Chapter 4&1Classnotes Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
At what age do infants typically display a social smile?
A. Birth
B. 3 months
C. 6 weeks
D. 12 months
A
C. 6 weeks
2
Q
When do infants begin to exhibit laughter and curiosity?
A. At birth
B. At 6 weeks
C. At 3 months
D. At 4-8 months
A
C. At 3 months
3
Q
At what age do infants typically experience full responsive smiles?
A. 6 weeks
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 18 months
A
C. 4 months
4
Q
When does anger commonly start to develop in infants?
A. 6 weeks
B. 4-8 months
C. 9-14 months
D. 18 month
A
B. 4-8 months
5
Q
What are two types of fear infants typically experience between 9-14 months?
A. Fear of loud sounds and strangers
B. Stranger wariness and separation anxiety
C. Fear of heights and unexpected sounds
D. Separation anxiety and self-awareness
A
B. Stranger wariness and separation anxiety
6
Q
At what age do infants show fear of unexpected sights and sounds?
A. 4-8 months
B. 9-14 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
A
C. 12 months
7
Q
When do self-awareness and emotions like pride, shame, and embarrassment typically develop?
A. 6 weeks
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
A
C. 18 months
8
Q
What is the purpose of the rouge test?
A. To measure emotional intelligence in infants
B. To determine if an infant recognizes themselves in a mirror
C. To assess stranger wariness
D. To evaluate attachment security
A
B. To determine if an infant recognizes themselves in a mirror
9
Q
At what age do most infants touch the red mark on their forehead in a mirror during the rouge test?
A. 3 months
B. 9 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
A
D. 18 months
10
Q
What evidence suggests that babies as young as 3 months old can distinguish themselves from others?
A. They react fearfully to strangers
B. They look at other babies more than at themselves in video clips
C. They cry when separated from caregivers
D. They recognize their own name
A
B. They look at other babies more than at themselves in video clips
11
Q
What brain development process is associated with the gradual refinement and expression of emotions?
A. Increased muscle development
B. Growth of synapses and dendrites
C. Increased heart rate
D. Reduction in cortisol levels
A
B. Growth of synapses and dendrites
12
Q
How do past experiences and maturation influence emotional development?
A. They reduce the need for neural growth.
B. They refine neural connections and emotional expression.
C. They eliminate negative emotions entirely.
D. They speed up the physical growth of the brain.
A
B. They refine neural connections and emotional expression.
13
Q
What role do experience and culture play in emotional development?
A. They reduce the need for genetic predispositions.
B. They promote specific connections between neurons and emotions.
C. They eliminate the impact of temperament.
D. They create identical emotional responses across individuals.
A
B. They promote specific connections between neurons and emotions.
Experience and culture shape how emotions are processed by fostering specific neural pathways, a phenomenon sometimes called a “cultural sponge.
14
Q
What is a potential long-term effect of high cortisol levels due to abuse?
A. Enhanced emotional regulation
B. Increased empathy towards others
C. Behavioral difficulties and struggles understanding positive emotions
D. Faster maturation of emotional intelligenc
A
C. Behavioral difficulties and struggles understanding positive emotions
15
Q
How does childhood abuse affect the ability to understand emotions?
A. It enhances understanding of all emotions equally.
B. It makes children more sensitive to positive emotions.
C. It helps children recognize negative emotions but impairs understanding of positive ones.
D. It reduces the overall ability to recognize emotion
A
C. It helps children recognize negative emotions but impairs understanding of positive ones.
16
Q
What is the definition of temperament?
A. A set of learned behaviors influenced by environment.
B. The biological core of individual differences in response style.
C. The ability to regulate emotions through experience.
D. A genetic predisposition that changes with experience
A
B. The biological core of individual differences in response style.
Temperament is the biologically based core of differences in how individuals approach and respond to their environment.
17
Q
What distinguishes temperament from personality traits?
A. Personality traits are stable across time, while temperament changes.
B. Temperament is genetic, while personality traits are learned.
C. Temperament is learned through experience, while personality traits are genetic.
D. Personality traits are inherited, while temperament is situational.
A
B. Temperament is genetic, while personality traits are learned.
18
Q
How does temperament influence interactions with the environment?
A. It determines genetic predispositions toward disease.
B. It dictates personality development entirely.
C. It shapes the style of approach and response to new environments.
D. It eliminates the influence of cultural factors on emotional growth.
A
C. It shapes the style of approach and response to new environments.
19
Q
Which of the following statements about temperament is true?
A. Temperament is completely shaped by culture.
B. Temperament is stable across time and situations.
C. Temperament is unaffected by genetics.
D. Temperament changes rapidly during early development.
A
B. Temperament is stable across time and situations.
20
Q
Why might a child with a shy temperament struggle in a new social environment?
A. They lack the genetic predisposition for social interaction.
B. They prefer to avoid interaction due to their temperamental style of approach.
C. Their personality traits prevent them from learning social skills.
D. Their cultural background discourages social engagemen
A
B. They prefer to avoid interaction due to their temperamental style of approach.
21
Q
What are the three dimensions of the classic approach to temperament?
