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Chapter Questions Flashcards

1
Q

2A

Identify major components of an airplane

A
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2
Q

2A

What is the primary difference between monocoque and semi-monocoque construction

A

The monocoque design uses the skin to support almost all imposed loads while the semi-monocoque system uses a substructure riveted to the airplane’s skin to maintain the shape of the airframe and increase its strength

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3
Q

2A

When you move the control wheel to the left, will the left aileron move up or down?

A

Up

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4
Q

2A

True/False

The rudder is located on the horizontal stabilizer

A

False

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5
Q

2A

What is the purpose of trim devices

A

Trim devices aerodynamically help move a control surface, or maintain the surface in a desired position

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6
Q

2A

An airplane with a wheel mounted on the tail is equipped with what type of landing gear

A

Conventional landing gear

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7
Q

2A

In addition to providing power to turn the propeller, what other functions does the engine in a typical training airplane perform

A

Accessories mounted on, or connected to the engine generate electrical power, provide a vacuum source for some flight instruments, and, in most single-engine airplanes, provide a source of heat for the pilot and passengers

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8
Q

2A

Federal regulations require that this puclication be carried in the aircraft during all flight operations

A

FAA Approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM)

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9
Q

2A

This publication can serve as a useful study tool even though it may not contain information about optional equipment

A

Pilot’s Information Manual (PIM)

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10
Q

2A

The format for this publication was standardized in 1975

A

Pilot’s Operating Handbook (POH)

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11
Q

2B

Identify the four-stroke operating cycle step shown in each of the following illustrations

A
  1. Intake
  2. Compression
  3. Power
  4. Exhaust
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12
Q

2B

As an airplane climbs, do you enrich or lean the mixture to maintain an optimum fuel/air ratio

A

Lean the mixture

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13
Q

2B

What is your first indication of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller

A

Your first indication of carburetor icing in an airplane with a fixed-pitch propeller will be a decrease in engine r.p.m.

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14
Q

2B

Explain why an engine equiped with a fuel injection system is less susceptible to induction icing than one equipped with a float-type carburetor

A

Ther can be a sharp temperature drop in a float-type carburetor due to fuel vapoorization and decreasing air pressure in the venturi. If water vapor in the air condenses when the carburetor temperature is at or below freezing, ice may form. Since engines equipped with a fuel injection system eliminated for the carburetor, they are relatively free from the formation of induction icing

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15
Q

2B

The uncontrolled, explosice ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber describes which type of abnormal combustion? What actions can you take while airborne to help correct for this problem

A

Detonation. Since detonation can occur when the engine overheats, if you suspect detonation while in flight you should attempt to lower the cylinder temperature. Methodsinclude retarding the throttle, enriching the fuel mixture, and/or lowering the nose to increase airspeed and the cooling airflow around the engine

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16
Q

2B

If the fuel grade specified for your airplane is not available, can you use a lower grade of fuel? A higher grade?

A

You should not use a fuel grade lower than specified because it can cause cylinder head and engine temperatures to exceed normal operating limits. You may substitute the next higher grade, but only if it is approved by the manufacturer

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17
Q

2B

Describe at least two functions performed by the engine oil system

A

The engine oil system performs many functions including lubricating the engine’s moving parts, cooling the engine by reducing friction and removing some of rhe heat from the cylinders, providing a seal between the cylinder walls and pistons, and carrying away contaminants which are removed as teh oil passes through a filter.

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18
Q

2B

If a constant-speed propeller is set to a high r.p.m., will the blade pitch (angle) be high or low?

A

Low

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19
Q

2B

True/False

To prevent internal engine damage in an airplane equipped with a constant-speed propeller, you should avoid low r.p.m. settings with high manifold pressure

A

True

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20
Q

2B

Immediately after engine start you notice that the ammeter shows a discharge. Is this normal?

A

No

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21
Q

2C

What is the atmospheric pressure and temperature at sea level in a standard atmosphere?

A

Standard atmospheric pressure and temperature at sea level equals 29.92 in Hg. and 150C respectively

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22
Q

2C

Pitot pressure is used by which flight instrument(s)?

A

The airspeed indicator is the only instrument which uses pitot pressure

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23
Q

2C

Referring to the airspeed indicator below, identify the V-speeds associated with the colored arcs.

A

A. VSO

B. VS1

C. VFE

D. VNO

E. VNE

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24
Q

2C

Which important airspeed limitation changes with aircraft weight and is not depicted on the airspeed indicator?

A

Maneuvering speed (VA)

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25
Q

2C

Pressure Altitude

A

The vertical distance above the standard datum plane

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26
Q

2C

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

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27
Q

2C

True Altitude

A

The actual height of an object above mean sea level

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28
Q

2C

Absolute Altitude

A

The height of the airplane above the earth’s surface

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29
Q

2C

You fly from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure but do not reset your altimeter. If you maintain a consistent indicated altitude, will you be at your desired altitude? Why?

A

No. If you fly from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without resetting your altimeter, the altimeter will sense the decrease in pressure as an increase in altitude. The altitude indicated on the altimeter will be higher than the true altitude of the airplane

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30
Q

2C

What will the effect be on the airspeed indicator if the static system becomes clogged, but the pitot system remains unobstructed? Why?

A

At altitudes above the point where the staticports became clogged, the airspeed indicator will indicate slower than actual because the trapped static pressure is higher than normal for that altitude. At altitudes lower than the point where the static ports became clogged, the airspeed will indicate faster than actual since the trapped static pressure is lower than normal for that altitude

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31
Q

2C

What type of movement is depicted by the attitude indicator, but not the turn coordinator?

A

Pitch

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32
Q

2C

True/False. If you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere on a heading of east, your compass will indicate a turn to the south

A

False

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33
Q

3A

Select the true statement(s) regarding the four forces of flight

A. During accelerated flight, thrust and drag are equal

B. The four forces are in equilibrium during unaccelerated flight.

C. In straight-and-level unaccelerated flight, all four forces are equal in magnitude

A

B.

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34
Q

3A

Identify the aerodynamic terms associated with the airfloil

A

A. Upwash

B. Leading Edge

C. Trailing Edge

D. Downwash

E. Flight Path

F. Relative Wind

G. Camber

H. Chord line

I. Angle of Attack

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35
Q

3A

Describe how Newton’s laws of motion and Bernoulli’s principle explain the generation of lift by an airfoil

A

According to Bernoulli’s principle, the increase in speed of air on the top of an airfoil produces a drop in pressure and this lowered pressure is a component in total lift. In addition, the decrease in the speed of air on the bottom of an airfoil produces an increase in pressure, and this higher pressure is the other component of total lift. These pressure changes cause the airflow to curve downward, creating downwash behind the airfoil. Newton’s third law of motion explains that the action of causing downwash results in a reaction of positive lift

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36
Q

3A

True/False. As airspeed increases, the angle of attack at which an airfoil stalls also increases

A

False

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37
Q

3A

Determine the aspect ratio of the following planforms.

