Chapter 39, 40, 41 - Alterations in Musculoskeletal and Integumentary Function Flashcards
(297 cards)
1
Q
Skeletal trauma is the leading cause of death in individuals age __ to ___
A
1 to 44
2
Q
____% of hospital visits come from fractures
A
70%
3
Q
The majority of occupational injuries in a hospital are…
A
registered nurses
4
Q
What is the first line of defence against external forces?
A
musculoskeletal system
5
Q
What is the role of the musculoskeletal system?
A
-mobility
-internal organ protection
6
Q
Damage to the musculoskeletal system results in _______ and _______ movement
A
difficult and painful
7
Q
What is a bone fracture?
A
a break in bone, usually accompanied by surrounding tissue damage
8
Q
_____ have a higher incidence of fractures especially age ___-___
A
males; 15-24
9
Q
Adults >____ yoa also have a high incidence of fractures
A
65
10
Q
Where do fractures occur in most young people?
A
clavicle, tibia, and humerus
11
Q
Workplace accidents occur most commonly in ______ and ______
A
hands and feet
12
Q
Which areas do fractures occur commonly in older people?
A
humerus, femur, vertebra, pelvis
13
Q
Fractures in older individuals are linked to _________
A
osteoporosis
14
Q
What are shin splints?
A
stress on tibia from overworking your muscles (starting too fast, not allowing time to grow, not warming up)
15
Q
Complete Bone Fracture
A
Bone entirely broken
16
Q
Incomplete fracture
A
bone damaged but still in one piece
17
Q
Open fractures
A
skin is open
18
Q
Comminuted fracture
A
bone breaks into more than two fragments
19
Q
Linear fracture
A
runs parallel to the long axis of the bone
20
Q
Oblique fracture
A
occurs at a slanted angle
21
Q
Spiral fracture
A
encircles bone
22
Q
Transverse fracture
A
straight across bone
23
Q
Greenstick fracture
A
bone cracks only on one side
24
Q
What is a pathological fracture?
A
a break at a site of pre-existing abnormality and resulting from force that would not fracture a normal bone
25
Signs and Symptoms of Fracture
-swelling
-pain
-deformity
-dislocation
-crepitus
-bruising
-nerve damage
-pulselessness
26
Swelling at fracture site occurs due to soft tissue _______ and ________
edema; hemorrhage
27
Pain from fractures occurs due to...
muscle spasms
28
Fracture pain occurs until bone fragments are __________
immobilized
29
Crepitus
rubbing of bone fragments against each other
30
Bruising
bleeding into tissue
31
Nerve Damage
impaired sensation
32
Why does pulselessness at fracture site occur?
compressed vessels
33
What is a dislocation?
when joint surfaces lose contact with each other or a complete joint disruption
34
What is a subluxation?
partial contact between opposing joint surfaces
35
Subluxation can damage ________, ________, and ________
ligaments, nerves, cartilage
36
Dislocation and subluxation occur in developing joints when...
ligaments are underdeveloped
37
Dislocation and Subluxation causes:
-trauma
-muscular imbalance (exercise or posture)
-joint instability from repetitive dislocations or ligament stretching
38
_________ and __________ can lead to permanent disability
numbness and tingling
39
Splints protect the injured body part from moving and provide either...
a) restrictive movement
or
b) complete immobilization
40
What is skin traction?
a short term treatment where tape is applied to skin to hold the bone in place (used in patients waiting in OR)
41
What is skeletal traction?
pins drilled in the bone distal to the fraction
42
Skeletal traction uses larger ______ to keep the bone in alignment and _____ weight to counter traction force
weight; body
43
What is the most common bone where skeletal traction is used?
femur
43
Autograft
bone graft from the individual
43
What is fixation?
a pin or rod placed in uninjured bone to help stabilize fracture site due to too much injured bone
44
Allograft
bone graft from a cadaver
45
Xenograft
bone graft taken from another species
46
What is an example of a bone substitue?
artificial joint
47
What are the 4 stages of bone healing?
hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
48
Hematoma Stage
bleeding at the site of injury or surrounding tissue
49
Soft Callus Stage
hematoma at site forms fibrous network and a soft callus forms on the outer bone surface over the fracture
50
Hard Callus Stage
osteoblasts within soft callus synthesize collagen to form hard callus
51
Remodelling Stage
unnecessary callus is reabsorbed and repaired tissues are realigned
52
How often do x-rays of an injury need to be done?
