Chapter Quizzes Flashcards
(359 cards)
1
Q
It is a busy Friday night in the aid room when a child arrives complaining of abdominal pain. The child states that her parents dropped her off and that they are at the movies. You are concerned because the child is a minor with no adult to give consent for treatment. You would: A) recognize that you must have some adult’s permission and try to locate an aunt or an uncle. B) do as much of an assessment as possible without touching the child to determine if a life-threatening emergency exists. C) recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat. D) recognize that you need the parents’ consent and try to reach them by phone.
A
C) recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat.
2
Q
Although regulations may differ from state to state, the general laws that may protect OEC Technicians from liability while providing emergency care to a patient are known as: A) emergency rescue protection laws. B) volunteer rescue liability laws. C) first rescuer liability laws. D) Good Samaritan laws.
A
D) Good Samaritan laws.
3
Q
Most teaching systems have found that the most effective way to master technical skills is by: A) teaching the skills to a class. B) personally practicing the skills. C) memorizing the skill guides in a book. D) observing others doing the skills.
A
B) personally practicing the skills.
4
Q
In order to maintain OEC certification, you must: A) complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every three years. B) demonstrate CPR and AED skills every two years. C) complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every year. D) complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.
A
D) complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.
5
Q
What type of consent would apply for an unresponsive 8-year-old male victim of a motorcycle collision? A) Implied consent B) Expressed consent C) Informed consent D) Assumed consent
A
A) Implied consent
6
Q
You arrive at the scene of an accident where a 22-year-old female skier has hit a tree and has a large bleeding cut on her head. When you ask her if she needs help, she refuses care and says she just needs to sit for a while. Noticing the amount of bleeding, you calmly express your concern for her, but she continues to say she doesn’t want help. You hesitate to touch her because you are concerned that if you do, she could accuse you of: A) duty to act. B) battery. C) breach of duty. D) assault.
A
B) battery.
7
Q
While in the aid room treating a patient with a fractured wrist, the patient tells you that he was skiing on a slope that was too difficult for him, and that he started going too fast and got out of control. You recognize that this information must be documented on the accident report because it provides evidence of: A) assumption of risk. B) contributory negligence. C) willful negligence. D) gross negligence.
A
B) contributory negligence.
8
Q
You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured. You recognize that if you approach the collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have a reasonable expectation that you will provide care. This expectation is known as: A) the absence of negligence. B) moral obligation. C) professional ethics. D) the doctrine of public reliance.
A
D) the doctrine of public reliance.
9
Q
Which of the following methods is the best method for ensuring that the treatment rendered by OEC Technicians meets or exceeds customer expectations and national education standards for emergency medical personnel? A) Public education B) Quality improvement C) Continuity of care D) Prevention training
A
B) Quality improvement
10
Q
Guidelines developed at the local level by emergency personnel familiar with an area’s medical needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care are: A) advanced procedures. B) protocols. C) medical attributes. D) policies.
A
B) protocols.
11
Q
Which of the following tips is not a part of common radio etiquette? A) Hold the transmit key in for 1-2 seconds before speaking. B) Do not use the patient’s name. C) Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds. D) Speak directly into the microphone.
A
C) Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.
12
Q
The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as a patient transitions from initial contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes: A) integration of health services. B) medical direction. C) online medical control. D) continuity of care.
A
D) continuity of care.
13
Q
An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of: A) an Emergency Medical Responder. B) an advanced Emergency Medical Technician. C) a Paramedic. D) an Emergency Medical Technician.
A
A) an Emergency Medical Responder.
14
Q
All of the following are types of quality improvement except: A) recurrent. B) retrospective. C) concurrent. D) prospective.
A
A) recurrent.
15
Q
Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of indirect medical control? A) Provision through the use of protocols B) Common use for “pre-authorizing” routine and life-saving procedures C) Communication by radio D) Use for expediting patient care
A
C) Communication by radio
16
Q
Which of the following is most effective for reducing the incidence of injury or illness in skiing or other outdoor activities? A) Prevention B) Clinical care C) Public access D) Emergency personnel
A
A) Prevention
17
Q
For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the least desirable urgent move for OEC Technicians to use is the: A) blanket drag. B) feet drag. C) shoulder drag. D) underarm-wrist drag.
