm facing down is _____.
A
Pronation
21
Q
What is inversion?
A
When the sole of your foot is turned inward towards the medial plane.
22
Q
What is eversion?
A
When the sole is turned outward or away from the medial plane
23
Q
What is Doris flexion?
A
Pulling your ankle up
Moving your ankle so that the dorsal surface of the foot moves superiorly
24
Q
What is plantar flexion?
A
Extending your foot
Draws the foot inferiorly
25
What is the musculoskeletal system?
Composed of 3 distinct yet interdependent components
Bones
Joints
Muscles
26
What are the 3 components of the musculoskeletal system?
Bones
Joints
Muscles
27
Bones form the _____.
Rigid skeletal framework
28
How do bones move?
Around joints
29
How do joints move?
As a result of the forces produced by attaching muscles
30
Bones act as what?
Levers
31
How many shapes of bone are there?
5
32
What are the 5 bone types?
```
Long
Short
Flat
Sesamoid
Irregular
```
33
How are sesamoid bones shaped and where?
Shaped like a pea
| Found in tendons
34
Bone that are more porous have a smaller proportion of _____ and _____, and greatest _____.
Calcium phosphate
Carbonate
Nonmineralized tissue
35
Bone that has low porosity is called _____.
Cortical bone
36
Cortical bone is less _____ and has a relatively high _____.
Less flexible
| Resistance to greater stress
37
What is another name for cancellous bone?
Spongy
38
Spongy bone has a relatively high _____ with more ______.
High porosity
| More nonmineralized titssue
39
What structure does spongy (cancellous) bone have, providing what?
Honeycomb structure
| More flexibility
40
What are the main components of bone?
Calcium carbonate
Calcium phosphate
Collagen
Water
41
Collagen does what?
Give bone it’s characteristic flexibility
Contributes to the bone’s ability to resist pulling/stretching forces
42
Where is cortical bone found?
In long bones required to be stronger and resist greater stress
43
Where is spongy bone found?
Found where shock absorption and a better ability to change shape are important (vertebrae)
44
In adults and children, long bones contain what type of marrow?
Adults- yellow marrow
| Children- red marrow
45
The calcium compounds (calcium carbonate-phosphate) make up what percentage of a bone’s composition?
What do these compounds provide for the bone?
60-70%
| Increased stiffness, and resistance to pressing or squeezing forces
46
Children’s bones are less/more pliable than adults?
Significantly more
47
With aging, _____ decreases, increasing _____ of the bone.
Collagen
| Brittleness
48
How much water do bones contain?
20%
| Account for 20-25% of bone mass
49
Subjected to regular physical activity and habitual loads, bones become _____.
More dense
| More mineralized
50
Inactivity can lead to what in bones?
Less dense
Less mineralized
Decreased in weight and strength
51
Reduced mechanical stress upon bones causes _____.
Loss of bone mass
52
How many bones makeup the human skeleton?
206
53
What are the two sections the human skeleton is divided into?
Axial skeleton
| Appendicular skeleton
54
The axial skeleton is composed of ____, a total of ______ bones.
Skull, vertebrae, and sternum (head, spine, trunk)
| 80 bones
55
The appendicular skeleton consists of ______, with a total of _____ bones.
Pectoral, pelvic girdle, upper and lower limbs (shoulder, hip, arms, legs)
126 bones
56
In what type of bones can marrow be found?
Typically in long bones
57
Bones are very ______ for their ______.
Strong
| Light weight
58
Why are bones strong given their light weight?
As a result of its chemical composition and the roles those compounds play in the bone.
Calcium carbonate & Calcium phosphate
-gives bone stiffness and resistance to pressing or squealing forces
Collagen- flexibility, resistance to stretching/pulling forces
59
Bones are _____ and _____ than other structures, such as _____.
Stronger
More durable
Skin
60
The presence or absence of different forces can affect the bone how?
Size
Shape
Density
61
Bones become more dense and mineralized when what occurs?
Regular physical activity and habitual load
62
Bones becomes less dense and mineralized when what occurs?