A. Cognitive control, emotional regulation, and sociability
B. Effortful control, negative emotions, and exuberance
C. Emotional intelligence, sociability, and inhibition
D. Effortful control, fear, and happiness
A
B. Effortful control, negative emotions, and exuberance
22
Q
What does effortful control refer to in the context of temperament?
A. The ability to regulate behavior and thought
B. A predisposition to be outgoing and excited
C. A tendency to display sadness and fear
D. A learned ability to adapt to situations
A
A. The ability to regulate behavior and thought
23
Q
How are the three dimensions of temperament related?
A. They are completely independent of one another.
B. They are linked and influence later personality and success.
C. They are shaped entirely by environmental factors.
D. They do not affect personality development.
A
B. They are linked and influence later personality and success.
24
Q
How does a shy person typically differ from an exuberant person in brain patterns?
A. Shy individuals have no measurable brain activity differences.
B. Exuberant individuals have more active fear responses.
C. Shy individuals exhibit different brain activity when responding to new situations.
D. Exuberant individuals are less capable of emotional regulation
A
C. Shy individuals exhibit different brain activity when responding to new situations.
25
Can temperament be changed, and if so, how?
A. No, temperament is entirely genetic.
B. Yes, the environment can modify how temperament is expressed.
C. No, temperament is stable and unchangeable.
D. Yes, but only through medication.
B. Yes, the environment can modify how temperament is expressed.
26
In the study of 4-month-old children, what behavior was being tested?
A. Intelligence and problem-solving skills
B. Social orientation and emotional regulation
C. Shyness (hiding) and exuberance (approaching)
D. Language and communication development
C. Shyness (hiding) and exuberance (approaching
27
What percentage of children predisposed to shyness remained consistently shy across all situations?
A. 12%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 15%
B. 40%
28
What percentage of children who were never shy (positive exuberant) stayed positive throughout the study?
A. 12%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 15%
C. 80%
29
What does the finding that 12% of shy children became exuberant suggest about temperament?
A. Temperament is completely stable and cannot change.
B. Temperament is entirely determined by genetic factors.
C. Temperament is influenced by both genetic predisposition and environment.
D. Shyness cannot be overcome with environmental changes
C. Temperament is influenced by both genetic predisposition and environment.
30
What are two hallmarks of typical emotional development in infants?
A. Synchrony and social referencing
B. Separation anxiety and stranger wariness
C. Effortful control and negative emotions
D. Proximal parenting and exuberance
B. Separation anxiety and stranger wariness
31
s
32
What are proximal experiences in the context of emotional development?
A. Experiences that occur in later childhood and focus on independence.
B. Immediate interactions and direct contact with caregivers.
C. Distant or indirect influences, like cultural norms.
D. Genetic predispositions that shape emotional expression.
B. Immediate interactions and direct contact with caregivers.
33
What does the "Still-Face Experiment" demonstrate about caregiver-infant interactions?
A. Infants are unaffected by non-responsive caregivers.
B. Infants expect interactive contingencies and are stressed when they do not occur.
C. Infants smile more when caregivers are unresponsive.
D. Caregiver behavior has no long-term effects on emotional development.
B. Infants expect interactive contingencies and are stressed when they do not occur.
The experiment shows that infants learn to expect interaction and experience stress when caregivers fail to synchronize.
34
What is synchrony in emotional development?
A. The ability to regulate one's emotions independently.
B. A form of contingency where caregivers and infants mutually reinforce behaviors.
C. A genetic predisposition to social engagement.
D. A measure of an infant’s response to novelty.
B. A form of contingency where caregivers and infants mutually reinforce behaviors.
Synchrony involves back-and-forth interactions, like smiling and imitation, between caregivers and infants
35
What effect does the absence of synchrony have on infants?
A. Infants adapt easily and show no changes.
B. Infants smile more and show reduced stress.
C. Infants display less eye contact, stress responses, and increased fussiness.
D. Infants develop faster emotional regulation skills.
C. Infants display less eye contact, stress responses, and increased fussiness.
36
. What is social referencing, and when does it typically emerge?
A. The ability to identify familiar faces, emerging at 6 months.
B. Looking to caregivers for cues in uncertain situations, emerging at 9-12 months.
C. The tendency to mimic social behaviors, emerging at 3 months.
D. The development of stranger wariness, emerging at 2 years.
B. Looking to caregivers for cues in uncertain situations, emerging at 9-12 months
37
What does the Visual Cliff experiment demonstrate about infant behavior?
A. Infants naturally avoid physical danger without guidance.
B. Infants rely on caregiver cues to navigate uncertain environments.
C. Infants show no preference for caregiver feedback in ambiguous situations.
D. Infants develop stranger wariness earlier than separation anxiety
B. Infants rely on caregiver cues to navigate uncertain environments.
Social referencing
38
How does proximal parenting help infants regulate their emotions?