A

A. Aspect Ratio = 7

B. Aspect Ratio = 7

C. Aspect Ratio = 3.4

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38
Q

3A

Identify three methods you can use to control lift during flight

A

You can control lift by changing airspeed, changing angle of attack, or by employing high-lift devices such as trailing edge flaps

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39
Q

3A

Will the wing’s angle of attack increase or decrease when trailing edge flaps are lowered

A

Increased

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40
Q

3A

Is it more desirable for the wing root or wingtips to stall first and why

A

It is preferable for the wing root to stall first. If the wingtips stall before the root, the disrupted airflow near the wingtip can reduce airleron effectiveness to such an extent that it may be impossible to control the airplane about its longitudinal axis

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41
Q

3A

List the three forms of parasite drag and provide examples of aircraft features which reduce parasite drag.

A

Parasite drag normally is divided into three types: Form drag, interference drag, and skin friction drag.

Streamlining decreases form drag, and design features, such as wheel fairings and retractable landing gear, can reduce both form and interference drag. Skin friction drag can be minimized by eliminating protruding rivet heads, and employing a glossy, smooth finish to airplane surfaces

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42
Q

3A

Explain why induced drag increases as airspeed decreases

A

Induced drag is caused by the downwash created by wingtip vortices formed when the wing is generating lift. As the air pressure differential between the upper and lower surfaces of the wing becomes greater with an increase in angle of attack, stronger vortices form and induced drag is increased. Since the wing is usually at a low angle of attack at high speeds, and a high angle at low speeds, a relationship between induced drag and speed can be determined. Induced drag is inversely proportional to the square of the speed

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43
Q

3A

The reduction in induced drag due to ground effect is most noticeable when the airplane is within what distance from the earth’s surface

A

One wingspan

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44
Q

3B

Identify the three axes of flight and the type of movement associated with each axis

A

A. Lateral

B. Pitch

C. Vertical

D. Yaw

E. Roll

F. Longitudinal

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45
Q

3B

Match control surface with the associated aircraft movement

  1. Roll movement
  2. Pitch movement
  3. Yaw movement

A. Elevator (for stabilator)

B. Ailerons

C. Rudder

A
  1. B. Ailerons
  2. A. Elevator
  3. C. Rudder
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46
Q

3B

In relation to the center of gravity, in which direction would the center of pressure normally move as angle of attack is increased on a cambered wing

A

Forward

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47
Q

3B

What factors can affect the longitudinal stability of an airplane at high power settings and low airspeed

A

On many training aircraft, an increase in thrust increases nose heaviness due to the placement of the thrustline above the center of gravity of the aircraft. This helps counteract the nose-up moment caused by the increased downwash resulting from an increase in power

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48
Q

3B

Why are high wing aircraft normally designed with less dihedral than low wing aircraft

A

Upwash passing around the fuselage just ahead of the wing tends to roll a high wing aircraft toward the upright position, contributing to lateral stability. In a low wing airplane, the downwash around the fuselage tends to be laterally destabilizing since it tends to increase the roll. The amount of dihedral is adjusted to compensate for the effects of fuselage upwash and downwash resulting in a greater requirement for dihedral in a low wing airplane than in a high wing configuration

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49
Q

3B

Does the propwash resulting from high power settings increase or decrease the contribution of wing dihedral to the lateral stability of an airplane

A

Decreases

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50
Q

3B

An aircraft with strong directional stability and weak lateral stability is prone to what type of undesirable side effect

A

Spiral instability

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51
Q

3B

True/False

When landing in gusty winds, airspeeds should be increased above normal to help guard against a stall

A

True

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52
Q

3B

List the basic guidelines for stall recovery

A
  • Decrease the angle of attack
  • Smoothly apply maximum power
  • Once the airplanerecovers, adjust the power as necessary while maintaining coordinated flight
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53
Q

3B

List the basic guidlines for spin recovery

A
  • Throttle to idle
  • Neutralize the ailerons
  • Determine the direction of rotation
  • Apply full opposite rudder
  • Briskly apply elevator (or Stabilator) to neutral slightly forward of neutral
  • As rotation stops, neutralize the rudders
  • Gradually apply aft elevator (or stabilator) to return to level flight
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54
Q

3C

Identify the aerodynamic force that opposes the rearward component of weight in a climb

A

Thrust

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55
Q

3C

What relative airspeed, power, and angle of attack conditions produce the most noticeable left-turning tendencies common to single-engine, propeller-driven aircraft

A

Low airspeed, high power settings, and high angles of attack

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56
Q

3C

Name two design elements that can be used to help offset left-turning tendencies

A

Left turning tendencies can be reduced, in part, by a rudder trim tab, an offset vertical stabilizer, or a horizontally canted engine

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57
Q

3C

All else being equal, will two aerodynamically identical aircraft with different weights be able to glide the same distance over the ground? If so, how can this be accomplished and why?

A

Yes. Variations in weight do not affect the glide ratio of an airplane, but the heavier aircraft will sink faster, and reach the ground sooner. To travel the same distance as the lighter aircraft, a higher airspeed will need to be maintained by the heavier airplane. This higher airspee, which corresponds to the best glide airspeed at that weight, increases ground speed and allows the heavier aircraft to cover the same horizontal distance even though its rate of descent is higher

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58
Q

3C

What causes an airplane to turn

A

When an airplane is banked, lift is comprised of two components. The airplane turns because the horizontal component of lift creates a force directed inward toward the center of rotation

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59
Q

3C

If angle of bank and altitude are held constant, what can be done to increase the rate of turn

A

Decreased Airspeed

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60
Q

3C

Given a wings-level, 1G stall speed of 55 knots, use the chart to determine the stall speed under the following conditions.

  1. Bank angle, 300
  2. Bank angle, 450
  3. Bank angle, 750
A
  1. 59 knots
  2. 66 Knots
  3. 110 Knots
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61
Q

3C

True/False

Maneuvering speed increases with a decrease in weight

A

False

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62
Q

4A

What is the most effective method to scan for other aircraft and why?

A

The most effective way to scan during daylight is through a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements, focusing for at least one second in 100 sectors. This method, which brings successive areas of the sky into the central visual field, is compatible with how the eyes function. Although two normal healthy eyes have a visual field of approximately 2000, the area in which the eye can focus sharply and perceive detail is a relatively narrow cone (usually only about 100 wide) directly in the center of the field of vision. Beyond this area, visual acuity decreases sharply in all directions.

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63
Q

4A

True/False

When looking through haze, air traffic and terrain features are not as close as they appear.