Inactivity
63
The skull is divided into how many parts?
2
64
What are the two major parts of the skull?
Calvaria
| Facial bones
65
What is the calvaria?
The vault created to protect the brain and brain stem, formed by the curved flat bones.
66
What bones form the Calvaria?
```
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
Sphenoid
```
67
Which is the most fragile bone that forms the calvaria?
Temporal bone
68
What occurs if the temporal bones is fractured and displaced internally?
It can cut the middle meningeal artery resulting in an epidural hemorrhage
69
What is an epidural hemorrhage?
Bleeding between the skull and the meninges (protective covering of the brain)
70
What is the meninges?
Protective covering of the brain
71
In an epidural hemorrhage, ________ to prevent ________.
Bleeding must be stopped quickly
Blood from collecting within the calvaria and compressing the brain, a soft and easily damaged organ.
72
How many bones compose the Facial Bones?
5
73
What are the bones comprising the Facial Bones?
```
Nasal (nose)
Lacrimal (drainage of tears)
Zygomatic (cheeks)
Maxilla (upper jaw)
Mandible (lower jaw)
```
74
Some fractures across the maxilla can cause what?
For the mandible to become separated from the maxilla
75
How many bones compose the Vertebral Column?
Up to 35 bones
76
How many groups of bone compose the Vertebral column?
5
78
How many bones are cervical vertebrae?
7
79
What are the first two cervical vertebrae named?
Atlas (C1)
| Axis (C2)
80
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
12
81
The thoracic vertebrae begin, top to bottom, beginning and ending with what named identifiers?
T1
| T12
82
How many vertebrae compose the lumbar vertebrae?
5
83
The sacrum is composed of what?
5 fused vertebrae
84
The coccyx is composed of what?
4-5 fused vertebrae
85
How are vertebrae arranged?
In a cylindrical column interspersed with fibrocartilaginous (intervertebral) discs
86
The vertebrae form a _______ for the _____.
Strong and flexible support
| Neck and trunk
87
The vertebrae is the point of attachment for ______.
Back muscles
88
The Vertebral column protects the ______ and provides _____.
Spinal cord and nerves
| Essential support for the body and the ability to keep the body erect
89
Fibrocartilaginous discs are also known as?
Intervertebral discs
90
What do intervertebral discs do?
Absorbs shock effectively when the load on the column increases.
Allows the vertebrae to move without causing damage to other vertebrae or the spinal cord.
91
How many ribs are there?
12 pairs
| 24 ribs
92
Ribs are composed of ______.
Bone and cartilage.
93
Ribs do what?
Give strength to the chest cage
| Permit the chest cage to expand
94
Ribs are what type of bones, shaped how?
Flat bones
| Curved and slightly twisted
95
The shape of the ribs effectively does what?
Protect the chest area and deflect blows attacking it
96
What are the five groups of bones in the Vertebral Column?
```
Cervical (neck) vertebrae
Thoracic (chest) vertebrae
Lumbar (lower Back) vertebrae
Sacrum (midline region of butt)
Coccyx (tail bone)
```
97
Which ribs compose the “true ribs”?
The upper 7 pairs
98
Where do true ribs attach?
True ribs attach to both the vertebrae and the sternum.
99
Which ribs compose the “false ribs”?
Pairs 8-10
100
Where do false ribs attach?
False ribs attach to the sternum indirectly
101
Which ribs are the “floating ribs”?
Pairs 11 and 12
102
Where do the floating ribs attach?
To the vertebral column only
103
All 12 rib pairs “articulate” with which vertebrae?
The 12 Thoracic vertebrae (T1-T12)
104
The midline breastbone is called the _____.
Sternum
105
The sternum consists of how many parts?
3 parts
106
What are the 3 parts of the Sternum?
Manubrium
Sternal body
Xiphoid process
107
Which bones articulate with the sternum?
The clavicles
| Ribs 1-7
108
The manubrium is where?
The top part of the sternum
109
The sternal body is located where?
The mid-section of the sternum
110
The xyphoid process is located where?