A
B) feet drag.
18
Q
Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object? A) What type of terrain is involved? B) Which carrying device will work best? C) How heavy is the object? D) How long will it take to make the move?
A
D) How long will it take to make the move?
19
Q
Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by: A) patients with ankle injuries. B) obese and young patients. C) patients with visual impairments. D) elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
A
D) elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
20
Q
Ideally an LZ should be flat (horizontal) or have a slope that is less than or equal to: A) a 4-degree pitch. B) a 12-degree pitch. C) an 8-degree pitch. D) a 6-degree pitch.
A
C) an 8-degree pitch.
21
Q
Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have: A) handles. B) stitched edges. C) insulating qualities. D) waterproof qualities.
A
A) handles.
22
Q
The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows easier breathing because: A) air flows more easily through a patient’s nose compared to a head-downhill position. B) the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position. C) it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport. D) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
A
D) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
23
Q
Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with good body mechanics in a power lift? A) Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle. B) Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward. C) Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches). D) Straighten your legs to lift.
A
D) Straighten your legs to lift.
24
Q
The first step in packaging a patient is: A) typically placing the patient’s injury uphill. B) deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport. C) deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill. D) deciding the fastest route of transport.
A
A) typically placing the patient’s injury uphill
25
Which of the following findings is a symptom? A) Hives resulting from an allergic reaction B) A deep laceration C) Ringing in the ears D) Difficulty breathing
C) Ringing in the ears
26
As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of the ankle is:
A) P.
B) T.
C) S.
D) C.
C) S.
27
A 36-year-old patient who has overdosed on an unknown drug, is breathing and will not open his eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC Technician do first?
A) Perform a shoulder pinch.
B) Identify what drug the patient took.
C) Check the patient's vital signs.
D) Assess the patient for a radial pulse.
A) Perform a shoulder pinch.
28
You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child's mental status, you should first:
A) say loudly, "Open your eyes!"
B) apply pressure to the child's nail beds.
C) ask the mother how long the child has been asleep.
D) consider the child to be unresponsive.
A) say loudly, "Open your eyes!"
29
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands capillary refill?
A) "Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill."
B) "A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient is well oxygenated."
C) "For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds."
D) "Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants and children."
C) "For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds."
30
Which of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a critically injured patient?
A) Decreased level of responsiveness
B) Inadequate respiratory effort
C) Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin
D) Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen
D) Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen
31
A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ________ is associated with a high risk for major neurological injury.
A) 10
B) 8
C) 12
D) 13
D) 13
32
You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, which site should you check?
A) The femoral artery
B) The brachial artery
C) The radial artery
D) The temporal artery
B) The brachial artery
33
Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?
A) They are forms published by the NSAA or the ski area's insurance company.
B) National standards allow up to three days after the accident for the forms to be fully completed.
C) They may become part of the patient's permanent medical record.
D) You should only document the care provided to the patient but not scene information, because the latter can be confusing.
C) They may become part of the patient's permanent medical record.
34
Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient's pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action?
A) Report the error to your patrol director and have him/her take care of it.
B) Don't worry about it because it did not seem to matter to the patient.
C) Complete a new refusal form and include the additional information.
D) Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.
D) Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.
35
When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because "my chest is hurting." He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain "feels just like my heart attack two years ago." Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?
A) Possible heart attack
B) Chest pain with hypertension
C) Myocardial infarction
D) "My chest is hurting."
D) "My chest is hurting."
36
In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:
A) outdoor emergency care.
B) organized, effective, and complete.
C) objective, effective, and care given.
D) organized, error free, and checked.
D) organized, error free, and checked.
37
An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n):
A) required abuse reporter.
B) child guardian.
C) emergency protector.
D) mandated reporter.
D) mandated reporter.
38
When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:
A) their condition when you last saw them.
B) the names of witnesses to what you said to them.
C) that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
D) whether they were accompanied by anyone when you left them.
C) that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
39
After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include?
A) Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
B) Surname, location of accident, age, insurance company
C) Surname, age, address, chief complaint
D) Age, next of kin, treatment initiated, request for EMS (if needed)
A) Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
40
A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n):
A) objective finding.
B) subjective finding.
C) provoking factor.
