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2M051B Vol 1 > Chapter 4 Self Test > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Self Test Flashcards

(67 cards)

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0
Q

(025) 2. How many different positions can the sling link and shackle be installed on the MHU-186/E?

A

Six

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1
Q

(025) 1. Which handling unit is used to support a cruise missile for storage, transportation, and handling?

A

Guided missile handling unit (MHU-159/E)

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2
Q

(025) 3. Which technical order will you follow when completing prior to use inspections on the guided missile test stand?

A

TO 35D3-11-45-2

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3
Q

(025) 4. Which piece of equipment is used to store the cruise missile engine once it has been removed from the missile?

A

The missile engine handling truck (ETU-102/E)

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4
Q

(026) 1. List the five components that make up the fuel set.

A

Skid, storage tank, trap tank, fuel nozzle, and loose hoses

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5
Q

(026) 2. List the 10 components that make up the skid.

A

Control panel, bleed-down tank, dehydrator tank, hygrometer, flowmeter, two fuel pumps, vacuum pump, filters, storage drawer, and a rack to store hoses

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6
Q

(026) 3. What is the purpose of the bleed-down tank?

A

It is used to hold the fuel removed from missile tanks 2 and 3 during fueling operations.

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7
Q

(026) 4. For what purpose is the hygrometer used?

A

To determine fuel moisture content

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8
Q

(026) 5. What protection does FLT 3 provide during fueling operations?

A

It is a coalescing-type filter that removes all types of solid contaminants from the fuel down to a submicron level, and, at the same time, combines the free water into drops that settle to the sump of the filter separator.

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9
Q

(026) 6. Which systems do FLT 4 and FLT 5 protect?

A

The nitrogen and air systems on the fuel set.

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10
Q

(026) 7. Which skid component contains the majority of gauges, valves, and switches required for operation of the fuel set?

A

The control panel

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11
Q

(026) 8. Which fuel storage tank valve prevents an overflow of fuel during servicing by shutting off fuel flow at the facility fuel supply inlet to the fuel set?

A

Float valve, V75

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12
Q

(026) 9. Where do the trap tank’s hoses connect to the missile?

A

The missile vent connections

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13
Q

(027) 1. What is the purpose of the ESTS?

A

To allow for a rapid and automatic method of testing complex systems and their components; and provide the means for verifying the operational readiness of components undergoing testing.

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14
Q

(027) 2. List the items that can be tested or checked out using the ESTS.

A
  • AGM86 B/C
  • B-52H LRUs
    • Decoder/receiver
    • NucSLU
  • B-52H CSRL
    • Empty/loaded missile check
    • Empty nuclear bomb check
  • B-52H pylon
    • Empty/loaded pylon check
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15
Q

(028) 1. Where is the ESTS computer located?

A

In the main rack

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16
Q

(028) 2. State the purpose of the isolation ground plate.

A

It provides a single-point ground for all units within the ESTS, any adapters, the UUT, and required support equipment.

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17
Q

(028) 3. List the facility input power requirements of the UUT power control rack.

A

120/208-VAC, 60-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 60 amperes per phase; 115/200-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 30 amperes per phase; and 230/400-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 15 amperes per phase

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18
Q

(028) 4. Which ESTS unit provides the interface between the operator and the ESTS?

A

CRT display station

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19
Q

(028) 5. List the three types of printouts available from the ESTS printer.

A

As run, Logged data, and List source

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20
Q

(028) 6. Why is commercial equipment used within the ESTS?

A

Commercial equipment that met ESTS requirements was used in lieu of designing new asemblies

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21
Q

(029) 1. Which ESTS systems use 1A3 computer data?

A

The digital system and the monitor and interrupt system

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22
Q

(029) 2. Why is the digital system vital to ESTS operations?

A

So the computer, which operates in digital, can communicate with the various analog systems.

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23
Q

(029) 3. What are the two sections of the switching system?