The lower part of the sternum
111
Which bones compose the pectoral girdle?
The clavicle and scapula bones
| Collar bones and shoulder blades
112
Which joint is the only bony joint between the axial skeleton and the pectoral girdle?
The sternoclavicular joint
113
What is the sternoclavicular joint?
The joint between the sternum and clavicle
The only bony joints connecting the axial skeleton to the pectoral girdle
114
Clavicle fractures occur often in ______.
Falls or collisions during sports or everyday activities
115
The pectoral girdle is ______ by many ______ that allows for ______.
Held to the chest wall
Muscles
Greater upper limb mobility
116
The humerus is which bone?
Shoulder to elbow
117
The bones that is shoulder to elbow, is called what?
Humerus
118
From elbow to wrist, there are how many bones? What are their names?
2
| Radius and Ulna
119
Where is the radius bone located?
Wrist to elbow, 1/2 bones, closest to the thumb
120
Where is the ulna bone located?
Wrist to elbow, 1/2 bones, closest to the pinky finger
121
When you probate your forearm, what occurs to your radius and ulna?
The radius crosses over the ulna
122
What is the “carpus”
The wrist
123
The carpus (wrist) is composed of how many bones?
8 bones
124
How are the bones of the carpus arranged?
2x4
125
The bones that makeup the carpus are called what?
Carpals
126
From lateral to medial, the proximal row of carpals consists of which carpals?
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetral
Pisiform
127
From lateral to medial, the distal row of carpals contains which carpals?
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate
128
What is the acronym for the bones of the carpus (wrist)?
She Likes To Play,
| Try To Catch Her
129
What are the bones of the acronym
She Likes To Play,
Try To Catch Her.
```
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetral
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate
```
130
What distal row of carpals connects with what?
The 5 metacarpal bones of the hands
131
The5 metacarpal bones of the hand articulate with what?
The fingers
132
All digits are made of how many parts?
3
133
The parts that make up each finger are called what?
Phalanges
134
Each digit of the hand consists of how many phalanges?
Fingers - 3
| Thumbs - 2
135
What are the three phalanges of the fingers called?
Proximal
Middle
Distal
136
The phalanges of the thumbs are called what?
Proximal
| Distal
137
Porous bones are also called ____?
Cortical bone
138
What are two examples of long bones?
Femur
| Phalanges
139
What are two examples of short bones?
Carpals
| Tarsals
140
What are two examples of flat bones?
Scapula, ribs
141
What is an example of a sesamoid bone?
Patella
142
What are two examples of irregular bones?
Pelvis
| Facial bones
143
Bones are composed of what? What % do they compose?
Calcium carbonate/phosphate -60-70%
Collagen - 10-20%
Water - 20%
144
Collagen loss leads to _____.
Brittleness of bones
145
What are joints?
Point of connection between two or more bones
146
What are ligaments?
Strands of connective tissue that hold bones together
147
What do tendons do?
Attach muscle to bone
148
What are the three types of joints?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial
149
Fibrous joints are not _____, but they _____.
Mobile
| Absorb shock
150
Cartilaginous joints are ______ and _____.
Slightly moveable
| Absorb shock
151
Synovial joints are identified _____. The ends are covered in _____ with the entire capsule filled with _____.
Based upon their shape
Cartilage
Synovial fluid
152
The “origin” of a muscle is _____.
The part of the muscle attached closer to the center of the body.
153
The part of the muscle further from the center of the body is called the _____.
Insertion
154
What are the 6 types of synovial joints?
```
Hinge
Pivot
Condyloid
Saddle
Ball & socket
Plane
```
155
Give an example of a hinge joint.
Elbow
156
Give an example of a pivot joint.
Vertebra
157
Give an example of a condyloid joint.
Metacarpals/phalanges
158
Give an example of a saddle joint.
Thumb
159
Give an example of a ball and socket joint.
Hip/shoulder
160
Give an example of a plane joint.
Wrist
161
The human body is made of how many types of tissue?
4
162
What are the 4 types of tissue in the body?