A. By teaching infants to suppress their emotions entirely.
B. By providing physical and verbal support to help infants manage feelings.
C. By emphasizing independence over emotional support.
D. By focusing solely on genetic predispositions
B. By providing physical and verbal support to help infants manage feelings
Proximal parenting involves hands-on strategies, like soothing tones and touch, to teach infants how to regulate emotions.
39
What is the correct sequence for the stages of developing social bonds?
A. Attachment in the making → Preattachment → Classic secure attachment
B. Preattachment → Attachment in the making → Classic attachment
C. Classic attachment → Preattachment → Attachment in the making
D. Attachment in the making → Classic attachment → Preattachmen
B. Preattachment → Attachment in the making → Classic attachment
Social bonds develop from attachment (0-6 weeks) to attachment in the making (6 weeks-8 months), and then classic attachment forms (8 months-2 years)
40
What is the defining feature of the preattachment stage (0-6 weeks)?
A. Infants show clear preference for a primary caregiver.
B. Infants display no specific attachment to caregivers.
C. Infants actively avoid strangers.
D. Infants show organized attachment behaviors
A. Infants show clear preference for a primary caregiver
41
Which stage is associated with the development of secure and insecure attachment styles?
A. Preattachment
B. Attachment in the making
C. Classic attachment
D. Social referencing
C. Classic attachment ( 8 Month to 2 years old)
42
Which attachment type is most common in the United States?
A. Insecure avoidant
B. Secure
C. Insecure resistant
D. Disorganized
B. Secure
43
How does an infant with insecure avoidant attachment (Type A) typically behave when the caregiver leaves?
A. They cry inconsolably until the caregiver returns.
B. They show anger and frustration toward the caregiver.
C. They seem indifferent and may actively avoid the caregiver.
D. They react inconsistently, sometimes secure and sometimes insecur
C. They seem indifferent and may actively avoid the caregiver.
nsecure avoidant infants do not show distress at the caregiver's absence and may avoid them upon return.
44
What is a characteristic of insecure resistant attachment (Type C)?
A. The child is overly friendly to strangers.
B. The child is angry and anxious, seeking security but unsure how to obtain it.
C. The child is indifferent to the caregiver's presence.
D. The child consistently shows organized attachment behaviors.
B. The child is angry and anxious, seeking security but unsure how to obtain it.
45
What is a defining feature of disorganized attachment (Type D)?
A. Consistent secure attachment behaviors.
B. Predictable emotional reactions to the caregiver's actions.
C. Inconsistent and contradictory responses to the caregiver's presence or absence.
D. Overly confident exploration of new environments.
C. Inconsistent and contradictory responses to the caregiver's presence or absence.
Disorganized attachment involves unpredictable behaviors that may include both secure and insecure responses, often linked to problematic caregiver interactions.
46
What behavior might an infant with secure attachment exhibit in the presence of a caregiver?
A. They cling to the caregiver and refuse to explore.
B. They explore their environment confidently while using the caregiver as a secure base.
C. They avoid the caregiver and focus on strangers.
D. They show inconsistent emotions toward the caregiv
B. They explore their environment confidently while using the caregiver as a secure base.
47
Why is disorganized attachment considered problematic?
A. It leads to immediate social withdrawal.
B. It is rare but associated with high adaptability.
C. It may lead to long-term emotional or psychological difficulties.
D. It prevents infants from forming any attachment.
C) may lead to long-term emotional or psychological difficulties.
48
What was the purpose of Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation experiment?
A. To observe how infants respond to stranger wariness.
B. To evaluate the impact of emotional deprivation on development.
C. To assess attachment by observing exploration, separation, and reunion behaviors.
D. To determine the effectiveness of different parenting styles
C. To assess attachment by observing exploration, separation, and reunion behaviors.
49
In the Strange Situation, how does a securely attached infant typically react when their caregiver returns?
A. They ignore the caregiver and continue playing.
B. They are inconsolable even after the caregiver returns.
C. They calm down quickly and resume exploring.
D. They act aggressively toward the caregive
C. They calm down quickly and resume exploring.
50
What was the main finding from studies on Romanian orphanages and adoption?
A. Emotional deprivation has no long-term effects on children.
B. Children adopted after 1 year struggle to form secure attachments.
C. Synchronous caregiving can be introduced successfully at any age.
D. Emotional deprivation is unrelated to attachment issues
B. Children adopted after 1 year struggle to form secure attachments.
Emotional deprivation during the first year of life makes forming secure attachments later very difficult, as the foundational period for attachment and synchrony occurs in the first year.
51
According to Freud, what fixation might result from unresolved conflict during the oral stage of development?
A. Compulsive cleanliness
B. Emotional dependency and mistrust
C. Fast eating or oral habits like smoking
D. Avoidance of interpersonal relationships
C. Fast eating or oral habits like smoking
Freud proposed that unresolved oral stage conflict could result in an oral fixation, expressed through habits such as overeating, nail-biting, or smoking.
52
In Erikson's stage of trust vs. mistrust, what outcome occurs if an infant's needs are consistently met?
