Chapter 6 Flashcards
SOP/Gs are part of: (289) A. a response procedure. B. predetermined procedures. C. risk-based response models. D. the incident action plan (IAP)
B
What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents? (290) A. Decreased accountability B. Increased chaos on scene C. Size-up becomes unnecessary D. Effective command and contro
D
The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply
to: (291)
A. fire and rescue operations.
B. all emergency services organizations.
C. civilian and emergency responder victims.
D. emergency responders entering the hot zone
B
What is the second priority for hazmat incidents? (291)
A. Life safety
B. Incident stabilization
C. Avoidance of publicity
D. Protection of property and the environment
B
Which statement about incident priorities is MOST accurate? (291)
A. Incidents usually do not evolve or change.
B. Once the IC establishes priorities, they should not change.
C. The first and most important incident priority is always societal
restoration.
D. You should never risk your life to save property that is
replaceable or cannot be saved
D
Assessing the incident’s conditions to recognize cues that indicate
problems or potential problems is called: (293)
A. size-up.
B. safety checks.
C. hazard assessment.
D. preincident planning
A
Like size-up, hazard and risk assessment is: (293) A. often a formality. B. a continual evaluation. C. unique to hazmat incidents. D. completed before plan implementation
B
Hazard and risk assessment starts: (293) A. during size-up. B. during pre-incident planning. C. when setting incident priorities. D. when developing response objectives
B
Which statement about hazard and risk assessment is MOST
accurate? (294)
A. An initial assessment is based on all possible conditions.
B. If only limited information is available, initial assessments
should be postponed.
C. An initial assessment should be updated as additional
information becomes available.
D. The resources available to hazmat teams mean that a full,
accurate picture of the incident will always be available
C
Which type of information is generally NOT needed for hazard and risk assessment? (294-295) A. Weather B. Time of day C. Names of victims D. Number and type of injuries
C
Which of the following is the BEST example of a question that
emergency responders should consider during the initial survey?
(296)
A. What did we do right?
B. How can we improve?
C. Has a similar incident happened elsewhere?
D. How much time has elapsed since the incident began
D
What information is generally NOT a variable to be considered when
considering a rescue operation at a hazmat incident? (296)
A. Who the victim is
B. Probability of rescue
C. Constraints of time and distance
D. Available escape routes and safe havens
A
After the material has been identified, written references such as
safety data sheets (SDSs) will MOST likely be used to determine:
(296)
A. where the material is going.
B. environmental conditions present.
C. the spread and concentration of material.
D. health and physical hazards presented by the material
D
Situational awareness can BEST be described as: (297)
A. incident size-up.
B. making decisions with limited information.
C. classifying incidents based on size and scope.
D. interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes
D
What is one of the greatest barriers to maintaining situational awareness on scene? (297) A. Limited information B. Competing priorities C. Dangerous conditions D. Making methodical decisions
B
The lowest level of situational awareness is: (298) A. perception. B. application. C. distraction. D. comprehension
A
Fixation may lead to the loss of situational awareness by: (298)
A. receiving two or more pieces of information that do not agree.
B. losing focus of the original mission without appropriate
rationale.
C. focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of
all others.
D. obtaining a false sense of comfort based on a misconception of
the hazard, risk, or situation
C
What will help to maintain situational awareness? (299)
A. Communicate the desired course of action.
B. Do not monitor crew member performance.
C. Provide operation information only as the need arises.
D. Communicate the mission’s status only when directly asked
A
A leak from a domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter is generally considered a: (299) A. Level I incident. B. Level II incident. C. Level III incident. D. non hazmat incident
A
A Level II incident: (300)
A. will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.
B. does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.
C. is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.
D. requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal
agencies, and/or private industry
C
What type of incident requires unified command? (300) A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level IV
C
Successful handling of a Level III incident requires a collective effort,
including unique outside resources such as: (301)
A. mutual aid fire departments.
B. emergency medical services.
C. local law enforcement agencies.
D. specialists from industry and governmental agencies
D
Which of the following BEST describes the three modes of operation?
(303)
A. Modes of operation determine incident priorities at an incident.
B. The mode of operation may change during the course of an
incident.
C. Only one mode of operation should be used at an incident in
order to avoid confusion.