A

False

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64
Q

4A

Select the true statement regarding collision avoidance

A. Operating an airport with a control tower relieves you of the responsibility to see and avoid other traffic

B. If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

C. Studies show that the majority of midair collisions occur during daylight hours, in IFR conditions, and within five miles of an airport

A

B. If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

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65
Q

4A

Which aircraft has the right-of-way

A

A.

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66
Q

4A

Which Aircraft has the right-of-way

A

B

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67
Q

4A

Which Aircraft has the right-of-way

A

A.

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68
Q

4A

Minimum Safe Altitudes

1,000 feet above any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

A

Congested areas

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69
Q

4A

Minimum Safe Altitudes

500 feet above the suface

A

Uncongested areas

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70
Q

4A

Minimum Safe Altitudes

Within 500 feet of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

A

Sparsely populated or open water areas

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71
Q

4A

Select the proper control positions for taxiing in the wind condition shown

A) Yoke to the right, elevator control aft

B) Yoke to the left, elevator control neutral

C) Yoke to the right, elevator control neutral

A

C. Yoke to the right, elevator controll neutral

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72
Q

4A

Describe the recommended procedure to be used when it is necessary for you to exchange the flight controls with your instructor

A

A three step process is recommended when exchanging flight controls. The pilot passing the controls should announce, “you have the flight controls.” The pilot passing the controls should continue to fly until the pilot taking the controls acknowledges the exchange by saying, “I have the flight controls.” A visiual check is recommended to ensure that the other pilot actually has the controls. The pilot passing should then state, “you have the flight controls.”

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73
Q

4B

Describe how runway numbers are determined

A

Runway numberscorrespond to a magnetic north reference. The runway’s magnetic direction is rounded off to the nearest 100, with the last zero omitted. Any runway that is between the headings of 0100 and 0900 is designated with a single-digit runway number. The number at the end of the runway corresponds to the direction that you are heading when taking off or landing on that runway. For example, a runway labeled 9 on one end is labeled 27 on the opposite end

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74
Q

4B

Determine the proper runway and traffic pattern for landing

A) Left-hand traffic for Runway 36

B) Left-hand traffic for Runway 4

C) Right-hand traffic for Runway 22

A

B) Left-hand traffic for Runway 4

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75
Q

4B

Explain the purpose of a displaced threshold and the operating limitations associated with it.

A

Usually, a displaced threshold indicates that there are obstructions such as treesm powerlines, or buildings off the end of the runway. This might prohibit a normal descent and landing on the initial portion of the pavement, Although the pavement leading up to a displaced threshold may not be used for landing, it may be available for taxiing, the landing rollout, and takeoffs.

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76
Q

4B

What marking indicates a closed runway

A

A closed runway is designated by a yellow X

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77
Q

4B

Which airplane is on the correct side of the hold line to be clear of the runway

A

A.

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78
Q

4B

Match the signs to their descriptions

1) Direction Sign
2) Location Sign
3) Mandatory Instruction Sign

A

1) C
2) B
3) A

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79
Q

4B

True/False

Runway incursions are primarily caused by errors associated with clearances, communications, airport surface movement, and positional awareness

A

True

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80
Q

4B

Match the following airport beacon light patterns to the appropriate airport.

A) White/White/Green

B) White/Green

C) White/Yellow

A

A) Military airport

B) Civilian land airport

C) Water airport

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81
Q

4B

Match each illustration to the correct glideslope description

A) VASI, on glide path

B) PAPI, slightly high
C) PAPI, on glide path
D) VASI, low

A

A) C

B) E
C) F
D) B

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82
Q

4B

Describe the procedure for activating three-step pilot-controlled lighting

A

To activate three-step pilot-controlled lighting, the mike must be keyed seven times on the specified frequency to turn all the lights on at maximum intensity. The mike is keyed five times for medium intensity, and three times for the lowest intensity lighting. The mike must be keyed the required number of times within a period of five seconds.

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83
Q

4C

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Red Bluff Airport

A

4009 N - 122015 W

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84
Q

4C

What is the minimum MSL altitude that you should fly over the area depicted in this chart exerpt

A

4,000 feet MSL. The contour line indicates that the elevation of the Conboy Lake National Wildlife Refuge is 2,000 feet MSL. To fly 2,000 feet above the surface over this special conservation area, you should fly at least 4,000 feet MSL

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85
Q

4C

Match the airport diagrams with their descriptions

  1. Hard-surfaced runways 1,500 feet to 8,069 feet in length
  2. Private airport
  3. Hard-surface runways greater than 8,069 feet in length
  4. Seaplane base
  5. Closed airport
A

1) D
2) C
3) A
4) E
5) B

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86
Q

4C

True/False

Airports with control towers are magenta on sectional charts

A

False

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87
Q

4C

What is the control tower frequency for Pounds Airport

A

120.1 MHz

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88
Q

4C

What is the elevation of Pounds Airport

A

544 feet MSL

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89
Q

4C

True/False

Pounds Airport has full-time lighting

A

True

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90
Q

4C

What do the tick marks on the airport diagram indicate

A

Pounds Airport has services and fuel available during normal business hours

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91
Q

4C

What does the star symbol above the airport diagram indicate

A

The airport has a rotating beacon which normally operates from sunset to sunrise

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92
Q

4C

Does the control tower at Pounds Airport operate full time

A

No

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93
Q

4C

You can use the frequency 122.3 located on top of the navaid box to communicate with what facility

A

Fort Worth FSS

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94
Q

4C

What is the height of the lighted obstruction

A) 1,125 Feet MSL

B) 1,467 Feet AGL

C) 2,049 Feet AGL

A

B

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95
Q

4D

If you are flying in the traffic pattern at 8,700 feet MSL during daylight hours, what minimum cloud clearance and visibility would you hve to maintain at Questa 2 Airport

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds

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96
Q

4D

Select the true statement regarding transponder operations

1) To enter Class D airspace, you are required to have a Mode C transponder
2) You are required to have a Mode C transponder from 2,500 feet AGL up to and including 10,000 feet MSL
3) The FAR’s require that you have an operating Mode C transponder in Class B airspace and within 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport

A

3) The FAR’s require that you have an operating Mode C transponder in Class B airspace and within 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport

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97
Q

4D

What minimum visibility and cloud clearance must you maintain if you are at the postion shown by the airplane symbol at an altitude of 4,500 feet MSL

A

3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

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98
Q

4D

Which airport has Class D airspace

A

Selina Airport

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99
Q

4D

What is the floor and ceiling of the shelf area of Class C airspace that contains the airplane symbol

A

Floor - 2,200 feet MSL

Ceiling - 5,000 feet MSL

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100
Q

4D

True/False

You must obtain a clearance prior to operating within a 30 nautical mile radius from the primary airport in Class B airspace

A

False

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101
Q

4D

If your airplane is at 5,500 feet MSL in the position shown by the airplane symbol, what are your weather minimums

A

3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds

102
Q

4D

Class A airspace begins at what altitude

A

18,000 feet MSL

103
Q

4D

What is the maximum airspeed that you can fly below 10,000 feet MSL

A

250 Knots

104
Q

4D

Explain when it would be necessary to request a special VFR clearance

A

It would be necessary to request a special VFR clearance if you wished to operate within the area of Class B, C, D, or E airspace which extends to the surface around the airport, when the ground visibility is less than 3 statute miles and the cloud ceiling is less than 1,000 feet AGL. A special VFR clearance may allow you to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and Class E surface areas and some Class B and Class C surface areas if the flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile and you can remain clear of clouds. At least 1 statute mile ground visibility is required for takeoff and landing, however if ground visibility is not reported, you must have at least 1 statute mile flight visibility. Special VFR is not permitted between sunset and sunrise unless you have a current instrument rating and the aircraft is equipped for instrument flight.