A. The infant becomes overly dependent.
B. The infant develops trust in the world and caregivers.
C. The infant struggles with autonomy.
D. The infant becomes emotionally withdrawn.
B. The infant develops trust in the world and caregivers
Consistently meeting an infant's needs fosters trust, laying the groundwork for secure attachment and positive psychosocial development
53
What might happen to a child who fails to resolve the conflict of autonomy vs. shame and doubt, according to Erikson?
A. The child becomes overly trusting.
B. The child feels incompetent and doubts their abilities.
C. The child develops obsessive cleanliness.
D. The child becomes withdrawn and avoids social interaction.
B. The child feels incompetent and doubts their abilities
If autonomy is not encouraged, the child may feel shame or doubt their ability to succeed in tasks and become less confident.
54
According to Freud, which stage is associated with potty training, and what fixation may result from unresolved conflict?
A. Oral stage; dependency issues
B. Anal stage; obsessive cleanliness or messiness
C. Phallic stage; difficulty with interpersonal relationships
D. Latency stage; avoidance of social interactions
B. Anal stage; obsessive cleanliness or messiness
: Freud's anal stage focuses on potty training, with unresolved conflict potentially leading to a fixation on cleanliness (anal retentiveness) or messiness (anal explosiveness)
55
Why are the first six years of life considered critical for emotional development in both Freud and Erikson’s theories?
A. Brain development is complete by age 6.
B. The foundational conflicts of trust, autonomy, and fixation occur during this time.
C. Environmental factors have no impact after age 6.
D. Genetic predispositions fully manifest in this period.
B. The foundational conflicts of trust, autonomy, and fixation occur during this time
Both theories emphasize that early experiences shape emotional and social development through resolving critical conflicts.
56
What is one way behaviorism differs from Freud and Erikson's theories of psychosocial development?
A. Behaviorism focuses on unconscious conflicts.
B. Behaviorism emphasizes observable behaviors and external reinforcement.
C. Behaviorism denies the importance of attachment in development.
D. Behaviorism is only concerned with adolescence and adulthood.
B. Behaviorism emphasizes observable behaviors and external reinforcement.
Unlike Freud and Erikson, who focused on internal conflicts and stages, behaviorism prioritizes external stimuli and learned behaviors.
57
Historically, how was human development perceived?
A. As a dynamic process influenced by multiple factors.
B. As predetermined and unchangeable from birth.
C. As solely influenced by education and environment.
D. As a spiritual journey with no scientific basis
B. As predetermined and unchangeable from birth.
Historically, many believed human characteristics were static and predetermined, leading to practices like slavery and societal labeling.
58
What concept did John Locke propose about human development?
A. People are born with fixed characteristics.
B. Experiences shape individuals, as they are born as a "blank slate."
C. Intelligence is entirely determined by genetics.
D. Development is guided by spiritual forces
B. Experiences shape individuals, as they are born as a "blank slate.
John Locke's concept of tabula rasa suggests that individuals are born with a blank slate and shaped by their experiences.
59
How has the understanding of human development evolved?
A. It has remained focused on static characteristics.
B. It has shifted to include dynamic, changeable factors.
C. It now dismisses the role of experiences entirely.
D. It no longer considers individual differences.
B. It has shifted to include dynamic, changeable factors.
The field now recognizes that development is influenced by a range of dynamic and changeable factors, not static traits.
60
What analogy is used to explain the importance of understanding human development?
A. A blank slate analogy
B. A crystal ball analogy
C. A ladder analogy
D. A mirror analog
B. A crystal ball analogy
The crystal ball analogy suggests that understanding the foundation of development helps predict future outcomes and plan interventions.
61
Why is understanding human development important?
A. To create a rigid framework for all individuals.
B. To predict and intervene for better outcomes and reform policies.
C. To eliminate the need for societal changes.
D. To focus solely on genetic influences.
B. To predict and intervene for better outcomes and reform policies
Knowledge of human development can guide interventions, correct disparities, and improve policies for societal benefit.
62
How does knowledge of developmental stages help society?
A. It enforces static categorization of individuals.
B. It eliminates the need for policies.
C. It identifies what is typical or atypical at each stage.
D. It removes the importance of cultural influences.
C. It identifies what is typical or atypical at each stage.
Understanding developmental stages helps identify whether someone is developing within or outside the expected norms.
63
How does the concept of tabula rasa challenge earlier beliefs about development?
A. It suggests humans are born with unchangeable traits.
B. It emphasizes genetic determination of behavior.
C. It argues that experiences, not innate traits, shape individuals.
D. It denies the influence of environment on development
C. It argues that experiences, not innate traits, shape individuals.
Locke's tabula rasa contrasts with traditional, earlier static views by proposing that human characteristics are shaped through experience
64
Which of the following is NOT a reason why studying human development matters?
A. To understand typical and atypical patterns of development.
B. To correct disparities and improve societal outcomes.
C. To limit individuality and enforce uniform development.
D. To provide insights into self-management
C. To limit individuality and enforce uniform development.
65
How does understanding developmental foundations help with future outcomes?