at injury, 2 months after, 8 months after, and then 10 years after
53
Most fractures heal in __-__ weeks
4 to 8
54
________ and general health can prolong fracture healing time
osteoporosis
55
Bone can form new bone without forming ___ _____
scar tissue
56
What is a strain?
tearing or stretching of a muscle or tendon
57
What are common areas of a strain?
hands, feet, knees, upper arm, thigh, ankle
58
What is a sprain?
tearing of a ligament
59
What are common areas of a sprain?
wrist, ankle, elbow, knee
60
1st degree muscle injury
fibres are stretched but the muscle and joint remain stable
61
2nd degree muscle injury
more tearing of tendon/ligament with muscle weakness and joint instability
62
3rd degree muscle injury
inability to contract muscle with significant joint instability
63
With 3rd degree injuries __________ may be required to...
surgery; suture ends back together
64
With surgery for muscle injuries, recovery is expected but there is a potential for _______
arthritis
65
How long after a strain/sprain does a healing tendon/ligament take where it can only withstand minor stress?
4-5 weeks
66
How many months are required for joint stability?
3
67
Excessive stretching with a muscle injury can damage recovery and result in...
scar tissue or poor function
68
What is rhabdomyolysis?
rapid breakdown of muscle that causes the release of intracellular contents such as enzymes, myoglobin (like Hb but in heart and muscles and only holds 1 O2 molecule), potassium into ECF and blood
69
Rhabdomyolysis can be _______ or result in _____ _______
fatal; permanent disability
70
What can cause rhabdomyolysis?
-trauma from crash injuries
-medications or drugs
-excessive muscular contractions
-infectious agents
-toxins like CO
71
Hyperkalemia, cardiac dysrhythmia, and kidney failure are complications of ____________
rhabdomyolysis
72
Hyperkalemia
excess potassium released into circulation
73
What is the triad of symptoms associated with rhabdomyolysis?
-muscle pain
-weakness
-dark urine
74
What causes dark urine with rhabdomyolysis?
myoglobin
75
Is myoglobin in urine always associated with rhabdomyolysis?
no
76
What is the most reliable indicator of rhabdomyolysis?
high levels of creatine kinase
77
What is the function of creatine kinase?
add a phosphate to ADP to rephosphorylate ATP and maintain cellular ATP homeostasis
78
What is the goal of treatment for rhabdomyolysis?
maintain urinary output and prevent kidney failure
79
Rapid ___ fluids are necessary to maintain urine output
IV
80
Hemodialysis may be needed to deal with __________
hyperkalemia
81
What is a muscle compartment?
a well-defined structure compartment containing muscle and associated nerves and blood vessels enclosed by fascia
82
What is compartment syndrome?
damage within the compartment but with an intact fascia
83
With compartment syndrome, increased pressure causes decreased blood supply and can lead to...
hypoxia and maybe necrosis
84
What can cause compartment syndrome?
-increased compartment content (bleeding)
-decreased volume of compartment (cast too tight)
-burns
-snake or insect bites
85
Compartment syndrome results in a disturbance to the muscle's __________
microvasculature
86
What are the "6 P's" used to diagnose?
compartment syndrome
87
What are the 6 Ps
pain, pressure, paresthesia, paresis, pulselessness, poikilothermia
88
Pain
out of proportion to injury
89
Pressure
swelling, tenderness to affected area
90
Paresthesia
numbness/tingling due to nerve impingement
91
Paresis
muscle weakness
92
Pulselessness
inadequate blood perfusion to compartment
93
Poikilothermia
inability to maintain a constant core temperature independent of ambient temperature
94
Which of the 6 Ps are most suggestive of compartment syndrome?
