Chapter 47 Assessment of kidney and urinary function Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has a Kock pouch. Nursing assessment findings reveal abdominal pain, absence of bowel sounds, fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects which of the following?

a. Stoma ischemia
b. Postoperative pneumonia
c. Stoma retraction
d. Peritonitis

A

d

Clinical manifestations of peritonitis include abdominal pain and distention, absence of bowel sounds, nausea and vomiting, fever, changes in vital signs.

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2
Q

The nurse is caring for an older client whose chart reveals that the client has a reversible cause of urinary incontinence. The nurse creates a plan of care for which condition?

a. Asthma
b, Bladder cancer
c. Constipation
d. Decreased progesterone levels

A

c

Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in menopausal woman.

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3
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is describing urinary symptoms of needing to go to the bathroom with little notice. When the nurse is documenting these symptoms, which medical term will the nurse document?

a. Urinary frequency
b. Urinary urgency
c. Urinary incontinence
d. Urinary stasis

A

b

The nurse would document urinary urgency.
Urinary frequency is urinating more frequently than normal often times due to inadequate emptying of the bladder.
Urinary incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine.
Urinary stasis is a stoppage or diminution of flow.

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4
Q

After teaching a group of students about malignant bladder tumors, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following clients as having the greatest risk for developing a malignant bladder tumor?

a. Client with a history of untreated gonorrhea
b. Client with a history of bladder inflammation
c. Client with a history of cigarette smoking
d. Client with a history of a sexually transmitted disease

A

c

Environmental and occupational health hazards are associated with bladder tumors. Therefore, the client who smokes is at the greatest risk for a malignant tumor.
The client with a history of untreated gonorrhea is most vulnerable to urethral strictures, while the client with a history of bladder inflammation may be vulnerable to interstitial cystitis. Finally, the client with sexually transmitted disease may be vulnerable to acquiring urethritis.

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5
Q

A client presents to the ED reporting left flank pain and lower abdominal pain. The pain is severe, sharp, stabbing, and colicky in nature. The client has also experienced nausea and emesis. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:

a. ureteral stones.
b. pyelonephritis.
c. cystitis.
d. Urethral infection.

A

a

The findings are constant with ureteral stones, edema or stricture, or a blood clot.

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6
Q

A client is prescribed flavoxate (Urispas) following cystoscopy. Which of the following instructions would the nurse give the client?

a. “This medication will relieve your pain.”
b. “This medication prevents urinary incontinence.”
c. “This medication will treat the blood in your urine.”
d. “This medication prevents infection in your urinary tract”

A

a

Flavoxate (Urispas) is a antispasmodic agent used for the treatment of burning and pain of the urinary tract.

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7
Q

A patient had a renal angiography and is being brought back to the hospital room. What nursing interventions should the nurse carry out after the procedure to detect complications? Select all that apply.

a. Assess peripheral pulses.
b. Compare color and temperature between the involved and uninvolved extremities.
c. Examine the puncture site for swelling and hematoma formation.
d. Apply warm compresses to the insertion site to decrease swelling.
e. Increase the amount of IV fluids to prevent clot formation.

A

a, b, c

After the procedure, vital signs are monitored until stable. If the axillary artery was the injection site, blood pressure measurements are taken on the opposite arm. The injection site is examined for swelling and hematoma. Peripheral pulses are palpated, and the color and temperature of the involved extremity are noted and compared with those of the uninvolved extremity. Cold compresses may be applied to the injection site to decrease edema and pain.

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8
Q

A female client who suffers from urethral strictures undergoes a dilation procedure and experiences a burning sensation while voiding. Which nursing instruction would be most helpful?

a. Encourage a visit to a local ostomy support group.
b. Advise cleansing of the perineum frequently.
c. Urge the application of moisture sealants.
d. Instruct the use of warm sitz baths.

A

d

Taking warm sitz baths and non-narcotic analgesics can relieve the client’s discomfort while voiding.