A. It creates a deterministic view of human potential.
B. It allows for prediction and planning for better interventions.
C. It guarantees success for all individuals.
D. It focuses exclusively on physical development.
B. It allows for prediction and planning for better interventions
66
What is one practical outcome of understanding human development?
A. It eliminates the need for reforms in policies.
B. It helps people better understand and manage themselves.
C. It stops atypical development from occurring.
D. It fixes all societal inequalities.
B. It helps people better understand and manage themselves.
By understanding human development, individuals gain insights into their own behaviors and emotions, fostering self-managemen
67
What is the main objective of studying lifespan development?
A. To create a fixed model of human growth.
B. To focus only on childhood development.
C. To understand how and why people change or stay the same over time.
D. To study genetic influences exclusively.
C. To understand how and why people change or stay the same over time.
68
How does the science of human development describe change over time?
A. It is static and continuous.
B. It is linear and predictable.
C. It is dynamic and not always continuous.
D. It follows a predetermined genetic path.
C. It is dynamic and not always continuous.
Development is not a straight or static path; it involves complex, dynamic changes influenced by various factors.
69
Which domain variation focuses on the influence of genetic factors versus environmental factors?
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity
B. Nature vs. nurture
C. Early development vs. lifespan approach
D. Cognitive development vs. psychosocial development
B. Nature vs. nurture
70
What does behaviorism emphasize in human development?
A. The role of unconscious drives.
B. That all behavior is learned through interactions and reinforcement.
C. That genetic predispositions determine behavior.
D. That development is a linear, continuous process
B. That all behavior is learned through interactions and reinforcement.
71
What is the key question addressed by the continuity vs. discontinuity debate?
A. Whether human traits are inherited or learned.
B. Whether development is steady or occurs in stages.
C. Whether human behavior is motivated by survival or needs.
D. Whether early development shapes the entire lifespan
: B. Whether development is steady or occurs in stages.
The continuity vs. discontinuity debate focuses on whether development is gradual and continuous or happens in distinct stages.
72
How does the lifespan approach differ from early development theories?
A. It only considers changes during adulthood.
B. It disregards early childhood experiences entirely.
C. It considers all phases of life as influential and multi-directional.
D. It focuses solely on adolescence
C. It considers all phases of life as influential and multi-directional.
73
What distinguishes ethnicity from race?
A. Ethnicity is biologically based, while race is socially constructed.
B. Race is based on physical appearance, while ethnicity is tied to cultural or national traditions.
C. Ethnicity is unchanging, while race evolves with cultural norms.
D. Race is linked to social context, while ethnicity is purely biological.
B. Race is based on physical appearance, while ethnicity is tied to cultural or national traditions.
74
Which of the following is an example of the plasticity of human development?
A. A person develops trust only during infancy and cannot change it later.
B. Cognitive skills remain static throughout adulthood.
C. Emotional, social, and physical aspects adapt and shift over time.
D. Personality traits are fixed by early childhood.
C. Emotional, social, and physical aspects adapt and shift over time.
75
What is the definition of culture in the lifespan development context?
A. A set of biological characteristics shared by a population.
B. A system of shared beliefs, norms, behaviors, and expectations.
C. A method of categorizing individuals based on appearance.
D. A framework for distinguishing between ethnicities
B. A system of shared beliefs, norms, behaviors, and expectations.
76
Which of the following demonstrates the multi-disciplinary approach to lifespan development?
A. Depression being studied solely as a genetic issue.
B. Emotional regulation being studied exclusively in childhood.
C. Depression being analyzed through neuroscience, psychology, biology, and sociology.
D. Physical health being studied only in early adulthood.
C. Depression being analyzed through neuroscience, psychology, biology, and sociology.
77
. In the lifespan approach, what does "multi-contextual" mean?
A. Development occurs in a single, stable environment.
B. Development is influenced by genetics alone.
C. Development is shaped by multiple overlapping contexts, such as family, culture, and history.
D. Development is continuous and uninterrupted.
C. Development is shaped by multiple overlapping contexts, such as family, culture, and history.
78
What conclusion can be drawn from studies on murderers?
A. All murderers are hardwired to kill by nature.
B. Environmental deprivation has no impact on the likelihood of murder.
C. Some murderers have genetic predispositions, while others are influenced by environment.
D. Non-deprived murderers show no significant neurological differences
C. Some murderers have genetic predispositions, while others are influenced by environment
Studies show a distinction between murderers with a genetic predisposition and those whose actions are influenced by extreme environmental factors
79
What does the study of epigenetics focus on?
A. How genes change over generations.
B. How the environment influences genetic expression.
C. How behaviors are passed down through genetics.
D. How mutations in genes affect survival.
B. How the environment influences genetic expression
80
What is differential susceptibility?
A. The idea that all people are equally influenced by their environment.
B. The theory that genes do not play a role in environmental responsiveness.
C. The idea that some individuals are more sensitive to environmental influences than others due to genetic and biological factors.
D. The belief that nurture is more important than natur
C. The idea that some individuals are more sensitive to environmental influences than others due to genetic and biological factors.
