Chapter 7: Instruments Flashcards by Ryan Sandoval

T or F. The T38 HUD is a certified primary flight reference (PFR) and may be used as a standalone
reference for instrument flight.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

General flow for solid instrument cross-check (4 steps) using control and performance concept

A. Establish an attitude and power setting on the control instruments
B. Trim until control pressures are neutralized
C. Cross-check performance instruments
D. Adjust attitude and power setting and restart cycle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pitch picture for once airborne for an Instrument Takeoff

7 degrees nose high on the bore sight cross

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Normal power setting for climb schedule for instrument and navigation departures

Restricted MIL power climb schedule

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Recommended level off technique with “low or moderate climb or descent rates”

Begin the level off at 10 percent of the vertical velocity reading

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Recommended level off technique with “vertical velocity greater than 6000 fpm”

Reduce the pitch attitude by one-half at 2,000 ft prior to level-off, and then use the 10% concept

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Arc and radial intercept techniques are based on making a ____ degree turn, using ____ degrees of bank in ____ conditions.

90, 30, no-wind

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Two techniques for calculating turn radius lead points for the T-38 in miles

A. Higher airspeeds (greater than 300 KCAS): Mach number - 2

B. Slower airspeeds: 1% Groundspeed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To adjust for less than 90 degrees of turn for a arc/radial intercepts, what are the correction factors
for 60, 45, and 30 degrees of turn?

A. 60: 1/2
B. 45: 1/3
C. 30: 1/6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What airspeed and configuration are vertical “S” maneuvers flown at?

A. Various

B. Normally, use a vertical velocity of 1000 to 2000 fpm and a 1000 ft altitude block

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How can you calculate expected vertical velocity change per 1 degree of pitch change at various
airspeeds?

IMN * 1000 = VVI change for a 1 degree pitch change

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What airspeed and bank angle are steep turns flown at?

A. Various airspeeds

B. 45 to 60 degrees of bank

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

T or F. In the T-38, the EHSI makes lead points for rollout negligible, usually less than 5 degrees.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Airspeed and power setting for instrument aileron roll.

Minimum of 300 KCAS and 85% RPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Is it legal to proceed direct to a radial/DME fix using the old school fix-to-fix procedure?

No… proceeding direct to a radial/DME fix is not a basic requirement to operate in the NAS
not does it comply with FAA accepted practices and procedures

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

T or F. When proceeding direct to a fix with EGI, approaching the fix, EGI can be used as the
secondary navigation source using the ground track (GT) pointer centered on the EGI pointer to
proceed direct.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does WHOLDS stand for?

W - weather (get ATIS and check against approach/pilot weather mins)

H - holding or heading and attitude systems

O - obtain clearance for the approach

L - letdown plate review / lost comm (coordinate if required)

D - descent check

S - speeds; calculate final approach speed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When should you slow down prior to holding?

ATC expects you to slow to holding speed no earlier than 3 minutes prior to the holding fix

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

251 technique for when to begin reducing speed prior to a holding fix

5-10 miles

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Approximately ___ RPM will hold 250-265 KCAS in level flight

88-90%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

251 technique for no-wind starting point for holding

360 divided by DME equals the number of radials displacement desired at the outbound DME

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Enroute descent: mathematical gradient technique

Altitude to lose (in thousands) divided by the distance to travel (in NM) equals the number of
degrees of pitch change

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Enroute descent calculation: visualizing the descent technique

A. Designate the 10-degree nose-low line on the EADI as the distance to travel
B. Then visually determine where the altitude-to-lose (thousands of ft) falls between the level
flight line and the 10-degrees dive line

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During the initial portion of a high altitude descent - or if the potential for icing exists - consider
power settings of at least ____.

80% RPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Enroute descent: 200-250 feet/nm descent pitch/power

2 to 2.5 degrees, 20 to 25 percent nozzles, clean

Enroute descent: 300 ft/nm descent pitch/power

3 degrees, 30 percent nozzles, clean

Enroute descent: 500 ft/nm pitch power

80%, 5 degrees NL

Enroute descent: 700 ft/nm pitch power

Idle, 7 degrees NL

Enroute descent: 1000 ft/nm pitch power

80%, 10 degrees NL, boards

Enroute descent: 1300 ft/nm pitch power

IDLE, 13 degrees NL, boards

Penetrations are normally flown at ___ KCAS. Can you fly them at other speeds? Why?

A. 300 B. You may fly the penetration at a slower speed - or slow down early - if factors like a relatively short penetration or a low-DME arc make it smarter to do so

When intercepting final for a precision approach, you should be slowed to ___ to ___ KCAS no later than _____ or approximately ____ to ____ NM from touchdown. ____ to ____ RPM will hold these airspeeds.

240 to 260 KCAS, dogleg to final, 10 to 15 NM, 85 to 87 percent

On an ILS, what two things should you do no later than commencing the turn to final

A. Select ILS as the PNS | B. See the published front course

(ILS) If established on a dogleg to final within ____ degrees of the final course, starting the turn to final as the CDI begins to move should allow a comfortable intercept without overshooting final.

Configure the aircraft approximately __ to ___ NM prior to the FAF

2 to 5

Prior to the FAF, power settings between __ and __percent RPM will hold final approach airspeed in level flight with gear and full flaps

93 to 95

Prior to the FAF, power settings between __ and __ percent RPM will hold final approach airspeed in level flight with gear and 60% flaps

90 to 91

At final approach speeds, you are traveling at approximately ___ to ___ NM/min so a 3 degree pitch change will produce a vertical velocity of about ___ to ___ fpm

2.5 to 3 750 to 900

On a PAR, when does the precision final approach officially begin? (2 things)

A. Within range of the precision radar | B. Contact is established with the final controller

On a PAR, bank angles of ___ degrees or less are sufficient for small, controlled heading changes. If called “below” or “above” glide path, use pitch corrections of ____ on the EADI with corresponding ___ RPM changes

5, 1, 1

On a PAR, if called “well-above” or “well-below” glide path, use pitch corrections up to ___ with corresponding ____ power changes.

2, 2-3

If you follow the glide path of a precision approach down through minimums to a landing, your touchdown point will be approximately ____ feet down the runway.

2000

If intercepting a VORTAC final from an arc ___ to ___ NM from the field, normally a __ degree lead radial provides a comfortable intercept to final.

12 to 15 NM, 10 degree

Once established on a dogleg to a VORTAC final, approximately ___ to ___ degrees of CDI deflection should provide a good point to turn to intercept final.

3 to 4

On a non-precision final, the FAF, or when directed (radar), lower the nose about __ to ___ degrees on the EADI. Reduce power by approximately ___ percent RPM. Normally, a descent rate of ____ to ___ fpm will ensure you arrive at the MDA prior to the VDP.

4 to 5 degrees, 10 percent RPM, 1200 to 1500 fpm

On a non-precision final, if runway environment is in sight at the VDP and the aircraft is in a safe position to land, a ___ degree nose-down pitch change along with ____ should set up a transition to landing for the normal landing zone.

3 degree, a slight power reduction

Auto RNP for Enroute phase of flight

5.0 NM

Auto-RNP for Terminal phase of flight

1.0 NM

Auto-RNP for Approach phase of flight

0.3

How will pilots ensure the nav database is current?

By checking the DTS tab on the MDP and confirming the ICAO dates are valid

T or F. You can fly a published RNAV approach compatible with T-38C capabilities even if the approach is not loaded in the database. The approach must be manually entered into the flight plan exactly as it appears in the FLIP.

False. Only those approaches included in the database are authorized.

T or F. All published STARs, SIDs, and IAPs compatible with T-38c capabilities are included in the DAFIF database.

False. Just because there is an rnav procedure in the FLIP does not mean it will be in the DAFIF database

The DAFIF database for T-38C RNAV filters procedures according to the following criterea (3 things)

1. RWY >= 6000' 2. Cat D or E straight-in with LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minimums or 2. 5. GPS in the title

Is it necesary to use paper copies of RNAV procedures when flying them?