D) pertinent negative.
B) subjective finding.
41
You arrive at the scene where a patient has a possible fracture of the left hip. You note that she is lying on her back and her left leg is turned inward. You would document this position as:
A) supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity.
B) supine with left rotation of the right leg.
C) supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
D) lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg.
C) supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
42
Which one of the following anatomical statements is true?
A) The hip is distal to the knee.
B) The hand is proximal to the elbow.
C) The knee is proximal to the ankle.
D) The shoulder is distal to the hand.
C) The knee is proximal to the ankle.
43
Which one of the following descriptions best describes the normal anatomical position?
A) Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
B) Supine with the arms at the sides and the palms facing downward
C) Prone with the arms upward and the palms facing upward
D) Upright and facing away from you, with the arms raised and the legs straight
A) Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
44
A new patroller tells you that he injured a tendon above his patella three years ago. You recognize that this injury involves a structure that:
A) connects muscles to the patella.
B) holds and secures the bones of the knee.
C) connects the cartilage in the knee.
D) attaches a ligament to the knee.
A) connects muscles to the patella.
45
Which of the following groups of bones could be involved in a patient with a "broken leg"?
A) Radius, ulna, humerus
B) Orbit, maxillae, mandible
C) Femur, tibia, fibula
D) Acetabulum, calcaneous, carpals
C) Femur, tibia, fibula
46
The lower jaw is also called the:
A) zygoma.
B) maxilla.
C) mastoid.
D) mandible.
D) mandible.
47
The bones of the upper extremities include the:
A) radius, ulna, and tarsals.
B) humerus and radius.
C) phalanges and tibia.
D) humerus and calcaneous.
B) humerus and radius.
48
In which of the following respiratory structures would a blockage cause total cessation of air flow into and out of the lungs?
A) The right bronchus
B) The esophagus
C) The nasopharynx
D) The trachea
D) The trachea
49
Which of the following functions is a function of the respiratory system?
A) Providing nutrients to cells
B) Releasing oxygen from the body
C) Transporting oxygen throughout the body
D) Providing the body oxygen
D) Providing the body oxygen
50
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs?
A) Release
B) Inspiration
C) Exhalation
D) Inhalation
C) Exhalation
51
The primary function of the heart is:
A) pumping blood throughout the body.
B) maintaining the volume of blood.
C) oxygenating blood in the lungs.
D) transferring oxygen to the cells.
A) pumping blood throughout the body.
52
Which of the following structures brings oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium?
A) The pulmonary artery
B) The aorta
C) The right ventricle
D) The vena cavae
D) The vena cavae
53
The pressure exerted on the inside walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called:
A) residual pressure.
B) diastolic pressure.
C) arterial pressure.
D) systolic pressure.
D) systolic pressure.
54
The nervous system is subdivided into which two main parts?
A) The central and peripheral nerves
B) The involuntary and voluntary muscular systems
C) The brain and spinal cord
D) The brain and extremity nerves
A) The central and peripheral nerves
55
What body system provides support and structure to the body?
A) The skeletal system
B) The endocrine system
C) The exocrine system
D) The nervous system
A) The skeletal system
56
A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the functions of the skin, to which of the following conditions is the patient most susceptible?
A) Infection
B) Heart problems
C) Endocrine disorders
D) Fluid overload
A) Infection
57
You are called to the lodge for a patient who has fallen. The report indicates the patient has a hematoma in the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find the injury in which area of the head?
A) The top
B) The back
C) The side
D) The front
B) The back
58
Under normal circumstances, carbon dioxide is excreted from the body by what structure?
A) The urinary tract
B) The hepatic vein
C) The lungs
D) The kidney
C) The lungs
59
The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the:
A) abdominal cavity.
B) pelvic cavity.
C) spinal cavity.
D) heart.
A) abdominal cavity.
60
The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs?
A) The rectum and the reproductive organs
B) The bladder and the kidneys
C) The pancreas and the bladder
D) The kidneys and the spleen
A) The rectum and the reproductive organs
61
In humans, the body systems interact with each other to maintain a stable internal environment. An example of this is the nervous system, which works with the cardiovascular system to maintain a steady blood pressure. The ability of an organism to adjust its physiologic processes to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is known as:
A) dependency.
