Chapter 9 -12 test questions Flashcards

1
Q

1) Figuring out what tactics one needs to use.

a) Thinking about cause-and-effect relationships.
b) Identifying significant stakeholders who will be involved in the change.
c) Figuring out what tactics one needs to use.
d) Focusing on a change strategy that will work in this situation.

A

A

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2
Q

2) Which phrase below will result in a working intervention hypothesis? “Designing a program for ex-offenders…”

a. For both men and women.”
b. And getting community buy-in.”
c. Including hardcore criminals.”
d. Will facilitate finding job opportunities.”

A

d

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3
Q

3) A specific statement of series of statements proposing a relationship between an intervention and a result of outcome is the definition of

a. A program design.
b. A hypothesis.
c. An etiology.
d. A research approach.

A

b

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4
Q

4) A working intervention hypothesis is most useful because it

a. Represents everyone’s perspective.
b. Must be approved and adhere to regardless of what happens.
c. Will mobilize people to make the change.
d. Guides the change and can be altered as new perspectives come on board.

A

d

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5
Q

1) “A temporary collaboration of individuals and groups that share the desire to make a change that they could not do with individual resources alone” defines

a. An alliance.
b. A coalition
c. A collective
d. A collaboration.

A

b

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6
Q

2) According to systems theory, when a system expires without being regenerated it is called

a. Expiration
b. Finality
c. Degeneration
d. Entropy

A

d

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7
Q

3) Persons or groups that begin to take the first steps toward change are called the

a. Initiator system
b. Deliberative system
c. Reflective system
d. Action system

A

a

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8
Q

4) Which system can be viewed as surrounding the client, initiator, and change agent system?

a. The controlling system
b. The host system
c. The macro system
d. The support system

A

d

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9
Q

5) The “controlling system”

a. Manages all phases of the intervention.
b. Has authority to approve implementation.
c. Controls the client and target systems.
d. Generally is the cause of the problem.

A

b

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10
Q

1) Luluquisen and Pettis (2014) suggest selecting “champions” in community change efforts because they

a. Have communication and relationship-building skills
b. Can be a representative of how the target population feels about the problem.
c. Have lived there all their lives.
d. Have the ability to manipulate community members to go along with the cause.

A

a

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11
Q

2) When is it particularly important to focus on team building and group development?

a. When there are strong personalities in the group.
b. When there is plenty of time to prepare for the change.
c. When the group has not worked together before or does not know one another well.
d. When the group disagrees on how to approach the change.

A

c

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12
Q

3) What does Hardina (2014) contend is neglected in the planned change process?

a. Feasible ideas
b. Funding
c. Policy concerns
d. Critical reflection

A

d

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13
Q

4) When there are intense feelings among team members, what is likely to be occurring?

a. People don’t like one another.
b. Ethical conflicts are occurring.
c. Group members are emotionally immature.
d. There are extreme views held by group members.

A

d

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14
Q

5) An approach that focuses on supporting and opposing forces is

a. Oppositional analysis
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Conflict theory
d. Force-field analysis

A

d

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15
Q

1) When decision-making bodies are challenged, they may feel the need to defend the reasons behind positions they have taken. Sometimes this leads to

a. Framing the situation differently
b. Becoming entrenched in their views
c. Fearing change
d. Disagreeing for the sake of disagreeing

A

b

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16
Q

2) In this chapter, politics means

a. Interactions among judicial, executive, and legislative branches
b. Participating in partisan rivalries and opportunities
c. Maintaining relationships with elected officials
d. The reasons and motivations behind individual responses to change.

A

d

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17
Q

3) In considering change, frequency refer to

a. The urgency of the problem.
b. The pace at which change can occur.
c. The number of times the condition is likely to occur within a given time frame.
d. The importance of the change opportunity.