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9
Q

A female client who is diagnosed with a malignant tumor in her bladder is advised to undergo cystectomy followed by a urinary diversion procedure. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to assess preoperatively?

a. Client’s manual dexterity and vision
b. History of allergy to iodine and seafood
c. Dietary habits involving cholesterol-laden food
d. Menstrual history

A

a

It is essential to assess manual dexterity, vision, and level of understanding of a client who undergoes a urinary diversion procedure, because this information will determine the client’s ability to manage stoma care and self-catheterization following the urinary diversion procedure.

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10
Q

Which of the following is the procedure of choice for men with recurrent or complicated urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

a. Transrectal ultrasonography
b. IV urogram
c. Computed tomography (CT) scan
d. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

a

A transrectal ultrasonography is the procedure of choice for men with recurrent or complicated UTIs. This allows visualization of the structure to rule out any etiology that possible causing obstruction that continuously leading to recurrent UTIs.

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11
Q

A patient is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of spastic, neurogenic bladder. The nurse is aware that the pathophysiology of this condition is primarily due to which of the following occurrences?

a. Bladder distended until overflow incontinence occurs
b. Patient’s inability to exert motor control
c. Presence of a lower motor neuron lesion
d. Inability of the bladder muscle to contract forcefully

A

b

Neurogenic bladder dysfunction results from a lesion of the nervous system that results in urinary incontinence.
Spastic bladder is caused by any spinal cord lesion above the voiding reflex.
There is a loss of conscious sensation and control.
A spastic bladder empties on reflex.

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12
Q

A nurse caring for a patient with a neurogenic bladder knows to assess for the major complication of:

a. Permanent distention
b. Infection
c. Consistent pain
d. Daily and painful spasms

A

b

Infection is caused by an increased urinary bacterial count that results from incomplete and delayed emptying of the bladder.

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13
Q

A client has been experiencing severe pain and hematuria and is hardly able to ambulate into the physician’s office. The physician suspects kidney stones and orders diagnostic tests to confirm. What test would the nurse expect the physician to order?

a. KUB
b. ultrasound
c. CT
d. MRI

A

An x-ray study of the abdomen includes x-rays of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB). It is performed to show the size and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bony pelvis as well as any radiopaque urinary calculi (stones), abnormal gas patterns (indicative of renal mass), and anatomic defects of the bony spinal column (indicative of neuropathic bladder dysfunction).

Renal ultrasonography identifies the kidney’s shape, size, location, collecting systems, and adjacent tissues. A computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen and pelvis may be obtained to diagnose renal pathology, determine kidney size, and evaluate tissue densities with or without contrast.

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14
Q

A group of students is reviewing for a test on the urinary and renal system. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as part of the upper urinary tract?

a. Bladder
b. Urethra
c. Ureters
d. Pelvic floor muscles

A

c
The upper urinary tract is composed of the kidneys, renal pelvis, and ureters. The lower urinary tract consists of the bladder, urethra, and pelvic floor muscles.

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14
Q

Which of the following urine characteristics would the nurse anticipate when caring for a client whose lab work reveals a high urine specific gravity related to dehydration?

a. Dark amber urine
b. Clear or light yellow urine
c. Red urine
d. Turbid urine

A

a

Concentrated urine (one with a high specific gravity) is a dark amber color due to the solutes in the urine. Clear or yellow urine indicates a flushing of the urinary system. Red urine indicates hematuria. A turbid urine may indicate bacteriuria.

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15
Q

A geriatric nurse is performing an assessment of body systems on an older adult client. The nurse should be aware of what age-related change affecting the renal and urinary systems?

a. Increased ability to concentrate urine
b, Increased bladder capacity
c, Urinary incontinence
d. Decreased glomerular filtration rate

A

d
Many age-related changes in the renal and urinary systems should be taken into consideration when taking a health history of an older adult. One change includes a decreased glomerular surface area resulting in a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Other changes include the decreased ability to concentrate urine and a decreased bladder capacity. It also should be understood that urinary incontinence is not a normal age-related change, but is common in older adults, especially in women because of the loss of pelvic muscle tone.