A paper copy of the applicable (RNAV) procedure must ALWAYS be used AND CROSSCHECKED in the terminal environment.

Prior to commencing an RNAV procedure, what information must be confirmed from the DAFIF database? (5 things)

1. Waypoint name 2. Waypoint type 3. Sequence 4. Course distance 5. Altitudes

When varifying database information for RNAV procedures, final course and distance tolerances may differ by up to ____ degrees and ____ NM respectively and still be flown.

5 degrees, .1 NM

When varifying database information for RNAV procedures, if there is a difference between waypoint altitude in the database and on the published FLIP, can the procedure be flown?

Yes, use the charted procedure for all altitude references in this case, and report the difference as a database error

Will the DAFIF database ensure you are clear of stepdown altitudes on an LNAV/VNAV approach?

IAP procedures from the DAFIF database do not always include step down fixes between the FAWP and MAWP. Pilots will comply with step down fixes as depicted on the approach plate!

Sometimes STARs and SIDs will not show specific course, altitude, and distance information in the DAFIF TERM PROC when retrieved for comparison. This doesn't stop you from flying it. But what should you do if deviations are determined beyond stated tolerances at any time during the procedure?

Discontinue the procedure

Is the T-38C authorized to conduct RNP procedures?

No. Not currently

What is the restriction on RNAV substitution for an out of service NAVAID on a conventional procedure

You can do it. But only for DME. Bearing and radial guidance not accurate due to the T-38 EGI not compensating for the applied magnetic variation of the substituted NAVAID

Is Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor (RAIM) required for use of GPS in IFR navigation? If so, how would you check it?

Yes. Absense of a PFL

Is it required to check PRAIM?

Yes. Pilots must check PRAIM prior to departure when possible.

When is PRAIM automatically checked in the T-38C? How do you know if it checks good?

1. When an IAP is first loaded - MDP uses 1+15 as the planned ETE 2. When the aircraft is steering to and within 4 NM of the FAWP - actual airspeed and track are used to determine ETE Absense of a PFL

Will the HUD indicate what phase of flight you are in (Terminal/Approach/Enroute) or do you need to check the MFD?

The HUD will indicate when in the Terminal (TRM) and Approach (APR) phases of flight

What are the primary displays for RNAV terminal procedures in order to comply with the accuracy mandated by CDI scaling? Is selection of HSD or SIT allowed?

PFR or HUD HSD / SIT are not primary displays, however, momentary selection of HSD or SIT may be used to augment situational awareness

What must pilots do with regard to RNP/CDI scaling and phase of flight?

Verify the displayed RNP/CDI scaling is correct.

Required RNP when flying a Q or T route

2 NM

Required RNP for flying a Terminal Procedure (> 30 nm)

1 NM

What are the two times you will need to manually adjust RNP?

1. Q or T routes | 2. Terminal procedures outside of 30 NM from the airfield

If manual CDI scaling is required, when should the system be returned to automatic scaling?

When the need for manual override has passed...

How do you return to automatic CDI scaling from manual scaling?

Input 0.0 into the RNP window on the UFCP EGI page

What NOTAMs are pilots required to check preflight (6 things)

1. Departure airfield 2. Drop in airfield 3. Destination airfield 4. Alternate airfield 5. DAFIF 6. GPS

What form must be filed for RNAV routing in domestic airspace including RNAV SIDs, and STARs?

DD FORM 1801

When RNAV Q and T routes are flown, pilots will: (4 things)

1. Load the route points as FBY in a conventional flight plan 2. Use automatic waypoint (WP) sequencing 3. Set CDI sensitivity to 2 NM and remain within full-scale deflection on the route and during turns at WPs 4. Select and follow FD indications

Can you fly a SID/STAR without RNAV in the title using RNAV?