81
What analogy is often used to explain differential susceptibility?
A. Glass and water analogy
B. Orchid and dandelion analogy
C. Blank slate analogy
D. Crystal ball analog
B. Orchid and dandelion analogy
Explanation: Orchids are more sensitive to environmental conditions, thriving in optimal environments but struggling in poor ones, while dandelions are resilient and adaptable to a wide range of conditions.
82
What was the key finding of Cacioppo et al. (2014) on loneliness?
A. Loneliness has no biological effects.
B. Loneliness can change brain structure.
C. Loneliness only affects emotional well-being, not physical health.
D. Loneliness is determined solely by genetics
B. Loneliness can change brain structure
83
Which statement best describes the intersection of nature and nurture?
A. Genetic traits and environmental factors always operate independently.
B. Genetics completely determine development, while the environment has no influence.
C. Genetic expression and biological processes are influenced by environmental factors.
D. Environmental factors can replace the need for genetic predispositions
C. Genetic expression and biological processes are influenced by environmental factors
84
Which characteristic is more likely to result from nurture rather than nature?
A. A predisposition for certain medical conditions.
B. High variation in behavior within a population.
C. Inborn traits beneficial for survival.
D. A fixed biological response to stimuli
B. High variation in behavior within a population.
Behaviors shaped by nurture, such as learned skills or habits, typically show greater variation due to individual experiences and environmental factors.
85
What is the primary difference between continuity and discontinuity in development?
A. Continuity focuses on qualitative change, while discontinuity focuses on quantitative change.
B. Continuity is gradual and quantitative, while discontinuity involves sudden, qualitative changes.
C. Continuity assumes abrupt developmental stages, while discontinuity assumes gradual progress.
D. Continuity and discontinuity are interchangeable term
A. Continuity focuses on qualitative change, while discontinuity focuses on quantitative change.
86
Which of the following is an example of discontinuity in development?
A. A child’s vocabulary expanding gradually over several months.
B. A child mastering the skill of walking after a long period of practice.
C. A caterpillar transforming into a butterfly through a chrysalis stage.
D. A baby’s weight steadily increasing over their first year.
C. A caterpillar transforming into a butterfly through a chrysalis stage
87
How does a child’s transition from crawling to walking illustrate both continuity and discontinuity?
A. The transition is abrupt, with no intermediate steps.
B. Crawling to walking is entirely continuous, with no structural changes.
C. The crawling and cruising phases are continuous, while the shift to walking is a discontinuous leap.
D. There is no connection between crawling and walking developmenta
C. The crawling and cruising phases are continuous, while the shift to walking is a discontinuous leap.
88
Which developmental theory is most associated with the concept of discontinuity?
A. Behaviorism
B. Jean Piaget’s stage theory
C. Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory
D. Humanism
B. Jean Piaget’s stage theory
Piaget’s theory emphasizes abrupt, stage-like changes in cognitive abilities, such as the sudden understanding of conservation during the concrete operational stage
89
What is the abruptness assumption in stage theories?
A. Developmental changes occur gradually over time.
B. All related developmental changes occur concurrently within a stage.
C. Changes occur suddenly, not slowly or gradually.
D. Development is entirely shaped by environmental factor
C. Changes occur suddenly, not slowly or gradually.
Explanation: The abruptness assumption in stage theories suggests that developmental changes happen suddenly, as in moving from pre-operational to concrete operational thinking
90
What does the concurrence assumption in stage theories propose?
A. Development happens in unrelated domains at different times.
B. All related developmental abilities progress simultaneously within a stage.
C. Development is continuous, with overlapping domains.
D. Changes in development are random and unorganized.
B. All related developmental abilities progress simultaneously within a stage.
Explanation: The concurrence assumption suggests that all cognitive abilities associated with a stage (e.g., conservation and problem-solving) develop concurrently.
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What is the coherent organization assumption in stage theories?
A. Development occurs randomly without connections between domains.
B. Foundational concepts enable concurrent development across related domains.
C. Development is entirely independent of prior stages.
D. Development occurs only in isolated cognitive areas.
B. Foundational concepts enable concurrent development across related domains.
Explanation: This assumption posits that developmental progress in one area supports connections and advances in other domains, ensuring coherence across abilities.
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How does the conservation task demonstrate discontinuous development?
A. It shows that children understand conservation gradually over time.
B. It demonstrates a sudden shift in cognitive ability to understand that objects retain their properties despite changes in shape.
C. It highlights the role of trial-and-error learning in development.
D. It shows that conservation is innate and present at birth.
B. It demonstrates a sudden shift in cognitive ability to understand that objects retain their properties despite changes in shape.
Explanation: The conservation task reflects a discontinuous leap in understanding, as children suddenly grasp the concept during the concrete operational stage
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What is the role of developmental research methodologies?
A. To make untestable predictions about human behavior.
B. To replace the need for replication in studies.
C. To systematically observe, hypothesize, test, and draw conclusions about development.
D. To focus solely on continuous or discontinuous changes.
C. To systematically observe, hypothesize, test, and draw conclusions about development.
Explanation: Developmental research methodologies provide a structured approach to studying how and why development occurs, using observation, hypotheses, testing, and replication
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Why is replication important in developmental research?
