Chapter 5 Flashcards
(86 cards)
1
Q
Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States. T/F
A
False
2
Q
The genetic alterations associated with neoplasia are passed to daughter cells upon cell division. T/F
A
True
3
Q
Cancers are caused by only DNA mutations. T/F
A
False
4
Q
DNA methylation and histone modifications are associated with _____.
A. mutations
B. epigenetics
A
B. Epigenetics
5
Q
All tumors are \_\_\_\_\_\_ A. Clonal B. Sarcoma C. Malignant D. Carcinomas
A
A. Clonal
6
Q
In regards to tumor structure, \_\_\_\_\_ is the supportive foundation for \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Stroma, Parenchyma B. Parenchyma, Stroma C. Stroma, Epithelium D. Epithelium, Extracellular matrix
A
Stroma, Parenchyma
7
Q
Parenchyma is non-neoplasmic. T/F
A
False
8
Q
Are the cells in the stroma neoplastic or non-neoplastic?
A
Non-neoplastic
9
Q
Stroma forms the supportive structure of a tumor, including _____ and ______.
A. Basement membrane and vessels
B. Vessels and Extracellular Matrix
C. Fibrous capsule and Extracellular matrix
A
B. Vessels and Extracellular Matrix
10
Q
Which of the following has the greatest impact on the biological behavior of a neoplasm? A. Stroma B. Parenchyma C. Supportive connective tissue D. Blood Supply
A
B. Parenchyma
11
Q
Which of the following has the greatest impact on the longevity of the neoplasm?
A. Parenchyma
B. Stroma
A
B. Stroma
12
Q
Which of the follwing is not a hallmark of cancer development? A.. Angiogenesis B. Anaerobic Glycolysis C. Limitless replication D. Evasion of apoptosis
A
B. Anaerobiv glycolysis
13
Q
Which of the following refers to a benign neoplasm derived from glandular tissue? A. Sarcoma B. Adenoma C. Carcinoma D. Hamartoma
A
B. Adenoma
14
Q
Which of the following is a benign tumor which resembles the tissues of its origin? A. Hamartoma B. Teratoma C. Papilloma D. Cyst
A
A. Hemartoma
15
Q
Which of the following is a mixed tumor that contains cells from 3 embryonic germ cell layers? A. Hamartoma B. Sarcoma C. Papilloma D. Teratoma
A
D. Teratoma
16
Q
Benign tumors are more likely to be anaplastic and malignant tumors are well-differentiated. T/F
A
False
17
Q
Which of these features is not associated with anaplastic tumors? A. Hyperchromatic B. Increased number of mitotic figures C. Well-differentiated cells D. Pleomorphic cells
A
C. Well-differentiated cells
18
Q
In general, benign tumors contain fewer mutations than cancers. T/F
A
True
19
Q
A lipoma is a malignant tumor of mature fat cells. T/F
A
False
20
Q
A loss or reduction of cellular differentiation is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Metaplasia B. Papilloma C. Anaplasia D. Hyperplasia
A
C. Anaplasia
21
Q
Which of the following represents cells that are disorderly, but still non-neoplastic?
A. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Neoplasia
A
A. Dysplasia
22
Q
Poorly differentiated tumors grow more rapidly than do well-differentiated tumors. T/F
A
True
23
Q
Malignant tumors that are composed of undifferentiated cells are considered anaplastic. T/F
A
True
24
Q
Which of the following is most likely to have a fibrous capsule? A. Cancer B. Malignant neoplasm C. Secondary metastasis D. Benign neoplasm
A
D. Benign neoplasm
25
```
Which of the following unequicovally identifies a tumor as being malignant?
A. Local invasiveness
B. A fast rate of growth
C. Metastasis
D. Anaplasia
```
C. Metastasis
26
```
Which 2 anatomic regions are most frequently involved sites of cancer metastasis?
A. Liver
B. Breast tissue
C. skeletal muscle
D. Lung
```
A. Liver and D. Lung
27
```
Where do Osteosarcomas commonly metastasize to?
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Skeletal Muscle
D. Breast Tissue
```
B. Lungs
28
```
Tumors of the gastrointestinal tract commonly metastasize to what organ?
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Hip bone
```
C. Liver
29
What type of dissemination is the most rapid?
A. Within the body cavity
B. Lymphatic
C. Hemotogenous
C. Hemotogenous
30
Carcinomas commonly use what type of dissemination?
A. Within the body cavity
B. Lymphatic
C. Hemotogenous
B. Lymphatic
31
What is the first lymph node in the metastasis pathway?
A. Jugulo-digastic node
B. Spleen
C. Sentinal
C. Sentinal
32
```
Tumors of the _____ are the most common cause of cancer-related deaths among females.