Epithelial (skin)
Muscle
Connective- tendons, bones, ligaments
Nervous
163
What mechanical characteristic do bones possess?
Stiffness
164
What mechanical characteristic do tendons possess?
They are flexible
165
What mechanical character tic do joints possess?
Mobility
166
What 5 forces act upon tissue?
```
Tension (pulling)
Compression (squeezing)
Bending (tension and compression)
Shear (rotation)
Torsion (twisting)
```
167
What is deformation?
Change in shape
168
What is the “elastic region” of tissue structure deformation?
The tissues ability to return to original shape after load is removed?
169
What is the plastic region of deformation?
Beyond yield point. Increased loads cause permanent deformation.
170
Tissue responds to training load by becoming ____ and _____ within the _____ level.
Larger
Stronger
Elastic
171
Stiffness is the resistance to _____.
Deformation
172
What is “positive training effect”?
Tissue responding to training loads by becoming larger and stronger with the elastic level
173
During treatment, _____.
A patient receives care by a health care professional
174
What are two types of preventive care?
Strengthening and flexibility
175
Rehabilitation involves _____.
A therapist works to restore injured tissue with active participation by the patient in a prescribed rehab program
176
The healing process consists of how many phases?
3
177
What are the 3 phases of the healing process?
Inflammatory response phase
Fibroblastic repair phase
Maturation-modeling phase
178
The inflammatory phase begins _____ and can last for _____.
At the time of injury
| Up to 4 days
179
What will help facilitate healing of an injury in the Inflammatory response phase?
The injury must be rested and protected.
Ice
Compression
Elevated
180
What does PRICE stand for?
```
Protect
Rest
Ice
Compress
Elevate
```
181
The fibroblastic repair phase leads to _____.
Scar formation and repair of the injured tissue
182
The Fibrolastic repair phases begins ____ and lasts _____.
Within a few hours of injury
| Last as long as 4-6 weeks
183
What occurs during the fibroblastic repair phase?
Granulation tissue (delicate connective tissue) forms to fill the gaps in the injured area. Fibroblasts produce collagen fibers that are deposited through the forming scar.
184
What subsides in the fibroblastic repair phase?
Signs and symptoms seen from the inflammatory response phase
185
During fibroblastic repair phase, what is important to introduce?
Controlled rehab-specific exercises designed to increase ROM and strength
This helps break down scar tissue
186
What methods exist to breakdown scar tissue?
Exercise
Massage
Ultrasound
187
What is the maturation-remodeling phase?
A long term process of realigning scar tissue to function normally.
188
The Maturation-modeling phase begins ____ and may last _____. What is included in this phase of the healing process?
May begin after 3 weeks
Years
Sport specific skills
189
What are the 4 types of soft tissue injuries?
Contusions
Strains
Sprain
Dislocations
190
What is a contusion?
Bruises
191
What is a strain?
Strains occur to muscles and tendons and can range in severity from a stretch to a tear
192
What is a sprain?
A sprain occurs to ligaments
193
What is a common type of sprain in athletes? What is the most common subcategory?
Ankle sprains
| Lateral ankle sprain
194
What is a lateral ankle sprain?
Inversion sprains occur when stress is applied
195
Strains occur to _____, ranging from a _____ to a _____.
Muscle and tendons
Stretch
Tear
196
Sprains occur to _____.
Ligaments
197
What are dislocations?
The joint is pushed beyond it normal limits causing the just int surfaces to come apart
198
What is subluxation?
Partial dislocation
199
How many types of fractures are there?
4
200
What are the 4 types of fractures?
Simple fracture
Compound fracture
Stress fracture
Avulsion fracture
201
What is a simple fracture?
Fracture stays within the surrounding soft tissue, skin.
202
What is a compound fracture?
A fracture protruding from the skin
203
What is a stress fracture?
The bones are fractured but not separated.
204
How do stress fractures occur?
Repeated low magnitude training loads
Results from low magnitude forces beginning with a small disruption of the outer layers of the cortical bone. If stress continues, a complete fracture may occur.
205
What are avulsion fractures?