-pain with radiation to fingers and toes
-paresthesia
95
Diagnosis of compartment syndrome:
manometer to measure intra-compartmental pressure
96
What is the treatment for compartment syndrome?
cutting fascia to relieve pressure
97
What is osteoporosis?
decreased bone mineral density and increased risk of fractures
98
Osteoporosis is a _______ disease
chronic
99
Is osteoporosis related to aging?
not necessarily, but it progresses silently for decades
100
With osteoporosis, old bone is __________ faster than new bone is made
reabsorbed
101
What are the most common sites of osteoporosis?
hip, wrist, and spine
102
Postmenopausal osteoporosis is caused by an __________ deficicency
estrogen
103
Secondary osteoporosis is caused by _________ dysfunction
endocrine
104
Which hormones are commonly associated with osteoporosis?
parathyroid hormone, cortisol, thyroid hormone, growth hormone
105
Medication, lack of physical activity, and abnormal BMI increase risk for _________
osteoporosis
106
When does bone mass peak?
around 30 yoa
107
After 30, risk of fractures increases and 1/6 ______ and 1/12 _____ sustain a vertebral fracture
women; men
108
What are the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis?
-bone deformity and pain from fractures
-kyphosis from vertebral fractures
109
______ often expose presence of osteoporosis
falls
110
Kyphosis
humpback
111
How is osteoporosis diagnosed?
-x-ray to determine bone mineral density
-DXA scanner
112
By the time osteoporosis is diagnosed, ___% of bone tissue could be lost
30%
113
What is a DXA scanner?
two x-ray beams - one high and one low and the amount of x-ray from each beam passing through bone is measured
114
Treatment for osteoporosis includes:
-fracture prevention
-medication to prevent bone reabsorption
-limited alcohol and caffeine
-stop smoking
-moderate weight bearing exercises to stimulate bone formation
115
Paget's disease aka ______ _______
osteitis deformans
116
What is Paget's disease?
increased metabolic activity that leads to localized abnormal and excessive bone remodelling
117
Paget's disease results in enlarged ____ bones and neurological problems
soft
118
Men older than ___ and women older than ___ are at risk for Paget's disease
55; 40
119
How is asymptomatic Paget's disease diagnosed?
x-ray
120
Up to 25% of Paget's cases involve...
family members
121
Paget's is caused by genetic and environmental factors (ie. _______)
-viruses (mumps and measles)
-Human Parainfluenza Virus (involves respiratory tract but not related to influenza)
122
Paget's disease involves excessive __________ of spongy bone which is replaced with disorganized bone at an increased rate
reabsorption
123
With Paget's, _______ diminish and bone marrow is replaced by extremely vascular ______ tissue
trabeculae; fibrous
124
Paget's causes disorganized _______ fibres
collagen
125
Where does mineralization extend with Paget's?
bone marrow
126
Paget's disease results in...
-increased bone fragility
-increased risk of bone tumours
127
How does Paget's affect cranial bones?
-asymmetrical appearance
-compress brain and lead to dementia and altered consciousness
128
How does Paget's affect long bones?
-both ends affected
-produces lateral curvature
129
Osteomyelitis is an _________ bone disease
infectious
130
Osteomyelitis can be caused by...
-bacteria
-virus
-fungi
-parasite
131
What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?
bacteria
132
What is hematogenous osteomyelitis?
osteomyelitis cause by a pathogen that is carried in the blood stream
133
Hematogenous osteomyelitis is more common in ________
children
134
What is contiguous osteomyelitis?
osteomyelitis where the infection spreads from adjacent bones
135
Contiguous
sharing common border
136
What is the primary pathogen that causes osteomyelitis?
Staphylococcus aureus
137
What are some specific causes of osteomyelitis?
-open fracture
-penetrating wound
-surgery
-diabetes
-smoking
-alcohol
-drug abuse
-chronic illness
-immunosuppressive medications
138
Why is osteomyelitis associated with Sickle cell anemia?
SCA reduces immune ability to clear blood infections
139
With osteomyelitis, pathogens provoke an immune response and S. aureus produces a ______ that destroys _______
toxin; neutrophils
140
Why are implants a risk of osteomyelitis?
biofilms adhere to surfaces
141
Biofilms and inflammation result from an imbalance between ________ and ________
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
142
What do osteoblasts do?
create bone
143
What do osteoclasts do?
break down bone
144
With osteomyelitis, how does vessel leakage create an exudate?
fluid leaks out of blood vessels seals the small channels of bone called canaliculi
145
What is a sequestrum and how is it created?
a sequestrum is a piece of dead bone that has separated from surrounding bone and it is created by inflammatory exudate that extends into the bone marrow cavity
146
With osteomyelitis, osteoblasts lay new bone over ___________ bone
infected
147
What is the treatment for osteomyelitis?
debridement of infected bone (surgery to remove infected and some healthy bone)
148
What is the most common form of arthritis?
osteoarthritis
149
What causes osteoarthritis?
physical wear and tear of a joint over time
150
What is the primary defect of osteoarthritis?
loss of articular cartilage
151
Thinning cartilage results in underlying bone becoming sclerotic meaning...
it becomes dense and hard
152
Osteoarthritic cysts that develop on bone are under lots of pressure and their contents are forced into the ____ _____
synovial cavity
153
What are joint mice?
bone projections that break off into synovial fluid
154
How does osteoarthritis reduce joint ROM?
by thickening the joint capsule and adhering it to deformed bone
155
What are the signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis?