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16
Q

Although the primary function of the urinary system is the transport of urine, the kidneys perform several functions. Which is NOT a function of the kidneys?

a. excreting protein
b, excreting nitrogen waste products
c, regulating blood pressure
d, stimulating RBC production

A

a
Although the kidneys excrete excess water and nitrogen-based waste products of protein metabolism, persistent renal excretion of protein is not the function of kidneys, which are in the state of homeostasis. The kidneys assist in maintenance of acid-base and electrolyte balance; produce the enzyme renin, which helps regulate blood pressure; and produce the hormone erythropoietin.

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17
Q

A client is scheduled for a diagnostic MRI of the lower urinary system. What preprocedure education should the nurse include?

a. The need to be NPO for 12 hours prior to the test
b. Relaxation techniques to use during the test
c, The need for conscious sedation prior to the test
d, The need to limit fluid intake to 1 liter in the 24 hours before the test

A

b
Client preparation should include teaching relaxation techniques because the client needs to remain still during an MRI. The client does not normally need to be NPO or fluid-restricted before the test and conscious sedation is not usually implemented.

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18
Q

A patient is scheduled for a test with contrast to determine kidney function. What statement made by the patient should the nurse inform the physician about prior to testing?

a. “I don’t like needles.”
b. “I am allergic to shrimp.”
c. “I take medication to help me sleep at night.”
d. “I have had a test similar to this one in the past.”

A

b
The nurse should obtain the patient’s allergy history with emphasis on allergy to iodine, shellfish, and other seafood, because many contrast agents contain iodine.

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19
Q

When fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine should be

a. 1.000.
b. less than 1.010.
c. greater than 1.025.
d. 1.010 to 1.025.

A

d
Urine-specific gravity is a measurement of the kidneys’ ability to concentrate urine. The specific gravity of water is 1.000. A urine-specific gravity less than 1.010 may indicate inadequate fluid intake. A urine-specific gravity greater than 1.025 may indicate overhydration.

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20
Q

A client is scheduled for a renal ultrasound. Which of the following would the nurse include when explaining this procedure to the client?

a. “An x-ray will be done to view your kidneys, ureters, and bladder.”
b, “A contrast medium will be used to help see the structures better.”
c. “You don’t need to do any fasting before this noninvasive test.”
d, “You’ll have a pressure dressing on your groin after the test.”

A

c

Renal ultrasonography identifies the kidney’s shape, size, location, collecting systems, and adjacent tissues. It is not invasive, does not require the injection of a radiopaque dye, and does not require fasting or bowel preparation. An x-ray of the abdomen to view the kidneys, ureters, and bladder is called a KUB. A contrast medium is used for computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis. A pressure dressing is applied to the groin after a renal arteriogram.

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21
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has a fluid volume deficit. When evaluating this client’s urinalysis results, what should the nurse normally anticipate?

a. Decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
b. Less antidiuretic hormone (ADH) released
c. Decreased urine osmolality
d. Increased urine specific gravity

A

d

Urine specific gravity depends largely on hydration status. A decrease in fluid intake will lead to an increase in the urine specific gravity. With high fluid intake, specific gravity decreases. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are usually elevated with volume deficits related to dehydration. With decreased water intake as seen in a client with fluid volume deficit, blood osmolality increases, which stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release. ADH acts on the kidney, increasing water reabsorption and returning the blood osmolality to a normal level. Normally, urine osmolality increases (urine is concentrated) with fluid volume deficits.

22
Q

A 24-hour urine collection is scheduled to begin at 8:00 am. When should the nurse initiate the procedure?

a. After discarding the 8:00 am specimen
b. At 8:00 am, with or without a specimen
c, 6 hours after the urine is discarded
d, With the first specimen voided after 8:00 am

A

a
A 24-hour collection of urine is the primary test of renal clearance used to evaluate how well the kidney performs this important excretory function. The client is initially instructed to void and discard the urine. The collection bottle is marked with the time the client voided. Thereafter, all the urine is collected for the entire 24 hours. The last urine is voided at the same time the test originally began.