B) homeostasis.
C) metabolism.
D) electrophysiology.
B) homeostasis.
62
The spleen is part of which body system?
A) The cardiovascular system
B) The gastrointestinal system
C) The endocrine system
D) The lymphatic system
D) The lymphatic system
63
A man lying in the prone position is:
A) lying face up on his back.
B) lying on his back with his legs elevated higher than his head.
C) sitting with his legs slightly bent.
D) lying face down on his stomach.
D) lying face down on his stomach.
64
The wrist is:
A) proximal to the elbow.
B) external to the elbow.
C) medial to the elbow.
D) distal to the elbow.
D) distal to the elbow.
65
A patellar fracture affects which part of the body?
A) The elbow
B) The tibia
C) The knee
D) The hip
C) The knee
66
Which of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true?
A) The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.
B) The skin contains four layers: the epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layers.
C) The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
D) The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin.
C) The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
67
A patient experiencing thoracic spine pain has pain in his:
A) neck.
B) upper back.
C) tailbone.
D) lower back.
B) upper back.
68
Which of the following lists identifies the regions of the spinal column from superior to inferior?
A) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
B) Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
C) Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
D) Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral
A) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
69
The terms occipital, frontal, and parietal refer to what part of the body?
A) The spine
B) The cranium
C) The pelvis
D) The chest
B) The cranium
70
A patient has suffered damage to his brainstem. As a result of this injury which of the following signs might you expect to see?
A) Pinpoint pupils
B) Sweating
C) Abnormal respirations
D) Muscle spasms
C) Abnormal respirations
71
Which one of the following events causes an individual to take a breath?
A) The diaphragm contracts.
B) The intercostal muscles relax.
C) Pressure in the chest increases.
D) The chest cavity decreases in size.
A) The diaphragm contracts.
72
After examining his patient, your partner tells you that he believes the patient has hyperflexed the knee. What has happened if a patient has hyperflexed a knee?
A) The patient has straightened the knee into a normal position.
B) The patient has straightened the knee beyond its normal range of movement.
C) The patient has pushed the kneecap too far to the right or left.
D) The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
D) The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
73
You are assisting in the care of an elderly patient complaining of shortness of breath. You place the patient on 15L of oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and place him in a high Fowler's position. This means that you will place this patient on his:
A) back, with his upper body elevated at 45° from the waist.
B) back, with his head down and his legs elevated higher than the head.
C) left side, with his left arm over his head.
D) back, with his upper body elevated at 90° from the waist.
D) back, with his upper body elevated at 90° from the waist.
74
The structure containing the vocal cords is the:
A) larynx.
B) pharynx.
C) sternum.
D) trachea.
A) larynx.
75
The leaf-shaped flap that helps prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system is called:
A) the pharynx.
B) a bronchiole.
C) the trachea.
D) the epiglottis.
D) the epiglottis.
76
Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to body cells?
A) Nasopharynx, oropharynx, trachea, alveoli
B) Pharynx, larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles
C) Nose, pharynx, esophagus, bronchi, alveoli
D) Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
D) Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
77
You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the great concern regarding potential airway occlusion?
A) Collapse of the bronchi
B) Spasm of the epiglottis
C) Relaxation of the tongue
D) Swelling of the larynx
C) Relaxation of the tongue
78
Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?
A) A 45-year-old female who is alert and vomiting blood
B) A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
C) A 67-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is unresponsive
D) A 85-year-old female who hit her head on a tree limb and is now responsive to painful stimuli
B) A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
79
You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient's mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would:
A) administer abdominal thrusts.
B) perform a finger sweep.
C) encourage the patient to cough.
D) insert an airway.
B) perform a finger sweep.
80
Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on a patient's face?
A) If two rescuers are using the BVM, the mask need only be placed over the mouth while the nose is pinched closed.
B) The wide portion of the mask is at the top of the nose, and the narrow part is below the lower lip.
C) The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
D) The mask is properly positioned when the top portion lies over the bridge of the nose, and the lower portion is below the chin.
C) The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
81
By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have:
A) kept the tongue away from the airway.
B) obtained a patent airway by keeping the mouth from closing.
C) minimized the risk of vomiting by closing off the esophagus.
D) protected the airway from vomit or other secretions.