-pain
-stiffness
-decreased ROM
-muscle wasting
-deformity
-swelling (due to osteocyte fragments)
156
How is osteoarthritis diagnosed?
x-ray
157
Conservative osteoarthritis treatment:
-exercise
-weight loss
-medication
158
What medication is used for osteoarthritis?
Chondroitin
159
In severe cases of osteoarthritis, surgery is used to:
-correct joint misalignment
-implant artificial joints
160
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic _________ disease that focuses on joints
autoimmune
161
Rheumatoid arthritis destroys _______ joints and in severe cases results in premature death
synovial
162
________ factors contribute to rheumatoid arthritis
genetic
163
What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
-the synovial membrane is the first tissue affected with rheumatoid arthritis
-with RA, joint degradation is symmetrical
164
Signs and Symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis
-stiffness (mostly in the morning)
-fixed flexion of small hand joints - swan neck and boutonniere
165
With RA, macrophages initiate the inflammatory response which causes pannus...
the thickening of synovial fluid
166
Pannus invades _____ tissue causing abnormal remodelling and invasion of _______ connective tissue
bone; fibrous
167
Which areas are affected by RA?
fingers, feet, wrists, elbows, ankles, knees, and tissues of the heart, lungs, and kidneys
168
What is the most common inflammatory arthritis worldwide?
Gout
169
Gout aka "disease of _____"
kings
170
Gout results from an overproduction/underexcretion of _____ acid
uric
171
Gout has a strong _______ association
genetic
172
90% of Gout cases are from an _____________ of uric acid
underexcretion
173
Gout involves inflammation and joint pain, usually of the ____ ____
big toe
174
How does gout form?
uric acid crystallizes when it reaches a specific limit and forms precipitates that deposit in joints
175
What brings on the "gouty arthritis" pain?
crystallization that initiates the inflammatory depositys
176
Risk factors for gout:
-older male
-alcohol
-red meat
-fructose
-increasing BMI
177
Signs and Symptoms of gout:
-kidney stones
-sluggish urine output
-crystals harden and erode bone and cartilage, increasing the size of the joint
178
Uric acid is a breakdown product of _______ nucleotides (_______ and _______)
purine (guanine and adenine)
179
How does the body normally get rid of uric acid?
kidneys
180
How to WBCs contribute to gout inflammation?
WBCs engulf crystallized urate which causes them to rupture
181
What is a contracture?
loss of full passive range of motion
182
____________ occur secondary to joint, muscle, and soft tissue limitations
contractures
183
Physiological contracture:
-absence of muscle action potential
-calcium pump failure (even in presence of ATP) shortens muscles
184
Physiological contracture is present in _____ disease
McArdle's
185
Physiological contracture can be ________
temporary
186
Pathological contracture is _________ muscle shortening caused by muscle spasms or weakness
permanent
187
What is an example of a pathological contracture?
achilles tendon
188
Pathological contractures occur despite plentiful _____ and normal ______ _____
ATP; action potential
189
Are lower or upper extremity pathological contractures more common?
lower
190
___________ contractures are common with strokes and neuromuscular diseases like ________ _______
pathological; muscular dystrophy
191
Disuse atrophy is muscle wasting to to reduction in muscle fibre size from...
prolonged inactivity
192
Disuse atrophy can occur within ______ of inactivity
weeks
193
A normal individual on bed rest loses muscle strength at a rate of ___%/day
3%
194
________ can also cause muscle atrophy and weakness
aging
195
How is disuse atrophy treated/prevented?