23
Q

The nurse is caring for a client that had surgery this morning. What assessment finding would the nurse notify the health care provider about?
a. blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg
b. temperature of 37.6° C (99.7° F)
c. moderate amount of serous drainage on the surgical dressing
d, urinary output of 20 mL/hr over 2 hours

A

d
Urine output is maintained at a minimum of 30 mL/hr in adults. Less than this for 2 consecutive hours should be reported to the health care provider. A low-grade fever is expected in healing and is the natural inflammatory response to surgery. Moderate drainage can be observed, and the blood pressure is still within normal parameters.

24
Q

The nurse is planning care for a client with a catheter. What action(s) should the nurse take to prevent a catheter-associated urinary tract infection? Select all that apply.

a. Provide perineal care at least once a day.
b. Encourage the client to drink 101 oz (3000 mL) fluids daily.
c, Change the catheter daily.
d. Recommend the health care provider prescribe antibiotics.
e. Maintain a closed drainage system.

A

a, b, e
Catheter-associated urinary tract infection is the most frequent type of health care-acquired infection (HAI) and represents as much as 80% of HAIs in hospitals. The nurse should provide meticulous perineal care at least once a day, maintain a closed drainage system, and encourage the client to obtain an adequate fluid intake. It is not necessary to change the catheter daily. It is recommended that long-term use of an indwelling urinary catheter be evaluated carefully and other methods considered if the catheter will be in place longer than 2 weeks. It is not necessary to request a prescription for antibiotics as the client does not currently have an infection.

25
Q

The client asks the nurse, “How did I get this urinary tract infection?” What should the nurse tell the client causes cystitis?

a, an infection elsewhere in the body
b, an ascending infection from the urethra
c, congenital strictures in the urethra
d. urinary stasis in the urinary bladder

A

b
Although various conditions may result in cystitis, the most common cause is an ascending infection from the urethra. Strictures and urine retention can lead to infections, but these are not the most common cause. Systemic infections are rarely causes of cystitis.

26
Q

What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make when administering tamsulosin to a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
a. size of the prostate
b. voiding pattern
c. serum testosterone level
d. creatinine clearance

A

b
The alpha-adrenergic blocker tamsulosin relaxes the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostate, so the urinary voiding symptoms of BPH are reduced in many clients. These drugs do not affect the size of the prostate, renal function, or the production or metabolism of testosterone.

27
Q

The nurse is instructing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to collect a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter. Which statement indicates that the UAP understands the instructions?
a. “I should collect urine from the catheter drainage bag at the end of the shift and place it in the specimen container.”
b. “I’ll disconnect the drainage tube from the catheter and let urine run from the catheter into the specimen container.”
c. “I’ll empty the catheter drainage bag, have the client drink some water, and an hour later collect the urine that drains into the bag.”
d. “I’ll get a sterile syringe and remove urine from the catheter through the collection port to place in the specimen container.”

A

d
When obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter, a sterile syringe and needle should be used to access the catheter port that allows removal of urine from the closed system. This technique preserves sterility of the system and the urine specimen.

Urine cannot be collected from the drainage bag because it would not be a fresh specimen.

Disconnecting the tube from the catheter bag could introduce organisms into the urinary system, causing a urinary tract infection.

28
Q

A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary incontinence. Which measure should the nurse include in a bladder retraining program?
a. restricting fluid intake to reduce the need to void
b. assessing present voiding patterns
c. establishing a predetermined fluid intake pattern for the client
d. encouraging the client to increase the time between voidings

A

b
The guidelines for initiating bladder retraining include assessing the client’s present intake patterns, voiding patterns, and reasons for each accidental voiding. Lowering the client’s fluid intake won’t reduce or prevent incontinence. The client should be encouraged to drink 1.5 to 2 L of water per day. A voiding schedule should be established after assessment.

29
Q

A registered nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a group of clients. Which client’s care will the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?
a. a client returning from the post-anesthesia unit after radical suprapubic prostatectomy
b. a client diagnosed with renal calculi who is encouraged to ambulate four times daily
c. a client with a suprapubic catheter that is draining burgundy-colored urine
d. a client with mild hematuria who requires bladder irrigation via urinary catheter

A

b
The ambulation of the client diagnosed with renal calculi may safely be delegated to the UAP. The registered nurse should care for the clients with a suprapubic catheter draining burgundy-colored urine. The client returning from anesthesia unit requires assessment, and assessment is not within the scope of practice for the UAP. The UAP would also not be permitted to perform bladder irrigation.