A) kept the tongue away from the airway.
82
For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated?
A) An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
B) A responsive but confused patient with stridorous respirations
C) A patient with snoring respirations who coughs as the oral airway is placed into his mouth
D) A patient who has vomited and responds to painful stimuli by moaning
A) An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
83
You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique?
A) The rescuer uses a tongue depressor to press the back of the patient's tongue downward and then inserts the oral airway upside down.
B) The rescuer inserts the oral airway sideways into the mouth and then rotates it 180 degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue.
C) The rescuer inserts the oral airway in its normal anatomic position until the flange of the airway is 1 cm above the patient's lips.
D) The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient's mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
D) The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient's mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
84
You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:
A) remove the airway.
B) reassure and calm the patient.
C) leave the airway in but stop ventilations.
D) suction the airway.
A) remove the airway.
85
You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the:
A) diameter of the patient's little finger.
B) distance from the patient's nose to the earlobe.
C) diameter of the patient's larger nostril.
D) distance from the patient's mouth to the angle of the jaw.
B) distance from the patient's nose to the earlobe.
86
Which of the following phrases best describes oxygen?
A) A moist gas that supports combustion
B) A highly flammable substance
C) An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
D) An odorless gas that is cloudy when pressurized
C) An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
87
To ensure an oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM to a patient using a nonrebreather mask, you should:
A) select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
B) hear a hissing sound when you turn on the oxygen.
C) slowly release oxygen from the tank until the pressure is 15 psi.
D) "crack" the oxygen tank after attaching the regulator.
A) select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
88
Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient?
A) Setting the oxygen flow rate to between 6 LPM and 16 LPM
B) Ensuring that the reservoir fully collapses with each breath
C) Instructing the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on
D) Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient
D) Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient
89
Which of the following occurs during the proper use of a nonrebreather mask?
A) The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
B) The air inhaled by the patient will be recycled with oxygen.
C) Oxygen is delivered into the lungs when the patient not inhaling.
D) The mask is comfortable and well tolerated by all patients when properly applied.
A) The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
90
What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians?
A) A venture mask
B) A simple face mask
C) A nasal cannula
D) A nonrebreather mask
D) A nonrebreather mask
91
Which of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true?
A) The oxygen flow rate can be adjusted anywhere from 1 LPM to 10 LPM, depending on how much oxygen the patient needs.
B) A nasal cannula is preferred over a nonrebreather mask because the cannula administers the oxygen through the nose instead of through the mouth.
C) It is best to see how a patient tolerates a nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient.
D) When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24-44 percent oxygen.
D) When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24-44 percent oxygen.
92
The lower airway consists of which of the following structures?
A) Epiglottis, trachea, and bronchi
B) Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
C) Larynx, bronchi, and alveoli
D) Pharynx, bronchi, and alveoli
B) Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
93
You have opened and cleared your patient's airway. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to:
A) place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.
B) maintain the head tilt-chin lift position.
C) place a suction catheter in the corner of the patient's mouth to continually remove secretions.
D) use the crossed finger technique.
A) place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.
94
A time-honored technique that may be used on conscious or unconscious patients to quickly remove fluid and solids from the airway is:
A) a finger sweep.
B) a jaw thrust.
C) gravity.
D) the crossed finger technique.
C) gravity.
95
You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last:
A) 12 minutes.
B) 15 minutes.
C) 8.5 minutes.
D) 5 minutes.
C) 8.5 minutes.
96
You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct?
A) "After turning the patient on his side, rest the patient's head on your aid pack."
B) "Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side."
C) "Elevate the patient's lower body so that his oral secretions will drain out easily."
D) "Roll the patient onto his side and then hold him there until help arrives."
B) "Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side."
97
What does the letter S in the acronym SLIC stand for?
A) Septum
B) Slowly
C) Size
D) Slippery
C) Size
98
You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to:
A) check the pressure gauge indicator to determine how much pressure is in the cylinder.
B) turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
C) turn the oxygen control knob to 15 LPM.
D) attach the nonrebreather mask to the regulator and fill the reservoir.
B) turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
99
To clear an airway of fluid and debris, suctioning should be applied:
A) for as long as needed.
B) for no more than 10-15 seconds at a time.