-forceful contractions
-passive lengthening exercises
-brisk walking
196
At what point does regeneration of muscle fibres become impaired?
after 1 year
197
What is fibromyalgia?
a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome characterized by diffuse pain, fatigue, and increased sensitivity to touch
198
Why is fibromyalgia often misdiagnosed?
absence of systemic or localized inflammation
199
Who is most affected (90%) by fibromyalgia?
women age 30-50
200
New research on fibromyalgia suggests role of __________
inflammation
201
FM is a result of _____ dysfunction with amplification of _____ transmission and interpretation
CNS; pain
202
FM alteration in genes affect s_____, c________, d_______ (NTs involves in stress and sensory processing)
serotonin, catecholamines, dopamine
203
Where does FM pain begin?
neck and shoulders (then becomes generalized)
204
What is scoliosis?
abnormal rotational curvature of the spine
205
Scoliosis is more common in which age group?
adolescent girls
206
What are "non-structural" causes of scoliosis?
causes other than the spine itself
207
What are "structural" causes of scoliosis?
vertebral rotation
208
What are the 3 types of scoliosis?
1. idiopathic
2. congenital (bone deformity prior to birth)
3. teratological
209
Idiopathic scoliosis accounts for ___% of cases
80%
210
What is teratological scoliosis?
scoliosis caused by another systemic syndrome like cerebral palsy
211
When does the scoliosis curvature progress?
during growth periods
212
Idiopathic scoliosis rapidly progresses during ______ _______
growth spurts
213
Efficacy of scoliosis treatment depends on...
hours the brace is worn
214
______ are 5x more likely to have a case of curvature becoming greater than 20%
girls
215
What is kyphosis?
spinal curve over 50%
216
Kyphosis requires a _______ __________ to stop progression
spinal fusion
217
Bracing is less effective in _________ and ________ scoliosis and surgery is often required
congenital and teratological
218
Reduced pulmonary function occurs with curvatures >___°
60
219
Risk of right-side heart failure occurs with curvatures >___°
80
220
______ disturbances occur due to thoracic and lumbar deformity
GI
221
What are the two types of muscular dystrophy?
Duchenne and Myotonic
222
DMD is causes by an ___ linked mutation in ________ gene that causes alterations or deletions of the muscle protein dystrophin
X; dystrophin
223
What is the most common childhood dysrophy?
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
224
What does dystrophin do?
anchors actin cytoskeleton to muscle fibres of the basement membrane
225
What happens to poorly anchored muscle fibres?
they tear during repeated contraction causing free CALCIUM to enter the cell and kill it
226
How does Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) present?
-muscle weakness (pre-school children)
-difficulty walking
-large calves
-weakness starting in pelvic area
227
Why do large calves occur with DMD?
muscle fibres are replaced with fat and connective tissue
228
How is DMD diagnosed?
-blood creatine kinase level
-if positive, genetic testing of dystrophin gene
229
With DMD, the blood creatine kinase level can increase to _____ times the normal level
100
230
Type 1 Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy (MMD) occurs due to a mutation on the ______ gene
DMPK
231
Type 2 Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy occurs to a mutation on the ________ gene
CNBP
232
What is the "anticipation" mechanism of type 1 MMD?
where children of mothers who have MMD have a more severe form of MMD
233
The disease hallmark of MMD is myotonia meaning...
difficulty relaxing after a contraction
234
What are the symptoms of MMD?
-muscle weakness
-cataracts
-cardiac conditions
-wheelchair
235
How is MMD diagnosed?
-genetic testing
-test for repeated expression of CTG triplet
236
________ are ineffective at treating MMD
steroids
237
Treatment for MMD:
-ROM exercises
-bracing
-surgical release of contractures
238
What causes pressure ulcers?
-unrelieved pressure
-shearing forces
-friction
-moisture
239
What is a decubitus ulcer?
when pressure interrupts normal blood flow to the skin and underlying tissue
240
Risks for pressure wounds include:
-immobilization
-prolonged moisture exposure
-neurological disorders
-malnutrition
-dehydration
241
Redness from prolonged pressure on the skin returns to normal with...
repositioning or stimulation
242
If pressure continues and blood flow is blocked, the tissue becomes __________
hypoxic
243
Shearing or friction of hypoxic tissue can cause __________ and _________
detachment and necrosis
244
Stage 1 Pressure Wound
-skin inflamed but unbroken
-ulceration can be prevented with repositioning
245
Stage 2 Pressure Wound
-broken skin
-site is tender and painful
-epidermis and dermis involved
246
Stage 3 Pressure Wound
-below dermis
-fat tissue involves
247
Stage 4 Pressure Wound
-visible muscle, bone, ligaments, or tendons
248
The best treatment for pressure wounds is...