105
Q

4D

Which of these areas can you enter without permission from the controlling agency

A

A, D, and E

106
Q

4D

How can you learn the time and location of temporary flight restrictions (TFRs)

A

Obtain a weather briefing before every flight and ask for TFRs

107
Q

4D

What are the restrictions to general aviation flight in the vicinity of the president

A

All flight training activity is prohibited within 30 NM and nearly all general aviation flight is prohibited within 10 NM

108
Q

4D

What must you do before flying anywhere within 60 miles of the Washington (DCA) VOR

A

Take special awareness training from the FAA and have a certificate of completion in your possession

109
Q

4D

You are flying VFR and not talking to ATC and observe a military jet fighter off your left wingtip rocking its wings and then making a slow left turn away from you. What must you do

A

Follow the aircraft, squawk 7700, and contact them on 121.5 MHz

110
Q

5A

Describe the limitations of primary radar

A

The limitations of primary radar include the bending of radar pulses (anomalous propagation) and the blocking of radar returns by precipitation or heavy clouds. Two of the most significant drawbacks to the primary radar system are its inability to easily identify an individual aircraft return and to display an aircraft’s altitude

111
Q

5A

In addition to those required for primary radar, what are the three components required for secondary radar

A

Decoder, interrogator, transponder

112
Q

5A

Match the transponder instruction from ATC to the appropriate actions

1) “Stop Altitude Squawk” A) Select code 7700
2) “Stop Squawk” B) Select code 1200
3) “Squawk VFR” C) Turn off automatic altitude reporting
4) “Squawk MAYDAY on 7700” D) Turn transponder off

A

1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

113
Q

5A

True/False

If your radio is inoperative, you should squawk code 7500 on your transponder

A

False

114
Q

5A

What is the long-range radar system used in controlled airspace

A) Airport surveillance radar (ASR)

B) Air route surveillance radar (ARSR)

C) Traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS)

A

B

115
Q

5A

ATC gives you the following traffic advisory: “…traffic at two o’clock, three miles, westbound.” Refer to the illustration to the right. Which traffic position corresponds to the advisory

A

B

116
Q

5A

You are on a heading of north and receive the following traffic advisory from departure control: “…traffic at ten o’clock, three miles, eastbound.” Where should you look for this traffic

A) Off the right wingtip

B) Ahead of the left wingtip

C) Slightly left of the nose

A

B

117
Q

5A

When does ATC issue a safety alert

A

ATC issues a safety alert when an aircraft is in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

118
Q

5A

Which services are included in basic radar service for VFR aircraft

A) Separation, limited radar vectoring, and traffic advisories

B) Safety alerts, traffic advisories, sequencing, and separation

C) Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited radar vectoring

A

C

119
Q

5A

What is the term used for the continuous broadcast of current conditions and weather information at selected high activity terminal areas

A

Automatic terminal information service (ATIS)

120
Q

5B

Select the VHF frequency range used for aircraft communication radios

A) 118.0 to 135.975 kHz

B) 118.0 to 135.975 MHz

C) 108.0 to 135.975 MHz

A

B

121
Q

5B

Using the phonetic alphabet, write out the pronunciation of the following aircraft call sign: Cessna 649SP

A

“Cessna six four niner Sierra Papa”

122
Q

5B

If you depart an airport in the central standard time zone at 1:00 p.m. and arrive in a city on the west coast two hours later, what is your arrival time in Zulu

A

2100Z

123
Q

5B

If you fly from a city in the pacific daylight time zone to a city in the central daylight time zone, and you leave at 0700 PDT with an estimated time enroute of three hours, what is your estimated time of arrival in Zulu

A

1700Z

124
Q

5B

What are the three methods of broadcasting your intentions and receiving airport information at uncontrolled airports

A

The three methods are communication with a UNICOM operator, contacting an FSS on the field, or making a self-announce broadcast

125
Q

5B

When transmitting on a CTAF, how many miles from the airport should you normally make your initial contact

A

10 miles

126
Q

5B

True/False

If ATC gives you a clearance that compromises your safety or would cause you to violate a regulation, you should comply with it

A

False

127
Q

5B

Select the actions that you would take to comply with the following ATC clearance: “Cessna 52 Sierra, Runway 17, taxi via Bravo, hold short Runway 26 right.”

A) Taxi onto Runway 17

B) Taxi along taxiway Bravo toward Runway 17, stopping at the hold line for Runway 26 Right and waiting for ATC clearance to cross Runway 26 Right

C) Taxi on Runway 17, crossing taxiway Bravo, to Runway 26 Right, stopping at Runway 26 Right until cleared to proceed by ground control

A

B) Taxi along taxiway Bravo toward Runway 17, stopping at the hold line for Runway 26 Right and waiting for ATC clearance to cross Runway 26 Right

128
Q

5B

Describe the lost communication procedure used for landing at a Class D airspace primary airport

A

Set your trasponder code to 7600. Remain outside or above teh Class D airspace until you have determined the direction and flow of traffic. Then, join the airport traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals. In the daytime, acknowledge light signals by rocking your wings, and at night, by blinking your landing or navigation lights. A steady green signal indicates that you are cleared to land

129
Q

5B

Match the frequencies to appropriate use

1) 121.5 A) Emergency Frequency
2) 122.9 B) UNICOM
3) 122.8 C) MULTICOM

A

1) - A
2) - C
3) - B

130
Q

5B

How often must the ELT battery be replaced or recharged if the battery is rechargeable

A

The FARs require that the ELT battery must be replaced, or recharged if the battery is rechargeable, after one-half of the battery’s useful life or if the transmitter has been used for more than one cumulative hour