A

Measurement input switching and double-pole double-throw (DPDT) switching

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24
(029) 4. How are signals from the analog stimuli system output to the UUT?
via the 1A16 patchboard receiver
25
(029) 5. Why does the monitor and interrupt system receive inputs from other ESTS assemblies?
To monitor voltages and currents throughout the entire ESTS system.
26
(029) 6. What are the two main parts of the ESTS software system?
Self test and UUT
27
(029) 7. What are the two separate types of cooling air systems used within the ESTS?
A blower-operated system using room ambient air. A closed-loop system of air conditioning units.
28
(030) 1. What controls and programs the operation of the ADTS?
The 1A3 computer
29
(030) 2. What's the purpose of the 3A1 power control drawer?
To control the application or removal of AC input power to the assemblies within the ADTS.
30
(030) 3. What is the 3A7 EMI filter used for?
To filter out any 60-Hz input power irregularities and prevent EMI propagation within the ADTS.
31
(030) 4. What is the purpose of the ADTC?
To accurately simulate and measure pneumatic pressures associated with a cruise missile in flight.
32
(030) 5. What's the purpose of the 3A3 blower?
The 3A3 blower circulates room ambient air to cool the 3A5 vacuum pump.
33
(030) 6. What is the purpose of the 3A4 air dryer module?
It dries and removes contaminates from the pressurized air supplied to the pneumatic lines of the 3A2 ADTC.
34
(031) 1. What are the major assemblies of the MRATA?
Active loop drawer A1, Passive loop drawer A2, Power supply assemblies A3, A6, A7, Blower A4, Power control drawer A5
35
(031) 2. Which major MRATA assembly can simulate an altitude rate of change for pulsed-type altimeters?
Active loop drawer A1
36
(031) 3. What does the A2 passive loop drawer provide?
Manual or programmable simulated fixed altitudes, frequency-modulated/continuous-wave type altimeter rate control, and RF signal self-test
37
(031) 4. How many fixed DC output power supplies does each power supply assembly (A3, A6, or A7) contain?
Three
38
(031) 5. What does the power control drawer A5 provide?
Protection (fusing), control, and distribution of the AC and DC power within the MRATA.
39
(032) 1. What is the CV-3643/GSM-263 signal data converter used for?
To buffer and condition analog signals coming from the missile, and then transmits these signals to the ESTS.
40
(032) 2. Why is the interface provided by the buffer drawer necessary?
To prevent damaging currents from reaching the missile circuits and is used to isolate missile ground circuits from the test equipment circuits.
41
(032) 3. What power supplies are located in the power supply drawer?
A 6-VDC power supply (PS1), +15 VDC power supply (PS2), and -15VDC power supply (PS3)
42
(033) 1. What do the MXU-690/E electronics components cooling equipment do?
Filters, regulates, and monitors airflow to numerous missile systems, LRUs, launchers, and pylons during functional checkout, fault isolation, or bench checkout
43
(033) 2. How many cooling air circuits does the CCU contain?
Three
44
(033) 3. What is the facility air pressure requirement for CCU input air?
95 (+/- 25) psig
45
(033) 4. What does the CCU intermediate pressure control do?
It further regulates cooling air to the INE and Section 41 cooling air circuits
46
(033) 5. What indicates the flow of air within the INE cooling air circuit?
FM1
47
(033) 6. What is the purpose of the section 41 cooling air circuit?
To cool components located in the nose cap of the ALCM.
48
(034) 1. How many pylons can the B-52H carry and where on the place are they attached?
Two pylons; one under each wing between the fuselage and the inboard engines
49
(034) 2. Within how many months must an empty pylon test have been run in order to certify a pylon ready for missile upload?
Within the last 24 months
50
(034) 3. During ground testing of a pylon, what provides cooling air for the ECS closed-loop system?
CCU
51
(034) 4. What purpose do the pylon attach points serve that interface with the aircraft?
These attach points interface with the aircraft's pylon jettison release system to allow for emergency jettison.
52
(034) 5. In regards to the CSRL, after the launch of one weapon, the rotary launcher rotates the next selected weapon to which position?
The six o'clock position
53
(034) 6. Within the CSRL monitor and control system, what provides the electrical interface for the missiles?
The MIU
54
(035) 1. Pylon testing is performed in which two modes?
End-to-end and maintenance mode
55
(035) 2. Which TO will you use when performing the empty rotary launcher test?
11N-L5005-8
56
(035) 3. During pylon/launcher level III testing, what are malfunctions isolated down to?
Shop replaceable unit (SRU)
57
(035) 4. Which component provides the electrical interface between the nuclear weapon and the aircraft weapon delivery avionics control unit (WDACU)?
The NucSLU
58
(036) 1. Before a weapons handling team attempts to move a munitions package, what must occur first?
The team must be certified on the task
59
(036) 2. Which type of movement normally involves a munitions package being moved between storage facilities?
Inner area movements
60
(036) 3. What type of movement requires more security and occurs outside a fenced in area?
Outer area movement
61
(036) 4. What must you have in your possession and physically checked off prior to moving a munitions package?
Checklist
62
(036) 5. Who must you stay in contact with before, during, and after a munitions movement?
Munitions control
63
(037) 1. Which test is used to verify communication between the weapon and the aircraft?
Missile Interface Test (MIT)
64
(037) 2. Which test performs missile alignment, targeting, and checkout of weapon interface equipment and weapon control equipment?
System Interface Test (SIT)
65
(038) 1. What is performed in the event of a failure during a MIT or SIT?
Fault analysis
66
(038) 2. Why is fault analysis performed?
To categorize, isolate, and unmistakably identify aircraft, CSRL, pylon, and missile faults.

2M051B Vol 1 (8 decks)

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