A. Breast
B. Ovary
C. Colorectal region
D. Lung
```
D. Lung
33
```
Among U.S. females, the death rate from uterine cervical cancer is _____ while the death rate from lung cancer is _____.
A. Increasing, increasing
B. Decreasing, decreasing
C. Increasing, decreasing
D. Decreasing, increasing
```
D. Decreasing, increasing
34
Environmental factors are the predominant cause of the most common sporadic cancers. T/F
True
35
```
Reduced immune competence and ______ are thought to contribute to the increased frequency of cancer as we age.
A. Somatic mutations
B. Lysosomal apoptosis
C. Mitochondrial dysjunction
D. Calcium ion accumulation
```
A. Somatic mutations
36
```
Most cancer-related mortality occurs between the ages of ____.
A. 20-45 years
B. 33-50 years
C. 55-75 years
D. 70-85 years
```
C. 55-75 years
37
A 34-year-old female does not have a BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation, but still developed breast cancer; this cancer is categorized as a(n) ______
A. Autosomal dominant cancer syndrome
B. Autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair
C. Familial cancers of uncertain inheritance
D. Acquired preneoplastic syndromes
C. Familial cancers of uncertain inheritance
38
While preneoplastic lesions increase the likelihood of malignancy, most do not progress into cancer. T/F
True
39
```
Which of the following is an autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair?
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Xeroderma pigmentosum
C. Prostatic adenocarcinoma
D. Retinoblastoma
```
B. Xeroderma pigmentosum
40
```
Tumor supporessor genes (TSGs) prevent uncontrolled growth and the typical loss of function mutation, involved with altered TSGs, require a loss of __ normla allele(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
```
A. 1
41
```
Which of the following is a normal gene that has a high potential to cause cancer when mutated, such as a gene that regulates apoptosis?
A. Proto-oncogene
B. Dabble-fixed gene
C. Expirion
D. Genejacket
```
A. Proto-oncogene
42
Oncogeneic mutation are ______ because the mutations of a single allele can lead to phenotypic change.
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
A. Dominant
43
```
Which of the following is least likely to be involved with oncogenesis?
A. Proto-oncogenes
B. Genes that regulate noncoding DNA
C. Genes involved with DNA repair
D. Tumor suppressor gene
```
B. Genes that regulate noncoding DNA
44
```
Over 90% of all cases of chronic myelogenous leukemia involve a(n) _____ of chromosomes 9 and 22, which is referred to as a Philadelphia chromosome.
A. Deletion
B. Balanced Translocation
C. Gene amplification
D. Epigenetic modification
```
B. Balanced Translocation
45
```
An abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of organism's haploid is termed ______.
A. metaplasia
B. karyotype
C. Epigenetic
D. Aneuploidy
```
D. Aneuploidy
46
```
Which of the following refers to a reversible, heritable change in gene expression that occurs without mutations?
A. Carcinogen
B. Epigenetic modification
C. Epiplasia
D. Mutagen
```
B. Epigenetic modification
47
```
Which of the following involves DNA methylation and histone modifications to cause changes in gene expression?
A. Phenotypic dominance
B. Epigenetics
C. Genetic Karyotyping
D. Allelic aneuploidy
```
B. Epigenetics
48
MicroRNAs _____ gene expression and may be increased or reduced in their function.
A. Stimulate
B. Inhibit
B. Inhibit
49
Epigenetic modifications may not alter cellular appearance and function (phenotype), but mutations can. T/F
False
50
Over time, tumors become more aggressive and less responsive to therapy. T/F
True
51
Cancer cells may develop self-sufficiency by acquiring the ability to synthesize the same growth factors to which they are responsive. T/F
True
52
Cancer cells can become self-sufficient by becoming hyperresponsive to external growth factors by altering growth factors. T/F
True
53
```
Which of the following is a rate-limiting step in he cell cycle that is commonly referred to as a restriction point?
A. G0-G1 phase
B. G1-S phase
C. S-G2 phase
D. S-G0 phase
```
B. G1-S Phase
54
The activation of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKI) proteins will _____ the cell cycle.
A. Speed up
B. Slow down
B. Slow Down
55
ALL cancers have genetic mutations that disable the G1-S phase checkpoint of the cell cycle. T/F
True
56
Inactivation of the RB gene requires alterations to both of the normal RB gene alleles. T/F
True
57
```
The RB protein regulates the ______
A. G1-S phase
B. G2-G3 phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
```
A. G1-S phase
58
Human papillomavirus may encode proteins that bind to RB proteins and render them nonfunctional. T/F
True
59
```
The TP53 gene is an example of a(n) ________.