C) as deeply as needed to remove as much fluid as possible.
D) for no more than 30 seconds at a time.
B) for no more than 10-15 seconds at a time.
100
Which of the following statements is the best tip for artificially ventilating a patient using a bag-valve mask?
A) It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
B) If the patient has dentures, remove them so that a better mask-to-face seal can be achieved.
C) Always remove the oropharyngeal airway so that it is not pushed deep into the patient's airway during ventilations.
D) To direct air into the lungs and not into the stomach, flex the patient's head forward while ventilating with the bag-valve mask.
A) It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
101
While a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest receives emergency care you note that her abdomen grows larger with each ventilation provided from a bag-valve mask. What instructions should you provide?
A) "Let's slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath."
B) "I need another rescuer to apply firm pressure over the stomach while we ventilate this patient."
C) "The ventilation rate and the force of ventilation need to be increased so that air reaches the lungs."
D) "Try delivering each ventilation quickly, and let's slow down the rate."
A) "Let's slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath."
102
You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and not breathing after a fall while rock climbing. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, you must immediately:
A) open his airway using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and begin ventilations with the bag-valve mask.
B) administer oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask.
C) immobilize him on a long spine board and then start artificial ventilations.
D) perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
D) perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
103
Which of the following ventilation methods is recommended because it provides the most effective ventilations?
A) Use of a bag-valve mask (BVM) with reservoir attached, receiving air, by two OEC Technicians
B) Use of a BVM with O2 reservoir attached, by one rescuer
C) Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by one OEC Technician
D) Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
D) Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
104
Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
A) It is a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly.
B) It is less painful for the patient.
C) It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
D) It is the rescuer's preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C) It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
105
Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct?
A) Trauma patients should always have their airway opened with the jaw-thrust maneuver, whereas medical patients should receive the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
B) Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
C) Research has shown that the jaw-thrust maneuver is easiest to perform and is therefore indicated for critically injured trauma patients.
D) The jaw-thrust maneuver is useful in trauma patients but only if they are complaining of head or neck pain.
B) Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
106
You have been called to treat a 47-year-old man complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. His skin is diaphoretic and cool. Which of the following actions should you take first?
A) Radio for an ambulance with ALS.
B) Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask.
C) Help him administer his nitroglycerin.
D) Obtain a SAMPLE history.
B) Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask.
107
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an understanding of chest pain and acute myocardial infarction?
A) "If the patient experiences chest pain that radiates into the left arm, it is most likely a heart attack. If the pain radiates anywhere else, it is most likely not cardiac in origin."
B) "Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of 'severe heartburn.' "
C) "If the chest pain started during activity, it is most likely cardiac in origin. If the pain started while the patient was at rest, it is most likely not cardiac in origin."
D) "If the patient's chest pain does not go away with nitroglycerin, you can assume that the medication has expired and is no longer effective."
"Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of 'severe heartburn.' "
108
Aspirin may be used in a patient who has chest pain suggestive of a heart attack because aspirin may:
A) decrease the chest pain caused by the possible heart attack.
B) break up a blood clot that is occluding a coronary artery.
C) decrease the ability of platelets to form clots.
D) relieve the headache that is caused by the administration of nitroglycerin.
C) decrease the ability of platelets to form clots.
109
You are with a patient who is complaining of chest pain that radiates into his arm and neck. He is alert and oriented and has an open airway and adequate breathing. His pulse is strong and his skin is cool and slightly diaphoretic. His pulse is 84, his respirations are 18, and his blood pressure is 90/62 mmHg. Responses to SAMPLE questioning include a history of a previous heart attack and chronic lung disease; an allergy to aspirin; possession of nitroglycerin; and last ate about 6 hours ago. Based on this information, you would not:
A) assist the patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet.
B) reassess his blood pressure in 5 minutes.
C) let him assume a position of comfort.
D) place the patient on oxygen.
A) assist the patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet.
110
When assisting a patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet, it is:
A) swallowed with only an ounce of water.
B) chewed and then allowed to dissolve slowly.
C) placed between the cheek and teeth.
D) placed under the tongue.
D) placed under the tongue.
111
Before nitroglycerin is administered, you should ensure that:
A) the patient rates his chest pain as at least 7 on a scale of 1 to 10.
B) nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient.
C) the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 110 mmHg.
D) the patient is standing.
B) nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient.
112
Which of the following medications, if taken in the last 24 hours, would be a contraindication to administering nitroglycerin?
A) Tylenol
B) Aspirin
C) Coumadin
D) Viagra
D) Viagra
113
You are assisting a 67-year-old patient with chest pain. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets but his pain remains a 7 out of 10. He is diaphoretic; his respirations are 18 per minute and adequate; his pulse is 72; and his blood pressure 80/62 mmHg. He is on a nonrebreather mask at 15L per minute. You would:
A) attach him to an AED.
B) give him only half of a nitroglycerin tablet.
C) assist him in taking his third and final nitroglycerin tablet.
D) reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by ALS care.
D) reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by ALS care.
114
Which of the following actions is most important before assisting a patient to take prescribed nitroglycerin?
A) Evaluate the patient's blood pressure.
B) Determine whether the patient has any allergies.
C) Attach the patient to an AED.
D) Determine whether the patient has a headache.
A) Evaluate the patient's blood pressure.
115
You are in the first-aid area assisting a patient who just arrived with chest pain. He relates a history of angina that usually resolves with nitroglycerin. The patient states that the pain started when he was skiing through the bumps. Over the last 20 minutes, he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets and rested, but the pain has not gone away. Your next action would be to:
A) place him on high-flow oxygen.
B) check his blood pressure because he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets.
C) attach an AED in case he goes into cardiac arrest.
D) try one more nitroglycerin tablet because nitroglycerin usually relieves his pain.
A) place him on high-flow oxygen.
116
You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. She describes the pain as sharp and states that it increases when she takes a deep breath. You note that she is tachypneic. Her BP is 130/82 and her pulse is 100. Based on her presentation, you suspect that she may have:
A) pericardial effusion.
B) an aortic dissection/aneurysm.
C) pulmonary embolism.
D) unstable angina.
C) pulmonary embolism.
117
Which of the following actions is not an action you should take when using an AED?
A) Ensure that the chest is dry and wiped clean of any medications.
B) Ensure that no one is touching the patient when analyzing the patient's heart rhythm and when delivering a shock.
C) Apply any set of electrodes as patient age is not relevant.
D) Use the electrode to rip away excess chest hair if the electrode is not sticking well to the chest.
C) Apply any set of electrodes as patient age is not relevant.
118
Three commonly used cardiac medications are:
A) Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix.
B) Lipitor, Dilantin, and Tenormin.
C) Coumadin, Zesteril, and an Epi-pen.
D) Plavix, Nitroglycerine, and Albuterol.
A) Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix.
119
In performing CPR on an infant:
A) place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest.
B) place the heel of one hand on the sternum just above an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are about 1/2 inch deep.
C) stop to check for a pulse after administering about 100 compressions.
D) check the carotid artery for a pulse before beginning compressions.
A) place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest.
120
A 62-year-old man presents with a complaint of abdominal pain radiating to his groin. He also complains of dizziness. On examination, his abdomen is tender and you feel a large pulsatile mass. His signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
B) a ruptured spleen.
C) acute embolism.
D) cardiogenic shock.
A) an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
121
Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled or distant heart tones in which the heartbeat is difficult to auscultate are hallmark signs of:
A) aortic aneurysm.
B) pericardial tamponade.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) pericarditis.
B) pericardial tamponade.
122
One complication of an acute myocardial infarction may be cardiogenic shock. Based on your training, you would define cardiogenic shock as a(n):
A) absolute or relative shortage of blood supply to a tissue due to a blood clot.
) abrupt cessation of the regular electrical activity of the heart.
C) condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart's inability to adequately pump blood.
D) acute illness in which the cardiac muscle does not get enough oxygen.
C) condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart's inability to adequately pump blood.
123
The largest artery in the body is the:
) aorta.
B) jugular artery.
C) carotid artery.
D) femoral artery.
A) aorta.
124
Blood in the right ventricle is pumped into the:
A) pulmonary artery.
B) aorta.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
A) pulmonary artery
125
Which of the following statements concerning arteries is true?
A) They drain into the venae cavae.