131
Q

5C

What is the distance and direction of Lee Bird Field from the city

A

Three nautical miles east

132
Q

5C

What is the airport elevation

A

2,778 feet MSL

133
Q

5C

How many feet lonf and wide is the longest runway at Lee Bird Field

A

Runway 12L/30R is 8,000 feet long and 150 feet wide

134
Q

5C

What type of servicing is available at Lee Bird Field

A) Minor airframe and minor powerplant repairs

B) Major airframe and minor powerplant repairs

C) Major airframe and major powerplant repairs

A

C

135
Q

5C

Select the correct traffic patterns for the runways at Lee Bird Field

A) Left-hand for all runways

B) Left-hand for Runways 12L and 30R and right-hand for all other runways

C) Right-hand for Runways 30R and 12R and left-hand for all other runways

A

C

136
Q

5C

True/False

The UNICOM frequency for Lee Bird Field is 122.5

A

False

137
Q

5C

If you land at Lee Bird Field at 2:15 p.m. local standard time, what is your arrival time in Zulu

A

2015Z

138
Q

5C

What flight service station should you contact to obtain a weather briefing at Lee Bird Field

A

Columbus FSS

139
Q

5C

What NOTAM file is designated for Lee Bird Field

A

NOTAM file LBF

140
Q

5C

Select the information which you can obtain by referencing the aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

A) The official text of regulations issued by the agencies of the Federal government

B) ATC procedures, a description of the airspace system, and flight safety information

C) Information regarding specific airports, including runway lengths, communication frequencies, and airport services

A

B

141
Q

5C

Explain the differences between NOTAM(D)s and FDC NOTAMs

A

NOTAM(D) information is desseminated for all navigational facilities which are part of the U.S. airspace system, all public use airports, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the A/FD, FDC NOTAMs, issued by the National Flight Data Center, contain regulatory information such as temporary flight restrictions or amendments to instrument approach procedures and other current aeronautical charts

142
Q

5C

What is the primary source document for identifying and ordering advisory circulars

A

Advisory Circular Checklist (AC-00-2)

143
Q

6A

Identify the four major layers of the atmosphere depicted in the illustration

A

A. Troposphere

B. Stratosphere

C. Mesosphere

D. Thermosphere

144
Q

6A

Which layer of the atmosphere contains most of the earth’s weather

A

The Troposphere

145
Q

6A

Describe the atmospheric convection process

A

As air is heated, it expands and becomes less dense than the surrounding air. As air cools, its molecules become packed more closely together, making it denser and heavier than warm air. As a result, the cool, heavy air tends to sink and replace warmer, rising air.

146
Q

6A

What is the primary cause of changing altimeter settings between weather reporting points

A

Unequal heating of the earth’s surface

147
Q

6A

True/False

Closely spaced isobars on a weather map is an indicator of light surface winds

A

False

148
Q

6A

What three factors affect the amount of deflection caused by Coriolis force

A

The amount of deflection an object experiences due to Coriolis force is a function of distance traveled, position on the earth’s surface (latitude), and speed of the object

149
Q

6A

Describe how fractional force causes wind to shift near the earth’s surface

A

In the upper atmosphere, pressure gradient force and Coriolis force cause wind to flow roughly parallel to the isobars. However, within approximately 2,000 feet of the ground, friction caused by the earth’s surface slows the movement of air. This reduces the effect of Coriolis force and causes the pressure gradient force to divert the wind toward the lower pressure area

150
Q

6A

Match the types of breezes with the most appropriate descriptor.

  1. Sea Breeze 9. Land Breeze
  2. Valley Breeze 11. Mountain Breeze

A. Occurs at night as land cools faster than water

B. Occurs during the day as the sun warms mountain slopes

C. Occurs at night as the high terrain cools (relative to air over the valley)

D. Occurs during the day as the sun warms the land

A
  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. C
151
Q

6B

What is the average rate of temperature change associated with a change in altitude

A

20C (3.50F) per 1,000 feet

152
Q

6B

Describe the pressure and temperature changes which take place in ascending and descending air.

A

When air rises, it expands to a larger volume. As the distance between molecules increases, the temperature of the air lowers. As a result, when a parcel of air rises, pressure decreases, volume increases, and temperature decreases. When air descends, pressure increases, volume decreases, and temperature increases

153
Q

6B

What two processes add water vapor to the atmosphere

A

Evaporation and sublimation

154
Q

6B

At what height above the ground would you expect to find the base of the clouds if the surface temperature is 650F and the surface dewpoint is 560F

A

2,000 feet AGL

155
Q

6B

Identify the clouds in the photos

A

A. Cirrus

B. Altocumulus

C. Stratus

D. Towering Cumulus

156
Q

6B

True/False

Advection fog normally occurs when the wind is calm

A

False

157
Q

6B

What must happen for a cloud to precipitate

A

For precipitation to occur, water or ice particles must grow in size until they can no longer be supported by the atmosphere

158
Q

6B

What is the difference between rain and rain showers

A

Rain generally falls at a relatively steady rate and stops gradually. On the other hand, rain showers generally begin, change intensity, and stop suddenly

159
Q

6B

Describe the weather characteristics of a stable airmass

A

A stable airmass generally exhibits widespread stratiform clouds, restricted visibility, smooth air, and steady rain or drizzle

160
Q

6B

Match the fronts with the weather characteristics expected as the front approaches

  1. Warm Front 11. Cold Front
  2. Occluded Front

A. Nimbostratus clouds, light-to-heavy precipitation, poor visibility in precipitation, steady dewpoint

B. Stratus clouds, fog, light-to-moderate rain, poor visibility, steadily rising dewpoint

C. Towering cumulus clouds, short periods of showers, fair visibility in haze, high dewpoint

A
  1. B
  2. C
  3. A
161
Q

6C

What are the three basic ingredients needed for the formation of a thunderstorm

A

Thunderstorm formation requires unstable conditions, a lifting force, and high moisture levels

162
Q

6C

What causes the thunderstorm’s anvil to form? What can it tell you about the thunderstorm’s movement

A

As the vertical motions slow near the top of the storm, winds tend to spread the cloud horizontally, forming the anvil shape. Since the anvil’s shape is formed by upper-level winds, it points in the approximate direction of the storm’s movement

163
Q

6C

Recall the general procedures you should use when encountering turbulence in flight

A

If you encounter turbulence during flight, slow the airplane to maneuvering speed or less, maintain a level flight attitude, and accept variations in altitude. If you expect turbulent or gusty conditions during an approach to a landing, you should consider flying a power-on approach at an airspeed slightly above the normal approach speed

164
Q

6C

True/False

Cumulus clouds indicate the presence of mechanical turbulence

A

False

165
Q

6C

What is the most dangerous condition for landing with respect to wingtip vortices

A

The most dangerous condition for landing is a light, quartering tailwind since it can move the upwind vortex of a landing aircraft over the runway and forward into the touchdown zone

166
Q

6C

What technique should be used to avoid wake turbulence during takeoff behind a large aircraft?