A

c

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18
Q

4) Why do the authors say that cost is so relevant in preparing for change?

a. There may not be enough money to hire staff
b. Decision makers’ primary concern may be cost
c. Without a funding source, no change can be mounted
d. Social works must look for resources before considering change

A

b

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19
Q

5) What may be the most valuable statistic to calculate for comparative purposes in trying to convince decision makers to fund a new program?

a. The cost equivalency of in-kind contributions
b. The per-unit cost
c. The cost of personnel
d. The cost of doing nothing

A

d

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20
Q

1) Social workers advocate for part-time workers to qualify for healthcare benefits. This is a

a. Personnel change.
b. Program change.
c. Project change.
d. Policy change.

A

d

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21
Q

2) A short-term intervention designed to test a potential program idea would be a

a. Policy change.
b. Project change.
c. Personnel change.
d. Program change.

A

b

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22
Q

3) Personnel change may be particularly risky because

a. They challenge authority.
b. It’s hard to get people on board.
c. They can become highly contentious.
d. They are hard to initiate.

A

c

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23
Q

4) Why is a practice change without a policy mandate difficult to achieve?

a. One has to be dependent upon cooperation among colleagues.
b. There can be no practice change without an accompany policy change.
c. No one will follow through without policy to guide them.
d. Practice can’t change without further education and training.

A

a

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24
Q

5) What is the primary difference between a program and a project?

a. Projects are shorter term than programs.
b. Programs must be evaluated first before becoming a project.
c. Programs are funded, whereas projects are not funded.
d. Projects are more focused than programs.

A

a

25
Q

1) The overall efforts to ensure that a proposed change is accepted is known as

a. A strategy
b. An approach
c. A technique
d. A tactic

A

a

26
Q

2) Strategies are composed of multiple techniques and behaviors called

a. Modalities
b. Interventions
c. Tactics
d. Interactions

A

c

27
Q

3) A contest strategy is best used when

a. The action system wants to get everyone’s attention.
b. The target system is not open to further communication.
c. Change does not seem to be happening as soon as one would like.
d. Communication between the target and the change agent systems is frustrating.

A

b

28
Q

4) Education, persuasion, and mass media appeal are most often associated with which strategy?

a. Collaboration
b. Campaign
c. Contest
d. Conquest

A

b

29
Q

5) Researching and providing information and up to date statistics about a problem to decision makers are seen as what type of tactic?

a. Lobbying
b. Cooptation
c. Education
d. Media appeal

A

c

30
Q

6) Civil disobedience occurs when

a. The action system lobbies the state legislature.
b. A protest is mounted.
c. A class action suit is filed.
d. Members of the action system intentionally break a law.

A

d

31
Q

1) The logical model was originally developed to assist

a. The federal government in monitoring and evaluating grants.
b. State governments in monitoring and evaluating service providers.
c. The military in assessing national security.
d. The United Way in overseeing their programs.

A

a

32
Q

2) Instead of monitoring finances, the logic model shifts the emphasis to

a. Monitoring progress
b. Developing program budgets
c. Evaluating program outcomes.
d. Thinking about political considerations.

A

c

33
Q

3) GPRA stands for the

a. Government Productivity Results Act.
b. Grant Performance Results Act.
c. Government Performance Results Act.
d. Grant Productivity Results Act.

A

b

34
Q

4) In this chapter, the CSS intervention case is viewed as a project because it

a. Is not a personnel change.
b. Is shorter term than a program.
c. Seeks policy change.
d. Is a macro change.

A

b

35
Q

1) A well-stated goal focuses on

a. The outcome to be achieved.
b. The tactics to be used.
c. Costs and benefits associated with implementation.
d. Specific responsible persons and a timeframe.

A

a

36
Q

2) A process objective contains

a. An intermediate outcome.
b. Details about what needs to happen.
c. A working hypothesis.
d. Quality of life changes that need to occur.

A

b

37
Q

3) A quality-of-life change for the target population defines

a. An outcome objective.
b. Multiple goals advanced by the change agent.
c. Cost-demand accounting and program resources.
d. How an end foal has been completely achieved.