30
Q

A nurse manager is working as part of a quality improvement team focusing on catheter-associated urinary tract infection. As part of the risk assessment and infection surveillance program, the team is evaluating the appropriate use of indwelling urinary catheters. The team identifies the need for corrective action when review of the medical records reveals use of an indwelling catheter for which situation?
a. accurately measuring urine output in a client with multiple trauma
b. relieving an acute bladder outlet obstruction
c, checking for residual urine in the bladder
d, managing urinary incontinence with sacral pressure injury

A

c
It is inappropriate to use an indwelling urinary catheter to check for residual urine in the bladder; bedside ultrasonic bladder scanning should be used instead. Appropriate uses of an indwelling catheter include cases of acute urinary retention or bladder outlet obstruction, accurate measurement of urinary output in a critically ill client, and aid in in healing of open sacral or perineal wounds in incontinent clients.

31
Q

The nurse is assessing a client at the diagnostic imaging center. For which diagnostic test would the client be assessed for an allergy to iodine?

a. Radiography
b. Computed tomography with contrast
c. Cystoscopy
d. Bladder ultrasonography

A

b
The nurse is correct to assess for an allergy to iodine when a computed tomography with contrast medium is prescribed. Uroflowmetry, cystoscopy, and bladder ultrasonography are performed without the use of contrast medium.

32
Q

A client reports urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. Which of the following would the nurse most likely suspect?

a. Obstruction of the lower urinary tract
b. Acute renal failure
c. Infection
d. Nephrotic syndrome

A

c
Frequency, urgency, and dysuria are commonly associated with urinary tract infection. Hesitancy and enuresis may indicate an obstruction. Oliguria or anuria and proteinuria might suggest acute renal failure. Nocturia is associated with nephrotic syndrome.

33
Q

A nurse is assisting the physician conducting a cystogram. The client has an intravenous (IV) infusion of D5W at 40 ml/hr. The physician inserts a urinary catheter into the bladder and instills a total of 350 ml of a contrast agent. The nurse empties 500 ml from the urinary catheter drainage bag at the conclusion of the procedure. How many milliliters does the nurse record as urine?

A

500ml output - 350ml contrast = 150ml urine

The urinary drainage bag contains both the contrast agent and urine at the conclusion of the procedure. Total contents (500 ml) in the drainage bag consist of 350 ml of contrast agent and 150 ml of urine.

34
Q

The nurse is providing care to a client who has had a renal biopsy. The nurse would need to be alert for signs and symptoms of which of the following?

a. Bleeding
b. Infection
c. Dehydration
d. Allergic reaction

A

a
Renal biopsy carries the risk of postprocedure bleeding because the kidneys receive up to 25% of the cardiac output each minute. Therefore, the nurse would need to be alert for signs and symptoms of bleeding. Although infection is also a risk, the risk for bleeding is greater.

35
Q

The nurse is completing a full exam of the client’s renal system. Which assessment finding best documents the need to offer the use of the bathroom?

a. Tenderness over the kidneys
b. Bruits noted over the abdominal area
c. A dull sound when percussing over the bladder
d. The ingestion of 8 oz of water

A

c

A dull sound when percussing over the bladder indicates a full bladder. Because the bladder is full, the nurse would offer for the client to use the bathroom. Tenderness over the kidney can indicate an infection or stones. Bruits are an abnormal vascular sound that does not indicate the need to use the bathroom. Ingesting water does not mean that the client has to void at this time.

36
Q

An older adult’s most recent laboratory findings indicate a decrease in creatinine clearance. When performing an assessment related to potential causes, the nurse should:

a. confirm all of the medications and supplements normally taken.
b, assess the client’s usual intake of sodium.
c. confirm which beverages the client normally consumes.
d. palpate the client’s bladder before and after voiding.

