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My Notes of CISSP CBK > Chapter 7 - Security Operations > Flashcards

Chapter 7 - Security Operations Flashcards

1
Q

In the even of a security incident, one of the primary objectives of operations staff is to ensure that: A. the attackers are detected and stopped B. there is minimal disruption to the organization’s mission C. appropriate documentation about the event is maintaqined as chain of evidence D. the affected systems are immediately shut off to limit to the impact

A

B. there is minimal disruption to the organization’s mission

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2
Q

Assuming a working IDS is in place, which of the following groups is best capable of stealing sensitive information due to the abscence of system auditing? A. Malicious software B. Hacker or cracker C. Disgruntled employee D. Auditors

A

C. Disgruntled employee

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3
Q

Which of the following provides controlled and un-intercepted interfaces into privliged user functions? A. Ring protection B. Anti-malware C. Maintenance hooks D. Trusted paths

A

D. Trusted paths

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4
Q

The doors of a data center spring open in the event of a fire. This is an example of A. Fail-safe B. Fail-secure C. Fail-proof D. Fail-closed

A

A. Fail-safe

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5
Q

Which of the following ensures constant redundancy and fault tolerance? A. Cold spare B. Warm spare C. Hot spare D. Archives

A

C. Hot spare

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6
Q

If speed is preferred over resilience, which of the following raid configuration is the best choice? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10

A

A. RAID 0

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7
Q

Updating records in multiple locations or copying an entire database to a remote location as a means to ensure the appropriate levels of fault tolerance and redundancy is known as A. Data mirroring B. Shadowing C. Back up D. Archiving

A

B. Shadowing

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8
Q

When the backup window is not long enough to backup all of the data and sthe restoration of backup must be as fast as possible, which of the following types of high-availability backup strategy is best? A. Full B. Incremental C. Differential D. Increase the backup window so a full backup can be performed

A

C. Differential

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9
Q

At a restricted facility, visitors are requested to provide identification and verified against a pre-approved list by the guard at the front gate before being let in. This is an example of checking for: A. Least privilege B. Separation of duties C. Fail-safe D. Psychological acceptability

A

A. Least privilege

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10
Q

The major benefit of information classification is to: A. map out the computing ecosystem B. identify the threats and vulnerabilities C. determine the software baseline D. identify the appropriate level of protection needs

A

D. identify the appropriate level of protection needs

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11
Q

When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within scope of a record retention policy, that information is best: A. Destroyed B. Re-categorized C. Degaussed D. Released

A

B. Re-categorized

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12
Q

The main benefit of placing users into groups and roles is: A. ease of user administration B. Increased security C. Ease of programmatic access D. Increased automation

A

A. ease of user administration

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13
Q

Which of the following best determines access and suitability of an individual? A. job rank and title B. partnership with the security team C. role D. background investigation

A

D. background investigation

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14
Q

Reports must be specific on both the message and which of the following? A. Intended audience B. Delivery options C. Colors used D. print layout

A

A. Intended audience

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15
Q

Which of the following can help with ensuring that only the needed logs are collected for monitoring? A. clipping level B. Aggreagation C. XML Parsing D. Inference

A

A. clipping level

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16
Q

The main difference between a Security Event Information System and a log management system is that SEIM systems are usefull for log collection, collation and analysis: A. real time B. for historical purposes C. for admissibility in court D. in discerning patterns

A

A. real time

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17
Q

When normal traffic is flagged as an attack, it is an example of: A. Fail-safe B. Fail-secure C. False-negative D. False-positive

A

D. False-positive

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18
Q

The best way to ensure that there is not data remance of sensitive information that was once stored on a dvd-r media is by: A. Deletion B. Degaussing C. Destruction D. Overwriting

A

C. Destruction

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19
Q

Which of the following processes is concerned with not only identifying and addressing the root cause but also addressing the underlying issue: A. Incident management B. Problem management C. Change management D. Configuration management

A

B. Problem management

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20
Q

Before applying a software update tp production systems, it is most important that: A. full disclosure information about the threat that the patch addresses is available B. The patching process is documented C. The production systems are backed up D. An independent third party attests the validity of the patch

A

C. The production systems are backed up

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21
Q

Least privilege

A

no more access than necessary to perform a job

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22
Q

need to know

A

defines the minimum for least privilege

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23
Q

Privilieged accounts

A

root/builtin adminstrator accounts; service accounts; administrator accounts, and power user accounts

24
Q

system administrator

A

highest level of privilege on most systems, managing systems operations and maintenance

25
Q

operators

A

typically were mainframe system users, schedule jobs to run effectively and troubleshoot problems, load/unload tapes and result of job print runs, reassignment of ports and lines

26
Q

security administrator

A

oversight for security operations, acct managment, assignment of labels, system security settings and review of audit logs

27
Q

job rotations

A

reduce the risk of collusion of activities between individuals - also provides back up coverage, succession planning, and job enrichment opportunities

28
Q

information classification

A

group similar assets together and protect them based on common classification levels

29
Q

marking

A

labels should have sensitivity marking, whether or not encrypted, and maybe point of contact and retention period

30
Q

magnetic media

A

floppy disks, tapes, hard drives

31
Q

optical media

A

cd. dvd

32
Q

solid state media

A

flash drive and memory cards

33
Q

hard copy

A

paper, microfiche

34
Q

original media

A

should be controlled thru a software librarian

35
Q

inventory scans of installed software

A

should be conducted to identify unauthorized installations or license violations

36
Q

IDS

A

maybe deployed out of band - will not affect processes or cause latency, but attacks will likely reach their intended target

37
Q

IPS

A

in-line, cause some latency and slow down processes, but affected attacks will not likely reach their intended target

38
Q

signature or pattern matching systems

A

matches known attacks

39
Q

protocol anomaly based systems

A

network traffic confirms to the defined standard for that protocol

40
Q

statistical anomaly based system

A

establish baseline, detect deviations

41
Q

Security Event Information Management (SEIM)

A

provides common platform for log collection, collation, and analysis in real-time to allow for more effective and efficient response

42
Q

containment strategy

A

need to preserve forensic evidence, availability of services, damage leaving affected component in place, time required for containment strategy to be efective, resources needed to contain

43
Q

forensic evidence

A

obtain image of ram and hard drive, then determine how to mitigate

44
Q

US COmputer Emergency Readiness Team (US-CERT)

A

Government agaencies must report breach of PII within an hour of discovery

45
Q

configuration management

A

process of identifying and dcoumenting hardware components, software, and the associated settings

46
Q

Fail-safe

A

focus on failing with a minimum of harm to personnel or systems

47
Q

Fail-secure

A

focus on failing in a controlled manner to block access while the system is in an inconsistent state

48
Q

NAS

A

simply store and serve files

49
Q

SAN

A

block level storage

50
Q

RAID 0

A

stripes across multiple disks without parity, fast reading, no redundancy

51
Q

RAID 1

A

Creates two indentical drives - data mirroring

52
Q

RAID 2

A

not used in practice - data spread across at bit level

53
Q

RAID 3/4

A

Strioing and redundancy in form of parity drive - RAID 3 - byte level - more efficient, RAID 4 - block level - faster

54
Q

RAID 5

A

Like RAID4 but parity is striped

55
Q

RAID 6

A

2 sets of parity, allows for failure of 2 drives, less performance, not frequently used

56
Q

Electronic vaulting

A

backing up system over network - separate location (vault site), sent in real time when implemented as a mirror

57
Q

Journaling

A

provides redundancy for transactions

My Notes of CISSP CBK (10 decks)

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