A. Climb on the flight path of the preceding aircraft

B. Climb below the flight path of the preceding aircraft

C. Climb above the flight path of the preceding aircraft

A

C. Climb above the flight path of the preceding aircraft

167
Q

6C

What kind of turbulence is indicated by the presence of rotor, cap, and lenticular clouds

A

Mountain wave turbulence

168
Q

6C

Discuss the in-flight visual indications of possible wind shear

A

In humid climates where the bases of convective clouds tend to be low, microbursts are associated with a visible rainshaft. In drier climates, the higher thunderstorm cloud bases result in the evaporation of the rainshaft. The only visible indications under these conditions may be virga at the cloud base and a dust ring on the ground

169
Q

6C

Match the types of structural icing with its characteristic

  1. Clear 10. Rime 11. Mixed

A. Occurs in temperatures between -100C and -150C

B. Develops in an area of large supercooled water droplets

C. Normally is encountered in stratus clouds

A
  1. B - Develops in an area of large supercooled water droplets
  2. C - Normally is encountered in stratus clouds
  3. A - Occurs in temperatures between -100C and -150C
170
Q

6C

What is the recommended course of action if you inadvertently enter a volcanic ash cloud

A. Reverse course

B. Attempt to climb up and out of the cloud

C. Continue straight ahead to exit on the opposite side

A

A. Reverse course

171
Q

7A

True/False

A persistence forecast assumes that weather systems will continue to moce in the same direction and speed, unless some unexpected force intervenes

A

False

172
Q

7A

Is the trend forecast more accurate for long or short periods of time

A

Short periods of time

173
Q

7A

How does numerical weather prediction develop a forecast

A

Numerical weather prediction uses mathematical equations which relate atmospheric conditions with other variables. The system of equations represents the physical laws that govern the behavior of the atmosphere. The computer applies the model to the current atmospheric conditions to forecast minutes in the future. The process is repeated many times to create a prediction for the next day or two

174
Q

7A

Normally, how often do airports record a weather observation?

A. Every hour

B. Every 4 hours

C. Every 12 hours

A

A. Every hour

175
Q

7A

What type of weather events can be accurately predicted four days in advance?

A

Large storms and major heat waves

176
Q

7B

What is the difference between prevailing visibility and runway visual range?

A

Prevailing visibility is the greatest distance an observer can see and identify objects through at least half of the horizon. RVR is based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway

177
Q

7B

In a METAR, what is meant by a + sign immediately preceding a precipitation code?

A. Light intensity

B. Heavy intensity

C. Moderate intensity

A

B. Heavy intensity

178
Q

7B

If a METAR reported a sky condition of BKN008, what altitude were the bases of the clouds at the time of the observation? How much of the sky was covered?

A

At the time of the observation, clouds with bases at 800 feet AGL covered 5/8 to 7/8 of the sky

179
Q

7B

Decode the following METAR (KHOU=William P. Hobby Airport

METAR KHOU 221853Z 17009KT 2SM -TSRA SCT004 BKN009 OVC015 21/20 A3004 RMK TSB12 SLP170 T02060196

A

Routine observation…William P. Hobby Airport…on the 22nd day of the month at 1835Z…wind 1700 at 9 knots… prevailing visibility 2 statute miles…thunderstorm with light rain…scattered clouds at 400 feet AGL…broken clouds at 900 feet AGL…overcast skies at 1,500 feet AGL…temperature 210C, dewpoint 200C…altimeter 30.04 in. Hg…remarks…thunderstorm began 12 minutes past the hour…sea level pressure 1017.0 mb (hPa)…temperature 20.60C, dewpoint 19.60C

180
Q

7B

True/False

Altitudes given in PIREPs are in feet MSL?

A

True

181
Q

7B

Normally, how long are TAFs valid?

A. 12 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

A

B. 24 hours

182
Q

7B

Ina TAF, what does the code BECMG 0305 indicate?

A

A gradual change in the weather will take place between 0300Z and 0500Z

183
Q

7B

Decode the following TAF (KPIT = Pittsburgh International Airport)

TAF

KPIT 091730Z 091818 22020KT 3SM -SHRA BKN020

FM2030 30015G25KT 3SM SHRA OVC015 TEMPO 2022 1/2SM TSRA OVC008CB

FM0100 27008KT 5SM -SHRA BKN020 OVC040 PROB40 0407 27008KT 1SM -RA

FM1000 22010KT 5SM -SHRA OVC020 BECOMG 1315 20010KT P6SM NSW

A

Routine forcast…Pittsburgh International Airport…on the 9th day of the month at 1730Z…valid for 24 hours from 1800Z on the 9th to 1800Z on the 10th…wind from 2200 at 20 knots…visibility 3 statute miles…light rain showers…broken clouds at 2,000 feet AGL. From 2030Z…wind 3000 at 15 knots, with gusts to 25 knots…3 statute miles visibility…rain showers…sky overcast at 1,500 feet AGL…temporary conditions between 2000Z and 2200Z…visibility 1/2 statute mile…thunderstorm and rain…sky overcast with bases of cumulonimbus clouds at 800 feet AGL. From 0100Z…wind 2700 at 8 knots…visibility 5 statute miles…light rain showers, broken clouds at 2,000 feet AGL…overcast skies at 4,000 feet AGL. A 40% probability…between 0400Z and 0700Z…wind 2700 at 8 knots…visibility 1 statute mile…light rain. From 1000Z…wind 2200 at 10 knots, visibility 5 statute miles, light rain showers, sky overcast at 2,000 feet AGL. Becoming…between 1300Z and 1500Z…wind 2000 and 10 knots…visibility greater than 6 statute miles…no significant weather

184
Q

7B

If an avioation area forecast (FA) predicted marginal VFR conditions along your route of flight, what ceiling and visibility conditions should you expect

A

You should expect ceilings from 1,000 to 3,000 feet AGL and visibility 3 to 5 statute miles

185
Q

7B

The winds and temperatures at your flight altitude are forecast as 1825-02. You plan to fly a true heading of 3600 and a true airspeed of 130 knots. What groundspeed can you expect? What will be the outside air temperature?

A

You can expect a groundspeed of 155 knots and an outside air temperature of -20C

186
Q

7B

Select the weather phenomena which can initiate the issuance of an AIRMET.