Tendon or ligament pull a small piece of bone away at it’sattachments
206
What is a concussion?
Injury to the brain due to violent shaking or jarring action of the head (impact injuries)
207
What are concussion protocols?
Guidelines that must be met before an athlete is allowed to return to play
208
What are 4 injuries caused by overuse?
Tendinitis
Bursitis
Stress fractures
Shin splints
209
Stress fractures: if stress continues, what may occur?
A complete fracture
210
What are shin splints?
| What causes it?
Pain along the anterior ridge of the tibia
| Due to inflammation of the interosseous membrane
211
How do you determine between a shin splints and stress fractures?
X-ray or bone scan
212
What are 5 things necessary for injury protection?
```
Protective equipment
Warming up and cooling down
Keeping flexible
Eating right/staying hydrated
Getting enough rest
```
213
What is tendinitis?
Inflammation of a tendon. It will become weak and may exhibit degeneration.
214
What are common examples of tendinitis?
Tennis elbow (lateral epicondyle of the humerus)
Golfers Elbow (medial epicondyle of humerus)
Jumper’s Knee (patellar tendon)(patellar tendinitis)
215
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of the bursae
216
How many bursae are in the body?
Over 150
217
What are bursae?
Tiny fluid-filled sacs
218
What is the function of bursae?
To lubricate and cushion pressure points between bones and tendons
219
What is shoulder impingement?
Inflamed bursae or rotator cuff between the acromion (lateral point of clavicle) and the head of the humerus
220
Bursitis is most common where?
Shoulder joints
Elbow joints
Hip joints
221
What occurs when the bursae become inflamed?
Movements and direct pressure may cause pain
222
What is another name for tennis elbow?
Lateral epicondylitis
223
Tennis elbow affects what?
Tendons of the forearm extensor/supinate muscles.
These attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
Responsible for wrist/finger extension
224
Golfers elbow is also called what?
Medial Epicondylitis
225
Golfers elbow is similar to _____, except _____.
It occurs on the inside
226
Golfers elbow affects what?
The tendons of the forearm flexor/pronators
These attach to the medial epicondyle of the humerus
Responsible for flexing wrist/fingers and pronating forearm
227
Shoulder impingement is most common in whom?
Athletes, industrial workers...anyone who uses their shoulders repeatedly
228
What occurs in shoulder impingement?
Excess movement of the humeral head combined with lack of space between the humeral head and the acromion causes inflammation in the bursae or rotator cuff tendons in the shoulder
229
What is the cause of shoulder impingement?
Muscle imbalances in the shoulder
Weak shoulder depressors
-lower fibers of the trapezius and serratus
anterior compared with the shoulder
elevators (upper fibers of the trapezius)
Tight Pectoralis Major muscles may cause humeral head to rotate anteriorly, increasing potential for shoulder impingement
230
What is an example of a lower trapezius exercise?
Incline, reverse back flyes (palms supinated)
231
Grade Three sprains and strains result in what? Often requiring what?
Complete rupture of the tissue and often requires surgery
232
First degree strains/sprains are _____.
Minor injuries
233
What causes contusions (bruising)?
When a compression force crushes tissue
234
What is an anterior cruciate tear?
A tear of the ACL ligament (Anterior Cruciate Ligament)
235
What muscles are vulnerable to strains?
```
Adductors (pulled groin)
Quadriceps
Hamstrings
Hip flexors
Rotator cuff muscles
```
236
What are the most frequently strained muscles in the body?
The hamstrings
237
The pectoral girdle has how many joints?
2
238
What are the two joints of the pectoral girdle?
```
Sternoclavicular joint (sternum and clavicle)
Acromioclavicular joint (acromion process of the scapula and lateral end of clavicle)
```
239
Where to shoulder separations often occur?
At the acromioclavicular joint
240
What is the glenohumeral joint?
Joint connecting the humerus with the scapula
241
The glenohumeral joint has a _____, but lacks _____.
Wide range of movement
| Stability
242
What is the Acronym for the muscles that attach the head of the humerus to the glenoid fossa of the scapula?