A

a

Adverse effects of medications are a common cause of decreased renal function in older adults.

Quantity, rather than type, of beverages is relevant. Sodium intake does not normally cause decreased renal function. Bladder palpation can be used to confirm urinary retention, but this does not normally affect renal function as much as medications.

37
Q

A 24-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency room after a water skiing accident. The X-rays revealed two fractured vertebrae, T-12 and L1. Based on this information, the nurse would know to perform which of the following actions?

a. Keep the patient on bed rest for 72 hours.
b, Place a bed board under the mattress to add support.
c. Check the patient’s urine for hematuria.
d. Apply moist heat, every 4 hours for the first 48 hours to aid healing.

A

c

The kidneys are located from the 12th thoracic vertebrae to the third lumbar vertebrae. Therefore, the accident may have caused blunt force trauma damage to the kidneys. Ice is always applied for the first 24 hours, then heat, if not contraindicated. Activity will be restricted but bed rest is not necessary.

38
Q

A client is scheduled for a renal ultrasound. Which of the following would the nurse include when explaining this procedure to the client?

a. “An x-ray will be done to view your kidneys, ureters, and bladder.”
b. “A contrast medium will be used to help see the structures better.”
c. “You don’t need to do any fasting before this noninvasive test.”
d. “You’ll have a pressure dressing on your groin after the test.”

A

c

Renal ultrasonography identifies the kidney’s shape, size, location, collecting systems, and adjacent tissues. It is not invasive, does not require the injection of a radiopaque dye, and does not require fasting or bowel preparation. An x-ray of the abdomen to view the kidneys, ureters, and bladder is called a KUB. A contrast medium is used for computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis. A pressure dressing is applied to the groin after a renal arteriogram.

39
Q

Retention of which electrolyte is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure?

a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c, Potassium
d. Phosphorous

A

c

Retention of potassium is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure.

40
Q

A client in a short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should:

a. keep the client’s knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours.
b, apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes.
c. check the client’s pedal pulses frequently.
d. remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

A

c

After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site, the nurse should check the client’s pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping the client’s knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse should leave this dressing in place for several hours — and only remove it if instructed to do so.

41
Q

A client is scheduled for a renal arteriogram. When the nurse checks the chart for allergies to shellfish or iodine, she finds no allergies recorded. The client is unable to provide the information. During the procedure, the nurse should be alert for which finding that may indicate an allergic reaction to the dye used during the arteriogram?

a. Increased alertness
b, Hypoventilation
c. Pruritus
d. Unusually smooth skin

A

c

The nurse should be alert for pruritus and urticaria, which may indicate a mild anaphylactic reaction to the arteriogram dye. Decreased (not increased) alertness may occur as well as dyspnea (not hypoventilation). Unusually smooth skin isn’t a sign of anaphylaxis.

42
Q

Urine specific gravity is a measurement of the kidney’s ability to concentrate and excrete urine. Specific gravity compares the density of urine to the density of distilled water. Which is an example of how urine concentration is affected?

a. On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has low urine output with a high specific gravity.
b. On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has high urine output with a low specific gravity.
c, A person who has a high fluid intake and who is not losing excessive water from perspiration, diarrhea, or vomiting has scant urine output with a high specific gravity.
d, When the kidneys are diseased, the ability to concentrate urine may be impaired, and the specific gravity may vary widely.

A

a

Specific gravity is altered by the presence of blood, protein, and casts in the urine and is normally influenced primarily by hydration status. On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has low urine output with a high specific gravity. A person who has a high fluid intake and who is not losing excessive water from perspiration, diarrhea, or vomiting has copious urine output with a low specific gravity. When the kidneys are diseased, the ability to concentrate urine may be impaired, and the specific gravity remains relatively constant.

43
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tests would the nurse expect to be ordered to determine the details of the arterial supply to the kidneys?

a. Radiography
b. Angiography
c, Computed tomography (CT scan)
d, Cystoscopy

A

b

Angiography provides the details of the arterial supply to the kidneys, specifically the number and location of renal arteries. Radiography shows the size and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. A CT scan is useful in identifying calculi, congenital abnormalities, obstruction, infections, and polycystic diseases. Cystoscopy is used for providing a visual examination of the internal bladder.