A. Light Icing

B. Extensive mountain obscurment

C. Sustained winds of 25 knots or more at the surface

A

B. Extensive mountain obscurment

187
Q

7B

True/False

A line of thunderstorms will usually prompt the issuance of a SIGMET (WS)

A

False

188
Q

7C

What is the significance of a square station model on a surface analysis chart

A

A square station model indicates an automated observation site

189
Q

7C

What ceiling and visibility can you expect to encounter in the shaded areas of a weather depiction chart

A

IFR conditions with cealings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles

190
Q

7C

What time does weather watch WS0349 expire

A

0200Z

191
Q

7C

At what altitude are the highest tops of the echoes in southeastern Texas

A

50,000 feet MSL

192
Q

7C

What speed and general direction is the cell in southeastern Texas moving

A

Southwest at 4 knots

193
Q

7C

Primarily, what can be ascertained by examining visible and infrared satalite weather pictures

A

The visible satellite weather picture generally is used to determine the presence of clouds as well as the cloud shape and texture. An infrared photo, on the other hand, depicts the heat radiation emitted by various cloud tops and the earth’s surface. For this reason, the infrared picture can be used to determine cloud height. Usually, cold temperatures show up as light gray or white, with high clouds appearing the whitest.

194
Q

7C

To what altitude is the U.S. low-level significant weather prog chart valid

A. 12,000 feet

B. 18,000 feet

C. 24,000 feet

A

C. 24,000 feet

195
Q

7C

On the expert from the low-level surface prog chart shown below, what does the symbol in Southern California indicate

A

Moderate turbulence from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL

196
Q

7C

What chart should you refer to for a forecast of general thunderstorm activity

A

The convective outlook chart

197
Q

7C

What wind speed and direction is forecast over New York, New York in the excerpt from the forecast winds aloft chart shown below? What is the associated forecast temperature?

A

1700 at 20 knots

30 C

198
Q

7D

What information should you provide a preflight weather briefer

A

When you request a briefing, identify yourself as a pilot flying VFR and provide the briefer with your aircraft number or your name, aircraft type, departure airport, route of flight, destination, flight altitude(s), estimated time of departure (ETD), and estimated time enroute (ETE)

199
Q

7D

Explain the difference between standard, abbreviated, and outlook briefings

A

A standard preflight briefing is the most complete weather briefing, and assumes you have no basic familiarity with the overall weather picture. An abbreviated briefing is appropriate for situations when you need only one or two specific items or would like to update weather information from a previous briefing or other weather soources. You should request an outlook briefing when your proposed departure time is six or more hours away. An outlook briefing will provide you with forecast information appropriate to your proposed flight, and can help you make an initial judgement about the feasibility of your flight.

200
Q

7D

True/False

The telephone information briefing service (TIBS) replaces the need for an individual briefing from an FSS or NWS specialist

A

False

201
Q

7D

What type of recorded in-flight weather advisory provides specific route forecasts and winds aloft information over selected NDBs and VORs in Alaska

A. EFAS

B. TWEB

C. HIWAS

A

B. TWEB

202
Q

7D

What are two sources that you can use to obtain HIWAS frequencies

A

Sectional charts and the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

203
Q

7D

What service is provided by EFAS?

A. Preflight briefings

B. Closing flight plans

C. Hazardous weather advisories

A

C. Hazardous weather advisories

204
Q

7D

When flying below 18,000 feet MSL, what frequency should you use to contact EFAS

A

122.0 MHz

205
Q

7D

Which type of automated weather observation system can determine precipitation intensity

A

The automated surface observing system (ASOS)

206
Q

8A

Where can you normally find the performance charts for your airplane

A

In the Performance section of your airplane’s POH

207
Q

8A

Describe how density altitude affects aircraft performance

A

As density altitude icreases, engine horsepower decreases for normally aspirated engines since the actual amount of air to support combustion has decreased. In addition, both the wing and the propeller lose efficiency in thinner air

208
Q

8A

True/False

Takeoff performance depends mainly upon factors that can be measured or calculated in advance, such as density altitude, pressure altitude, temperature, wind, aircraft weight, and runway gradient or surface.

A

True

209
Q

8A

Refer to the wind component chart shown below to determine the headwind and crosswind component for a departure on Runway 18 with a reported wind of 2100 at 20 knots

A

Headwind: 17 knots

Crosswind: 10 knots

210
Q

8A

What is the runway gradient

A. The material used to surface the runway

B. The amount of change in runway height over its length

C. The direction of the runway as it relates to magnetic north

A

B. The amount of change in runway height over its length

211
Q

8A

Use the chart shown below and the following conditions to determine the ground roll and distance necessary to clear a 50-foot obstacle

Conditions: Pressure Altitude: 6,000 feet

Temperature: 200C

Flaps: 100

Runway: Paved, Level, and dry

Wind: Calm

Weight: 2,400 pounds

A

Ground roll: 1665 feet

Total distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle: 3,300 feet

212
Q

8A

True/False

As altitude increases, the best angle-of-climb speed will decrease, and the best rate-of-climb speed will increase

A

False

213
Q

8A

Name the three important factors affecting the climb segment of a flight

A

Time, Fuel, and Distance

214
Q

8A

Select the items which would be found on a cruise performance chart

A. Time, fuel, and distance to climb

B. Fuel consumption and true airspeed at various power settings

C. Power required for level flight, including maximum level flight speed and L/Dmax

A

B. Fuel consumption and true airspeed at various power settings

215
Q

8A

From the following range graph, determine the expected range in nautical miles with and without reserve

Pressure Altitude: 4,000 feet

Standard Temperature

75% Power

48 Gallons Usuable Fuel

A

495 nautical miles with reserves

555 nautical miles without reserves

216
Q

8A

True/False

Landing weight is not a factor that must be considered during an approach

A

False

217
Q

8B

What is the term for the reference plane from which all horizontal measurements are made for weight and balance calculations

A

Datum or reference datum

218
Q

8B

How is unusable fuel defined

A

Fuel which cannot be drained or safely used in flight

219
Q

8B

What constitutes the difference between basic empty weight and licensed empty weight

A. The weight of usable oil

B. The weight of unusable oil

C. The weight of unusable fuel

A

A. The weight of usable oil

220
Q

8B

If your weight check shows that the airplane will exceed the maximum ramp weight specified in the POH, which of the following actions would be appropriate

A. Take off at that weight, but not taxi

B. Rearrange the load to bring it within CG limits

C. Remove passengers, cargo, or fuel until the weight limit is reached

A

C. Remove passengers, cargo, or fuel until the weight limit is reached

221
Q

8B

What is the weight of 42 gallons of aviation gasoline

A. 242 pounds

B. 248 pounds

C. 252 pounds

A

C. 252 pounds

222
Q

8B

The moment for a rear-seat passenger is 14,800. If this passenger sits in a front seat, will her moment be higher or lower

A

Lower

223
Q

8B

True/False

Moment is usually expressed in inches

A

False

224
Q

8B

You are planning a trip with three friends. You and your front seat passenger weigh a total of 375 pounds. The rear seat passengers weigh 250 pounds. The duffle bags in the standard baggage compartment weigh 65 pounds. Using the accompanying graph, find the total moment of the passengers and bags

A

75,000 inch-pounds

225
Q

8B

A plane has an empty weight of 1,900 pounds, and the empty moment is 181,200 inch-pounds. If it has a maximum weight of 2,822 pounds, how much usuable fuel can be loaded and still remain within weight and CG limits.