early detection and prevention
249
Pressure Ulcer Treatment:
-frequent skin assessment
-repositioning
-promoting movement
-special beds to prevent friction and moisture
-nutrition
-hydration
250
First degree burns require _____ treatment and usually heal within ___ to ____ days with no scarring
no; 3-5
251
Possible 1st degree burn symptoms:
-nausea
-vomiting
252
Who is vulnerable to first degree burns?
young and old experiencing dehydration
253
A 2nd degree superficial partial thickness burn presents as ______ ______ _______ that develop within minutes of injury
fluid-filled blisters
254
With 2nd degree superficial partial thickness burns, _______ sensors remain intact
pain
255
How long do second degree superficial partial thickness burns take to heal? Is there scarring?
3-4 weeks; scarring unusual
256
What do 2nd degree deep partial thickness burns look like?
waxy white
257
How long do 2nd degree deep partial thickness burns take to heal?
weeks
258
How is necrotic tissue dealt with for second degree deep partial thickness burns?
surgical removal
259
With 2° deep partial thickness burns, a ________ of own skin may be required
graph
260
2nd degree deep partial thickness burns may have hypertrophic scarring which is?
a thick, raised scar
261
Third degree burn characteristics:
-full thickness
-dry, leathery
-loss of dermal elasticity
262
Third degree burns require escharotomy which is?
cutting through burned skin to release pressure and prevent compartment syndrome
263
What is eschar?
dead tissue that forms over healthy skin
264
With 3rd degree burns all ______ ________ have been destroyed
nerve endings
265
Fourth degree burns require _____ _______ or reconstructive surgery
skin grafting
266
_____ and _____ degree burns are considered medical emergencies
3rd and 4th
267
What is the rule of 9s?
a surgery requirement of 4th degree burns to estimate the total % of body surface burned
268
All areas of the body constitute 9% of total body area except for the...
groin area which is 1%
269
How many burn phases are there?
3; burn shock, Ebb, flow
270
What is the burn shock phase?
phase of combination of CV hypovolemia and cellular hypovolemia
271
With the burn shock phase, massive fluid loss increases capillary permeability and fluid shifts to...
interstitial spaces
272
Burn shock phase results in... (2)
-decreased blood volume
-decreased cardiac output
273
Why are several litres of fluid lost to evaporation each day of the burn phase?
integumentary and pulmonary damage = loss of ability to regulate water evaporation
274
In the Ebb phase, blood is shunted away from the _______, _________, and ______ in the first 24 hours
liver, kidneys, and gut
275
In the Ebb phase, after 24 hours capillary integrity is restored and edema resolves signalling...
the end of the burn shock phase
276
The flow phase is a state of hypermetabolic response of increased...
catecholamines, cortisol, and glucagon
277
____________ occurs in the flow phase due to increased insulin resistance and muscle loss
hyperglycemia
278
The flow phase can last up to ___________
2 years
279
What is the goal of burn treatment?
fluid resuscitation and nutrition
280
With burn treatment, the first ________ is critical
24 hours
281
How is fluid restoration done? Why is it important to monitor?
IV; prevention of fluid overload
282
How is fluid overload prevented?
Parkland formula
283
Parkland formula: ____ mL of Ringer's lactate per __________ of body weight per % ________ burned
4; kilogram; total body surface area (TBSA)
284
The amount of IV fluids given is ______ during the first 8 hours post injury and the rest in the next ____ hours
half; 16 - (total = 24hrs)
285
What is Ringer's lactate?
IV fluid for dehydration, having surgery, or receiving IV meds
286
What is frostnip?
superficial frostbite with pain increasing during rewarming
287
What is chilblains?
partial thickness frostbite
288
Chilblains has a _______ tone
purple
289
With chilblains chronic ________ can form
vasculitis
290
What is vasculitis?
inflammation of blood vessels
291
What is frostbite?
-frozen tissue
-ice crystals formed
292
Frostbitten tissue has a ______ appearance
white
293
Frostbitten tissue is numb with no sense of _______
pain
294
Is frostbite reversible?
potentially
295
What is flash freeze?
rapid formation of ice crystals associated with contact with cold metals or volatile liquids