S- Subscapularis
S- supraspinatus
I- Infraspinatus
T- Teres minor
243
The humerus connects to the _____ of the scapula.
Glenoid fossa
244
The integrity of the glenohumeral joint depends on what?
Depends on the rotator cuff muscles that SSIT on the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus and cross the joint to attach to the scapula
245
The elbow has how many joints?
3
246
What are the 3 joints of the elbow?
Humeroradial joint
Humeroulnar joint
Radioulnar joint
247
The humeroradial joint connects _____.
The humerus and head of the radius
248
The humeroulnar joint connects _____.
The trochlea of the humerus and the olecranon process of the ulna
249
The radioulnar joint connects _____.
Radius and ulna
250
In the elbow, flexion/extension occurs at which joint(s)?
Humeroradial
| Humeroulnar
251
In the elbow, what joint(s) is used for probation/supination?
Radioulnar joint
252
The distal radius articulates with which bones, at which joint?
The proximal row of carpals
| Radiocarpal joint
253
The radio carpal joint attaches _____.
The distal radius to the proximal row of carpals
254
The knuckles are what joints?
Metacarpophalangeal joints
255
What movements occur at the metacarpophalangeal joints?
Flexion/extension
| Abduction/adduction
256
What joints exist between the phalanges of the hand?
Interphalangeal joints
257
The pelvic girdle has how many joints?
2
258
What are the bones that comprise the hips?
Ilium
Pubis
Ischium
259
What is the name of the joints connecting carpals to metacarpals called?
Carpometacarpal joint
260
The hips bones (3) together with the _____ form the _____.
Sacrum
| Pelvic girdle
261
The hips bones (os oxae) consist of how many bones?
3
262
What are the three joints of the pelvic girdle?
```
Symphysis Pubis joint
Sacroiliac joint
Iliofemoral joint (hip joint)
```
263
The symphysis pubis joint joins what?
The two pubic bones, completing the pelvic girdle anteriorly
264
What occurs to allow women to give birth?
The symphysis Pubis softens
265
The sacroiliac joint connects what?
The sacrum and the paired ilia
266
What is the singular of ilia?
Ilium
267
The symphysis pubis joint is ______.
Fibrocartilaginous
268
The sacroiliac joint has a _____ and ______ component.
Fibrous
| Synovial
269
In the sacroiliac joint, minor _____ of the _____ component can result in _____.
Displacement
Fibrous
Excruciating pain
270
What is the body’s most stable synovial joint?
The hip joint (iliofemoral joint)
271
The type of joints with least mobility are _____.
Fibrous and cartilaginous joints
272
What are the three types of joints?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial
273
The hip, or iliofemoral joint, is located where? What type of joint is it?
Between the head of the femur and the cup of the hipbone.
Ball and socket
274
Ball and socket joints allow for what type of movements?
Flexion-extension
Abduction-adduction
Circumduction
275
Ball and socket joints have the greatest _____ and ______.
Range of motion
| Mobility
276
An example of a hip dislocation would involve what type of circumstances and impact?
Car accident, passenger, knees driven into dashboard
277
The knee is also know as the ____.
Tibiofemoral joint
278
The knee joint is relatively _____.
Stable
279
The knee joint has additional support from what 5 things?
Menisci (shock-absorbing fibrocartilaginous discs)
Anterior and Posterior ligaments
Later and Medial Collateral ligaments
280
What is the primary action of the knee joint?
Flexion-extionsion
281
When flexed, what movements can occur at the knee?
Medial and lateral rotation
282
How man rows of tarsal are there in the ______ joint?
2
| Transverse Tarsal joint
283
Movement between the proximal and distal rows of the transversal tarsal joint causes what?
Reversion-inversion of the sole of the foot
284
Inversion/eversion of the foot helps us do what?
Walk over uneven ground
285
What aids the tarsals in maintaining the arch of the foot?
Plantar ligaments
286
Flat feet is caused by ____, unless you were born with it and it causes no _____.
Weak plantar ligaments
| Discomfort