D. They are based on the assumption that responders should
interfere with incidents as little as possible
B
Nonintervention operations, or not taking any direct action at in
incident, is: (303)
A. always the safest course of action.
B. a poor strategy and used as a last resort.
C. the only safe strategy in many types of incidents.
D. the best strategy when mitigation is successful and straight-
forward
C
A nonintervention mode is MOST likely to be selected when: (304)
A. there is a slight risk of an explosion.
B. the incident requires additional support units.
C. the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders.
D. responders have the training and equipment necessary to
confine the incident to the area of origin
C
Defensive operations are those in which: (304)
A. serious container damage threatens a massive release.
B. responders take aggressive, direct action on the incident.
C. personnel evacuate the area and withdraw to a safe distance.
D. responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area
without directly contacting the hazardous material
D
Which of the following is considered a defensive action? (305)
A. Protecting exposures
B. Plugging a container leak
C. Overpacking a nonbulk container
D. Isolating the hazard area and denying entry
A
Offensive operations are: (306)
A. those in which responders will never come into contact with the
material.
B. sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first
responders and require highly trained personnel.
C. the best strategy in certain types of incidents when mitigation is
failing or otherwise impossible.
D. those in which responders seek to confine the emergency to a
given area without directly contacting the hazardous materials
involved
B
At hazmat/WMD incidents, response models are used to: (306-307)
A. simplify the problem-solving process.
B. decide which incident management system to use.
C. gather information on the incident after it has been terminated.
D. maintain a consistent understanding of the problem even if
conditions change
A
Which of the following is an example of a response model? (307) A. APIE B. HAZWOPER C. SARA or PHSMA D. 29 CFR 1910.120
A
Equipping responders with the critical information that is needed to
make good decisions, while not overwhelming them with nice-to-
know information is the key to: (308)
A. risk-based response.
B. risk monitoring and detection.
C. response model implementation.
D. product identification and control
A
Which of the following statements about product identification and
risk-based response is MOST accurate? (309)
A. Risk-based response requires all products on scene to be
identified.
B. If the product cannot be identified, risk-based response is not
recommended.
C. Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous
materials incidents.
D. Product identification is not a vital element in successful
mitigation of a hazmat incident
C
Risk-based response starts with a thorough size-up and identifying
the _____ so that decisions can be made in a logical and educated
manner. (309)
A. specific product
B. immediate hazards
C. secondary exposures
D. product control techniques
B
Which of the following BEST describes an incident action plan (IAP)?
(309)
A. A specific operation performed in a specific order to accomplish
the goals of the response objective
B. A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to
address all phases of incident control within a specified time
C. A detailed but flexible series of response objectives that
describe contingencies for all possible incident outcomes
D. A series of recommendations that follow best practices on
determining the extent of risks and hazards present at an
incident
B
Action planning starts with identifying the: (309)
A. hazardous materials involved at the incident.
B. resources available at the scene of the incident.
C. action options that will detail tasks assigned to specific
responders.
D. response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the
confronted problems
D
Which of the following is NOT an element of an incident action plan (IAP)? (309-310) A. Status of injuries B. Exposure reports C. Hazard statement D. Protective measures
B
Which responder will need to develop and implement an incident
action plan (IAP)? (310)
A. The highest ranking officer on scene
B. A first responder assuming the role of IC
C. Anyone trained to Hazardous Material Technician level
D. The first responder assigned to the Operations section
B
What word BEST describes response objectives? (310) A. Tactics B. Options C. Strategies D. Action plan
C
Response objectives are _____ of what must be done to resolve an
incident, while action options are _____ that must be done in order
to accomplish those goals. (310)
A. list of actions; risk assessments
B. risk assessments; hazard mitigations
C. specific operations; broad statements
D. broad statements; specific operations
D
Which of the following criteria is used to select response objectives?
(310)
A. Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths
B. Its ability to correctly identify the product involved
C. Its ability to determine the proper course of action
D. Its ability to restrict unknown hazards to a minimum
A
One principle of risk-based response is that activities that are
routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as _____
risks to the safety of members. (310)
A. inherent
B. unknown
C. significant
D. unacceptable
A
Which of the following is a common response objective? (311)
A. Documentation
B. Monitoring and detection
C. Crime scene and evidence preservation
D. Implementation of an incident command system
C
What are the specific tactics that are used to accomplish response objectives? (311) A. Strategies B. Action options C. Incident action plans (IAPs) D. Risk-based response principles
B
Which of the following actions are considered to be part of
identifying action options? (314)
A. Performing product identification
B. Determining the size and scope of the incident
C. Performing emergency decontamination operations
D. Determining the need for personal protective equipment
D
Which of the following statements about determining the need for
emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate? (314)
A. Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat
incidents.
B. Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to
a hazardous material.
C. Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal
protective equipment or clothing.
D. Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a
hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities
A
Exposure is the process by which: (314)
A. emergency decontamination is performed.
B. hazardous materials are transferred out of the hot zone to the
cold zone.
C. people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected
to, or come in contact with, a material.
D. hazardous material transfer to persons, equipment, and the
environment in greater than acceptable quantities
C