Yes, as long as the procedure is found in DAFIF

If you are loading an RNAV SID/STAR and you delete a WP, what must you do if you subsequently need to use that waypoint?

Reload the entire procedure

Most RNAV holding patterns have leg lengths shorter than T38 can fly comfortably. The technique of using a ___ degree teardrop will approximate required displacement to intercept inbound course.

45 degree

On an RNAV TAA, when can you descend? And what should you remember to do if using SUSP to proceed direct to an IF along a specific course?

Descend upon procedure clearance and depicted distances from the IAF Ensure you subsequently deselect SUSP to allow WP sequencing

What is different about the "Vectors" option offered when loading an RNAV IAP?

The vectors option typically drops transition and IAF waypoints to shorten the procedure in the FPL Typically SUSP off the FAWP and set the final approach course.

When should you deselect SUSP?

On an intercept heading and within 90 degrees of final

When recieving radar vectors to GPS final approach, when are you "established on course"?

When you are within 1 dot (half scale deflection)

Final course and distance tolerances may differ by ____ degrees and ___ NM respectively and still be flown, and the RNP needs to be ___ NM no later than ___.

5, 0.1, 0.3, FAWP

LNAV approaches normally show a VDP along final which places the aircraft at the ____ at the MAWP (if the MAWP is located at runway threshold)

TCH - Threshold Crossing Height

VNAV glidepath indications will appear when steering to the ____ and within ___, and are similar to an ILS display but will be ____.

FAWP, 4nm, Blue

On a VNAV, one increment above or below glideslope is equal to ___.

75 feet

2 additional reasons you might have to perform a Missed Approach on an RNAV approach, and what should you do for each respectively?

1. You do not receive APR sensitivity at 4 NM prior to the FAWP - Attempt to coordinate a new clearance. If this is not possible, no not descend from the FAWP altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute the MAP 2. You lose RAIM after starting your descent inside the FAWP - immediately climb to the MAWP altitude via the MAP instructions

What do you need to do after executing a climb, retracting gear and flaps, and making the radio call on an RNAV missed approach? What is the exeption to this rule?

You must manually advance the EGI steerpoint past the MAWP (inc-dec forward) An important exeption is if there is a CA (course to altitude) leg. In this case, the WP will automatically sequence once the altitude associated with that WP is exceeded.

Circling is accomplished at ___ airspeed and ___ flap setting.

Final Turn Airspeed, 60% flaps

Do not descend below the MDA until ___.

in a position to place the aircraft on a normal glidepath to the landing runway

Displacement from runway for circling maneuvers requiring a downwind leg?

1.5 NM

2 techniques mentioned in 251 for circling 180 degrees or to the opposite direction

1. Turn 45 degrees from runway until you have flown your desired displacement distance down the runway 2. Two 90 degree turns using desired final turn bank angle

To circle 270 degrees, fly past the runway ___ seconds.

15 seconds

If you are cleared to sidestep where there are no published sidestep MDAs, what should you use for weather minima?

Use circling minima. Clearance to sidestep will be issued by tower.

Maintain __ airspeed throughout a sidestep maneuver

final approach airspeed

When may you begin a sidestep maneuver?

Anytime after the landing runway is in sight and inside the FAF

Power setting and attitude for missed approach initial action

MIL, 5 degrees NH

When can gear and flaps be retracted on a missed appoach?

2 climbing

After retracting the gear and flaps on a missed approach, accelerate to and maintain ______ KCAS in a positive climb until reaching missed approach altitude.

240 to 300

When can power be reduced to slow the rate of climb on a missed approach?

240 KCAS

What is something you should check after advancing the power to MIL on a missed approach?

Speed brake retracted

What should you do on a single engine missed approach?

Apply single engine go-around boldface. Use extreme caution in attempting to attain 5 degrees above last level flight pitch attitude...

What should you do if a circling maneuver has been started and the airport environment is visually lost?

Perform a missed approach for the runway to which the approach was flown

Chapter 7: Instruments Flashcards

(103 cards)