A. Proto-oncogene
B. Oncogene
C. Tumor suppressor gene
D. Oncovirus
```
C. Tumor suppressor gene
60
```
If DNA damage is detected, the products of the TP53 gene stimulate cellular arrest in which phase of the cell cycle?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
```
A. G1
61
```
The TP53 gene is not involved with ____.
A. Temporary cell cycle arrest
B. Permanent cell cycle arrest
C. Necrosis
D. Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
```
C. Necrosis
62
```
Which of the following is a common example of a virus that can nullify the protective function of the TP53 gene?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Hepatitis B Virus
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. Rotavirus
```
B. Hepatitis B virus
63
The ________ involves the activation of caspase-8 to initiate apoptosis.
A. Extrinsic (death receptor) pathway
B. Intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathway
A. Extrinsic (death receptor) pathway
64
```
Many tumors metastasize to the organ that presents the first ____ they encounter after entering circulation.
A. Skeletal muscle tissue
B. Parenchyma
C. Inflammatory reaction
D. Capillary bed
```
D. Capillary bed
65
Dicentric Chromosomes are likely to be formed if p53 is present. T/F
False
66
Virtually all cancers ______
A. produce their own growth factors
B. Metastasize
C. Resist Apoptosis
C. Resist Apoptosis
67
Cancer cells rarely (
False
68
```
In order to grow beyond _____ in diameter, tumor cells must stimulate angiogenesis.
A. 1-2 mm
B. 5-6 mm
C. 1-2 cm
D. 5-6 cm
```
A. 1-2 mm
69
```
Tumors can stimulate angiogenesis using ______.
A. Existing capillaries
B. Endothelial Precursor Cells
C. Hemotogenous stem cells
D. A and B
```
D. A Existing capillaries and B Endothelial Precursor Cells
70
```
What is the "glue" that holds epithelial cells together, which must be inactivated to initiate migration of a tumor cell?
A. G-protein
B. TP53
C. Whey proteins
D. E-cadherin
```
D. E-cadherin
71
Once in circulation, aggregated tumor cells may be afforded protection from antitumor cells. T/F
True
72
```
Microsatellite instability (MSI) is associated with which of the following?
A. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
B. Leiomyoma of the uterus
C. Xeroderma pigmentosum
D. Breast cancer
```
A. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
73
```
Patients with Xeroderma pigmentosum have an inherited defect in which DNA repair system?
A. Mismatch repair
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Homologous recombination repair
D. Weinert-Marchiori repair
```
B. Nucleotide excision repair
74
```
When cancer cells transition to aerobic glycolysis, the phenomenon is called the _____.
A. Pentose-Phosphate pathway
B. Warburg effect
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Cori cycle
```
B. Warburg effect
75
Patients with chronic gastrointestinal inflammation have a(n) _____ risk of developing cancer.
A. Increased
B. Decreased
A. Increased
76
```
The chemical carcinogen aflatoxin B1 produces a "signiture mutation" on the _____ gene.
A. APP
B. TP53
C. RB
D. Hepatitis C
```
B. TP53
77
Direct-acting chemical carcinogens must be metabolized by the body prior to carcinogenic effects. T/F
False
78
```
Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Human T cell lyphotrophic virus
C. Human Immunodeficiency virus
D. Human paopllomavirus
```
B. Human T cell lymphotrophic virus
79
```
Hepatitis B or C infections are associated with ___ of all cases of hepatocellular carcinoma.
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 80%
D. 99%
```
C. 80%
80
```
Epstein-Barr viral infections may contribute to oncogenesis by stimulating ____ proliferation.
A. Monocyte
B. T cells
C. Cytokines
D. B cells
```
D. B cells
81
Natural killer cells act as a first line of defense against tumor cells and require previous tumor cell sensitization. T/F
False
82
Unexplained weight loss, muscle atrophy, hypermetabolic state associated with end-stage cancer is known as ____
A. Anorexia
B. Catabolic Atrophy
C. Cachexia
C. Cachexia
83
```
Symptom complexes that occur within cancer pateints that cannot be explained by the effects of a tumor cell appear in ____ of patients.
A. 1%
B. 15%
C. 85%
D. 99%
```
B. 15%
84
Which of the following has been shown to have greater clinical value?
A. Cancer grading
B. Cancer staging
B. Cancer staging
85
```
Breast cancer may stimulate parathyroid hormone, resulting in ______.
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Hypercoagulability
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Septicemia
```
C. Hypercalcemia
86
```
During surgery, a surgeon is likely to request a ___ to evaluate histological features of a tissue.
A. Fine needle aspiration
B. Cytologic smear of shed cells
C. Gene expression profiling
D. Frozen section
```
B. Cytologic smear of shed cells