A. To confirm that findings are consistent and not coincidental.
B. To simplify the research process by removing hypotheses.
C. To focus solely on quantitative data collection.
D. To ensure that studies only focus on discontinuous changes.
A. To confirm that findings are consistent and not coincidental.
Explanation: Replication ensures the validity of research findings by demonstrating that they can be reproduced under similar conditions.
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What is a key advantage of using self-reports (e.g., interviews or questionnaires) in research?
A. They can be used effectively with all age groups, including babies.
B. They are inexpensive and efficient for collecting large amounts of data.
C. They are guaranteed to provide truthful and unbiased information.
D. They are the best method for establishing causal relationships.
B. They are inexpensive and efficient for collecting large amounts of data.
Explanation: Self-reports are a quick, cost-effective way to gather data, though they are not suitable for all age groups or guaranteed to be truthful.
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What is a limitation of self-reports in data collection?
A. They always require extensive resources and time to administer.
B. They are biased and not suitable for infants or very young children.
C. They provide highly reliable and unbiased responses.
D. They cannot be used in large-scale studies.
B. They are biased and not suitable for infants or very young children.
Explanation: Respondents may not be truthful, and self-reports are unsuitable for individuals like infants who cannot communicate their experiences.
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Which of the following is an example of a self-report method?
A. Monitoring a child’s heart rate during a fire alarm.
B. Conducting a face-to-face interview with a teenager.
C. Observing interactions in a nursing home.
D. Recording behaviors in a natural setting
B. Conducting a face-to-face interview with a teenager.
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What is one advantage of using observation in research?
A. It allows researchers to infer causation.
B. It provides a natural setting with high external validity.
C. It is always inexpensive and time-efficient.
D. It ensures that all behaviors observed are unbiased
B. It provides a natural setting with high external validity ( generalizability)
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What is a disadvantage of observational research?
A. It cannot provide data on a wide range of behaviors.
B. It is prone to biases in self-reporting.
C. It is time-consuming and cannot infer causal relationships.
D. It requires minimal resources and oversight.
C. It is time-consuming and cannot infer causal relationships
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Why might self-reports not always yield accurate data?
A. They are conducted in natural settings, which affects responses.
B. Respondents may intentionally or unintentionally provide false information.
C. They require a significant investment of time and resources.
D. They rely on advanced technological tools for data collection
B. Respondents may intentionally or unintentionally provide false information
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Which of the following is an example of observational research?
A. Giving a questionnaire to adults about their stress levels.
B. Documenting children's behaviors during a fire alarm.
C. Asking nursing home residents to rank their quality of life.
D. Administering a test to measure cognitive abilities
B. Documenting children's behaviors during a fire alarm
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What is external validity, and why is it a strength of observational research?
A. External validity measures how well a study explains cause-and-effect relationships.
B. External validity ensures that findings apply to other contexts beyond the study setting.
C. External validity ensures the study is conducted in a controlled environment.
D. External validity guarantees participants provide accurate self-reports.
B. External validity ensures that findings apply to other contexts beyond the study setting.
Explanation: Observational research often takes place in natural settings, increasing its external validity by reflecting real-world behaviors.
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Why can’t observational methods establish causal relationships?
A. They lack control over variables and focus on natural behavior.
B. They are too expensive to replicate across multiple settings.
C. Observational data is always subjective and unreliable.
D. They rely too heavily on self-reported data.
A. They lack control over variables and focus on natural behavior.
Explanation: Observational research is descriptive and does not manipulate variables, making it impossible to determine cause and effe
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Which of the following is a shared limitation of self-report and observational methods?
A. Both methods require extensive time and resources.
B. Both methods cannot be used with young children or infants.
C. Both methods are subject to potential biases.
D. Both methods are unreliable for documenting behaviors.
C. Both methods are subject to potential biases.
Explanation: Self-reports may reflect participant bias, while observational methods may reflect researcher bias or selective interpretation.
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Which of the following is an example of non-experimental research?
A. Studying how interviewer behavior influences memory accuracy in children.
B. Observing the correlation between children’s age and memory errors.
C. Testing how supportive versus neutral behaviors impact memory recall.
D. Measuring the direct impact of stress on children’s suggestibility
B. Observing the correlation between children’s age and memory errors.
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What is a significant advantage of non-experimental designs?
A. They allow researchers to establish causal relationships.
B. They help identify patterns and associations between variables.
C. They always control for confounding factors.
D. They can manipulate unethical or uncontrollable variables
B. They help identify patterns and associations between variables.
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Which of the following examples illustrates the limitation of correlational studies?
A. Stress and memory errors increase together, but stress does not directly cause memory errors.
B. Supportive interviewer behavior increases memory accuracy in children.
C. Observation of children’s play behaviors leads to insights about social skills.
D. A controlled experiment identifies how diet impacts cognitive development
A. Stress and memory errors increase together, but stress does not directly cause memory errors.
Explanation: Correlation does not imply causation; other factors, like age, may influence the relationship between stress and memory errors.