A

38 1/2 gallons

226
Q

8B

The center of gravity of a fully loaded airplane will be how many inches from the datum

A

99.4 inches

227
Q

8B

While preparing for a flight in another airplane, you discover that the proposed loading places the CG one inch behind the rear CG limit. The total weight is 2,655 pounds. Use the weight-shift formula to determine how much weight needs to be shifted from the baggage area (arm=140) to the back seat (arm=114) to bring the CG within limits.

A

102 pounds

228
Q

8B

The proposed loading places the CG one inch behind the rear CG limit. The total weight is 2,655 pounds. If flight had been attempted without changing the loading what flight characteristics could be expected.

A. Tail-heaviness, requiring additional forward trim

B. Light control forces, longitudinal (pitch) instability, and a higher cruise speed for the power setting.

C. All of the above

A

C. All of the above

229
Q

8B

Compared to a lightly loaded airplane, what flight characteristics could be expected from a heavily loaded airplane.

A. It will stall at a higher speed, cruise at a lower speed, and have less range.

B. It will land at a lower speed, cruise at a higher speed, and stall at a higher angle of attack

C. It will have a higher cruise speed and range, a reduced rate of climb, and stall at the same speed.

A

A. It will stall at a higher speed, cruise at a lower speed, and have less range

230
Q

8B

If the center of gravity is too far forward, what flight characteristics would you expect

A. The airplane would be less stable, and easy to overcontrol

B. The airplane would be more stable, and stall at a higher speed

C. The airplane would be less stable, and stall at a higher angle of attack

A

B. The airplane would be more stable, and stall at a higher speed

231
Q

8C

If you cover 61 nautical miles in 41.5 minutes, what is your groundspeed.

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

88 knots

232
Q

8C

After landing from a 362 nautical mile flight, you find that it takes 32.5 gallons to refill the fuel tanks. If the tanks were full when you took off, and your groundspeed was 138 knots, what was the average fuel consumption rate for the flight

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

12.4 gallons per hour

233
Q

8C

At a pressure altitude of 6,900 feet and an outside temperature of 70 C, your airspeed indicator shows 96 knots. What is your approximate true airspeed? Why is this number approximate?

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

107 knots: Indicated rather than calibrated airspeed was used

234
Q

8C

Your POH provides a fuel consumption figure of 8.7 gallons per hour for your planned power setting and altitude. How much fuel would be used in 2 hours, 30 minutes?

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

21.8 gallons

235
Q

8C

How many nautical miles are in 148 statue miles?

(Use either an electronic or mechnical flight computer)

A

129 nautical miles

236
Q

8C

With a true airspeed of 88 knots and winds from 2400 at 16 knots, what heading would be required to maintain a course of 1370? What groundspeed would you expect?

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

1470

90 knots

237
Q

8C

What is the estimated time enroute for a flight of 194 nautical miles on a course of 0840. Your true airspeed is 129 knots, and pressure altitude is 5,200 feet. The wind is from 2330 at 18 knots, and outside air temperature is 100 C.

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

81 minutes

238
Q

8C

Estimate the time enroute for a flight of 280 statute miles on a course of 0220. Your calibrated airspeed is 96 miles per hour, and pressure altitude is 9,000 feet. The wind is from 3200 at 22 knots, and outside air temperature is 770 F

(Use either an Electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

2 hours, 46 minutes

239
Q

8C

Suppose you have been holding a heading of 1400 to maintain a course of 1330 between 2 checkpoints 128 nautical miles apart. It took 37 minutes to cover that distance at a true airspeed of 198 knots. What is the wind direction and speed.

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

2480 at 27 knots

240
Q

8C

What heading should you fly to hold a course of 3550 if your true airspeed is 116 knots and the winds are from 0500 at 15 knots? What groundspeed would you expect?

(Use either an electronic or mechanical flight computer)

A

0010

107 knots

241
Q

9A

What is a line of position?

A. A specific visual chechpoint, such as a road intersection, a bridge over a stream, or a racetrack.

B. A range of possible positions along a specific line, one of which is the actual position of the aircraft

C. A dead reckoning course that has been corrected for wind drift as well as the effects of magnetic fields

A

B. A range of possible positions along a specific line, one of which is the actual position of the aircraft

242
Q

9A

What are the advantages of pilotage over dead reckoning

A

Positions are found by direct observation of visual landmarks, off-course drift can be detected in between checkpoints, and the results of course corrections or changes in winds can usually be observed directly. It is the simplist form of navigation, requires no equipment other than a chart and a pencil, and is immune from mechanical failures or breakdowns

243
Q

9A

True/False

Dead reckoning uses calculations of time, speed, distance and direction to navigate without reference to visual landmarks

A

True

244
Q

9A

True/False

Magnetic variation is the difference between true north and magnetic north

A

True

245
Q

9A

What information is usually entered on a navigation log

A. The boundaries of restricted airspace, engine power settings, and the names and locations of alternate airports along the course

B. Information on the heights of obstructions along the route, and the lengths of the runways ot the departure and destination airports

C. Distance between checkpoints, cruising altitudes, true airspeed, wind correction angles, corrections for magnetic variation and compass deviation, estimated and actual groundspeed, fuel consumption rates, and estimated and actual times between checkpoints.

A

C. Distance between checkpoints, cruising altitudes, truee airspeed, wind correction angles, corrections for magnetic variation and compass deviation, estimated and actual groundspeed, fuel consumption rates, and estimated and actual times between checkpoints.

246
Q

9A

Select the true statement regarding the magnetic compass

A. Magnetic fields within the airplane create magnetic variation

B. Because of variation, the magnetic compass never points to true north

C. The compass heading is the source used to set the gyroscopic heading indicator

A

C. The compass heading is the source used to set the gyroscopic heading indicator.

247
Q

9A

Name at least threee factors that you would consider when choosing a cruising altitude

A

Terrain and obstruction clearance, climb time and aircraft performance, effects of headwinds or tailwinds, radio reception range, and the VFR cruising altitude rule

248
Q

9A

What altitude would be required by the VFR cruising altitude rule for an airplane on a magnetic course of 2400

A. 2,500 feet MSL

B. 3,500 feet MSL

C. 4,500 feet MSL

A

C. 4,500 feet MSL

249
Q

9A

With which FAA facilities should you close your VFR flight plan

A

Flight service stations

250
Q

9A

What should you do if you find that you will reach your destination 18 minutes after the ETA on your VFR flight plan

A

Extend your ETA by calling any FSS within radio range

251
Q

9A

True/False

When a VFR flight plan is opened, only the aircraft identification, type, destination, and ETA are transmitted to the destination FSS

A

True

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