A

a

38
Q

4) In order to know whether an outcome has been achieved, outcome objectives should include the phrase “as measured by…” What part of the objective does this phrase refer to?

a. The timeframe for achieving results.
b. The goals to be achieved.
c. A criterion for measuring an objectives success.
d. Variables for the working intervention hypothesis.

A

c

39
Q

5) Specific details that flesh out what needs to happen in order to achieve a process objective are called

a. Measurements.
b. Criteria.
c. Activities.
d. Specifics.

A

c

40
Q

6) The following might be a result for the process objective:

a. Less stress.
b. Higher functioning.
c. Greater subjective wellbeing.
d. A completed report.

A

d

41
Q

7) A series of process objectives leads to

a. Funding.
b. A GANTT chart.
c. Every outcome objective.
d. A final evaluation.

A

c

42
Q

8) A flowchart depicts

a. Client flow through the system.
b. The physical arrangement of space.
c. The same thing as a GANTT chart.
d. The revenue streams for the intervention.

A

a

43
Q

9) The primary focus of social work macro-level interventions is

a. Obtaining the necessary funding.
b. The outcomes to be achieved.
c. Working well with others.
d. The target population or client.

A

d

44
Q

1) The collection of information on activities leading to achievement of objectives is called

a. Assessing.
b. Reviewing.
c. Monitoring.
d. Implementing.

A

c

45
Q

2) Evaluation is at the heart of social work ethics because:

a. Monitoring is part of evaluation.
b. Agencies have to devote part of their budgets to evaluation.
c. Services must be effective for clients.
d. Finders will not provide resources without it.

A

c

46
Q

3) Evaluation efforts are often conceptualized as having three types. In the following list, which type is NOT a typical way to categorize evaluation?

a. Process.
b. Formative.
c. Outcome.
d. Formal.

A

d

47
Q

4) Why do the authors say it is important to recognize that change efforts can fail?

a. To remind change agents that not everyone is able to make change happen.
b. To end efforts before they become too time consuming.
c. To make adjustments to counter issues that arise.
d. To keep participants from becoming too self-confident about their change efforts.

A

c

48
Q

1) How might technical activities in a planned change episode by itemized?

a. In a line drawing.
b. In a GANTT.
c. In a job description.
d. In an organizational chart.

A

b

49
Q

2) What source of data collection is similar to a focus group, except all parties are invited as opposed to a select few?

a. A community forum.
b. A cocktail party.
c. A randomized survey.
d. A board meeting.

A

a

50
Q

3) When change agents proceed under the assumption that the problems being addressed have been correct, when in fact that’s not the case, this is what type of error?

a. Type IV error.
b. Type III error.
c. Type II error.
d. Type I error.

A

d

51
Q

4) A false negative could be described as what type of error?

a. Type III error.
b. Type I error.
c. Type II error.
d. Type IV error.

A

c

52
Q

5) What type of measurement reliability indicator involves the extent to which different observers agree?

a. Internal consistency.
b. Alternate forms reliability.
c. Interrelator reliability.
d. Test-retest reliability.

A

c

53
Q

6) Evaluator bias
a. Occurs when participants do not alter their behavior no matter what happens.

b. Rarely in social work change episodes.
c. Refers to deliberate misrepresentation of evaluation results.
d. Happens when participants detect subtle cues from staff members or others regarding the outcome they hope to achieve.

A

d

54
Q

examining whether the steps required to implement the objectives were actually taken is called what?

A

Process evaluation

55
Q

Outcome evaluation looks at what 2 things?

define them

A

focuses on outputs and outcomes

outputs is the administration of some services.

achieving planned outputs doesn’t guarantee that outcomes will be achieved

56
Q

progress towards achieving goals and objectives happened simply by chance is know as what?

A

a null hypothesis

57
Q

Define a strategy?

efforts designed to ensure the pro? ch? is ?

A

efforts designed to ensure the proposed change is accepted

58
Q

Define a tactic?

specific te? and beh? to ensure a what? is successful

A

specific techniques and behaviors to ensure a strategy is successful