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In the study of interviewer behavior on children’s memory, what was the manipulated variable?
A. The age of the children.
B. The type of interviewer behavior (supportive vs. neutral).
C. The type of play activity.
D. The level of stress in the children.
B. The type of interviewer behavior (supportive vs. neutral
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in the study where infant were placed with an interviewer whose face was either happy or neutral what was the main finding about children's memory?
A. Memory accuracy was unaffected by interviewer behavior.
B. Supportive interviewer behavior increased children’s memory accuracy.
C. Neutral interviewer behavior resulted in higher memory accuracy.
D. Children’s memory errors increased with supportive interviewer behavior.
B. Supportive interviewer behavior increased children’s memory accuracy.
Explanation: Supportive behaviors (e.g., smiling, nodding) helped children feel comfortable, leading to more accurate memory recall.
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Which of the following is a limitation of experimental methods?
A. They are unable to determine causal relationships.
B. They often lack external validity because of artificial settings.
C. They cannot include manipulations of variables.
D. They cannot test hypotheses or collect data.
B. They often lack external validity because of artificial settings.
Explanation: Experimental designs may lack external validity because the controlled settings might not reflect real-world scenario
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What is the primary characteristic of a cross-sectional design?
A. Following the same group of participants over an extended period.
B. Comparing multiple age groups at a single point in time.
C. Examining age differences across multiple time points.
D. Observing changes in a single participant over time
B. Comparing multiple age groups at a single point in time.
Explanation: Cross-sectional studies examine different age groups at one time to identify age-related differences.
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Which of the following is an example of a cross-sectional study?
A. Observing children’s memory changes every year from age 2 to 5.
B. Comparing the behavior of 10-year-olds, 15-year-olds, and 20-year-olds at the same time.
C. Assessing the same group of students at the beginning and end of a school year.
D. Following children from infancy to adolescence.
B. Comparing the behavior of 10-year-olds, 15-year-olds, and 20-year-olds at the same time.
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What is the primary limitation of cross-sectional designs?
A. They are expensive and time-consuming.
B. They cannot identify age-related differences.
C. They do not track developmental changes over time.
D. They require large, diverse samples to be valid.
C. They do not track developmental changes over time.
Explanation: Cross-sectional designs only provide a snapshot of differences between age groups, not how individuals change over tim
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What defines a longitudinal research design?
A. Comparing multiple age groups at one point in time.
B. Studying different participants in a short timeframe.
C. Following the same individuals over an extended period.
D. Assessing participants at one time and then again the next year
C. Following the same individuals over an extended period.
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What is a key strength of longitudinal research?
A. It is quick and inexpensive.
B. It can identify cause-and-effect relationships.
C. It tracks individual developmental changes over time.
D. It eliminates the need for a control group.
C. It tracks individual developmental changes over time.
Explanation: Longitudinal research is valuable for understanding how individuals change across different stages of development
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Which of the following is an example of longitudinal research?
A. Comparing the test scores of kindergarteners and fifth graders.
B. Following a group of children from age 10 to age 15 to study memory changes.
C. Assessing high school seniors and tracking new students the next year.
D. Observing a child’s progress in solving puzzles at one time.
B. Following a group of children from age 10 to age 15 to study memory changes.
Explanation: Longitudinal research observes the same participants over time, providing insight into developmental changes.
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What makes cross-sequential research unique?
A. It combines features of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs.
B. It is faster and less expensive than cross-sectional research.
C. It focuses on studying one individual across multiple settings.
D. It tracks one age group across a single time point.
A. It combines features of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs.
Explanation: Cross-sequential research examines multiple age groups at one time and follows them over time, offering both age and developmental insights
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Which of the following is an example of cross-sequential research?
A. Studying a group of toddlers, preschoolers, and kindergarteners over three years.
B. Comparing test scores of children at one point in time.
C. Following infants from birth until age 10.
D. Studying high school seniors over one school year.
A. Studying a group of toddlers, preschoolers, and kindergarteners over three years.
Explanation: Cross-sequential research follows multiple age groups across multiple time points, providing a combination of age and developmental data.
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What factors influence the choice of research design?
A. Ethics, feasibility, resources, and long-term goals.
B. The ability to establish causation in every study.
C. Access to participants of the same age group.
D. Elimination of ethical considerations and resource limitation
A. Ethics, feasibility, resources, and long-term goals.
Explanation: Choosing a research design depends on practical considerations like budget, time, ethics, and the goals of the research.
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Why might researchers use a cross-sectional design instead of a longitudinal one?
A. It provides insights into individual developmental changes over time.
B. It is faster, less expensive, and easier to conduct.
C. It eliminates the need for large sample sizes.
D. It ensures greater accuracy in measuring change.
B. It is faster, less expensive, and easier to conduct.
Explanation: Cross-sectional designs are more practical for studying age differences at a single time point, especially when time or resources are limited.
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