44
Q

A client presents to the emergency department complaining of a dull, constant ache along the right costovertebral angle along with nausea and vomiting. The most likely cause of the client’s symptoms is:

a. renal calculi.
b, an overdistended bladder.
c, interstitial cystitis.
d. acute prostatitis.

A

a
Renal calculi usually presents as a dull, constant ache at the costovertebral angle. The client may also present with nausea and vomiting, diaphoresis, and pallor. The client with an overdistended bladder and interstitial cystitis presents with dull, continuous pain at the suprapubic area that’s intense with voiding. The client also complains of urinary urgency and straining to void. The client with acute prostatitis presents with a feeling of fullness in the perineum and vague back pain, along with frequency, urgency, and dysuria.

45
Q

The nurse is completing a routine urinalysis using a dipstick. The test reveals an increased specific gravity. The nurse should suspect which condition?

a. Decreased fluid intake
b. Increased fluid intake
c. Glomerulonephritis
d. Diabetes insipidus

A

a

When fluid intake decreases, specific gravity normally increases. With high fluid intake, specific gravity decreases. Disorders or conditions that cause decreased urine-specific gravity include diabetes insipidus, glomerulonephritis, and severe renal damage. Disorders that can cause increased specific gravity include diabetes, nephritis, and fluid deficit.

46
Q

The client is admitted to the nursing unit for a biopsy of the urinary tract tissue. When planning nursing care for the postoperative period, which nursing intervention documents the prescribed activity level?

a. Maintain the client on bedrest
b, Assist the client for bathroom privileges
c, Ambulate the client in the hall
d. Activity as tolerated

A

a

In the postoperative period, the client remains on bed rest as the nurse assess for signs of bleeding. If the client is to be discharged on the following day, the client is to maintain limited activity for several days to avoid spontaneous bleeding. The client does not ambulate in the hall and should maintain limited activity for several days post discharge.

47
Q

When diagnostic testing reveals renal glycosuria, the nurse should recognize the need for the client to be assessed for what health problem?

a. Diabetes insipidus
b, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
c, Diabetes mellitus
d, Renal carcinoma

A

c

Renal glycosuria can occur on its own as a benign condition. It also occurs in poorly controlled diabetes, the most common condition that causes the blood glucose level to exceed the kidney’s reabsorption capacity. Glycosuria is not associated with SIADH, diabetes insipidus, or renal carcinoma.

48
Q

A client is scheduled for a renal ultrasound. Which of the following would the nurse include when explaining this procedure to the client?

“An x-ray will be done to a.
view your kidneys, ureters, and bladder.”
b, “A contrast medium will be used to help see the structures better.”
c. “You don’t need to do any fasting before this noninvasive test.”
d, “You’ll have a pressure dressing on your groin after the test.”

A

c

Renal ultrasonography identifies the kidney’s shape, size, location, collecting systems, and adjacent tissues. It is not invasive, does not require the injection of a radiopaque dye, and does not require fasting or bowel preparation. An x-ray of the abdomen to view the kidneys, ureters, and bladder is called a KUB. A contrast medium is used for computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis. A pressure dressing is applied to the groin after a renal arteriogram.

49
Q

A patient is being seen in the clinic for possible kidney disease. What major sensitive indicator of kidney disease does the nurse anticipate the patient will be tested for?

a. Blood urea nitrogen level
b, Creatinine clearance level
c, Serum potassium level
d, Uric acid level

A

b

Creatinine is an endogenous waste product of skeletal muscle that is filtered at the glomerulus, passed through the tubules with minimal change, and excreted in the urine. Hence, creatinine clearance is a good measure of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), the amount of plasma filtered through the glomeruli per unit of time. Creatinine clearance is the best approximation of renal function. As renal function declines, both creatinine clearance and renal clearance (the ability to excrete solutes) decrease.

49
Q
A
50
Q
A
51
Q
A