B) They carry blood away from the heart.
C) They have a lower pressure than veins.
D) They always carry oxygenated blood.
B) They carry blood away from the heart.
126
High-velocity injuries and low-velocity injuries are two types of which mechanism of injury?
A) Blast injury
B) Blunt trauma
C) Penetrating injury
D) Closed trauma
C) Penetrating injury
127
A trauma assessment should be completed within 1-2 minutes and includes all of the following tasks except:
A) performing a detailed physical exam.
B) taking a complete history.
C) assessing the ABCDs.
D) evaluating a patient's level of consciousness.
A) performing a detailed physical exam.
128
Dislocating a shoulder after catching a ski pole on a tree branch is an example of an injury caused by which MOI?
A) Rotational injury
B) Compressive injury
C) Whiplash injury
D) Blunt injury
A) Rotational injury
129
Which of the following terms is not a "mechanism of injury"?
A) Blunt injury
B) Stabbing injury
C) Crushing injury
D) Rotational injury
B) Stabbing injury
130
Kinetic energy is absorbed based on the density of the structure/organ involved. Which of the following lists places the organs in the order of their "threshold for injury"?
A) Kidneys, lungs, femur
B) Full urinary bladder, femur, lung
C) Femur, kidneys, muscle
D) Femur, lung, kidneys
A) Kidneys, lungs, femur
131
You arrive alone at a scene at which a 16-year-old skier has collided with a tree. He is unresponsive and has blood flowing from his ears and nose. He was not wearing a helmet. Which of the following lists reflects the most appropriate care of this patient?
A) Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible
B) Primary assessment, immobilization, bandaging of the ears to control bleeding, airway management
C) Primary assessment, oxygen administration, rapid transport to the aid room, immobilization in the aid room
D) Immobilization, transfer to a sled, completion of the assessment in the aid room
A) Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible
132
Which of the following descriptions describes a patient suffering from multi-system trauma?
A) A 70-year-old female who slipped on some ice and has a hematoma at the back of her head
B) A 32-year-old female who was stabbed by her boyfriend
C) A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain
D) A 24-year-old male who was tackled in a football game and has pain and deformity in his right shoulder and left wrist
C) A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain
133
Which of the following statements best describes the capabilities of a Level III trauma center?
A) The hospital will provide emergency care to trauma patients and then transfer them once they are stable.
B) The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients but does not have every subspecialist available.
C) The hospital can manage all trauma patients, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
D) The hospital has specially trained trauma nurses on duty at all times, who will call a doctor if needed.
B) The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients but does not have every subspecialist available.
134
The term golden hour refers to the:
A) time period when patient survival rates may be enhanced if critical injuries are identified and managed.
B) amount of time it takes to stop the bleeding from a penetrating injury.
C) amount of time you have to decide if a patient needs to be sent to a trauma hospital.
D) hour before sunset, when most cases of on-hill trauma occur.
A) time period when patient survival rates may be enhanced if critical injuries are identified and managed.
135
You are called to the vehicle maintenance department on the mountain, where a fairly large explosion has occurred. The first injured person you talk to tells you that he is having excruciating ear pain. You recognize that his ear pain may be caused by:
A) a primary blast injury to the inner ear.
B) ear damage resulting from exposure to the heat produced by the explosion.
C) inner ear damage caused by the noise of the explosion.
D) a secondary blast injury to the inner ear.
A) a primary blast injury to the inner ear.
136
A 23-year-old skier falls about 20 feet from the chairlift. Aside from his complaints of soreness, you don't see any obvious injuries. The skier states that as long as his legs aren't broken, he's going to continue skiing. Which of the following statements would be your best response to him?
A) "Since you did not lose responsiveness, it's probably OK to go back to skiing. If your legs start to hurt you should probably get checked."
B) "You may feel OK now, but you will probably be sore later. You should go to the hospital and get some pain medication."
C) "From a fall of that height you may have hurt some internal organs. You really should be examined."
D) "Since this happened at a ski area you should get evaluated. You may be able to sue."
C) "From a fall of that height you may have hurt some internal organs. You really should be examined."
137
A heavy-set snowboarder was critically injured when he crashed into a tree on a Friday night. It was reported that he was clearly out of control while traveling at a high rate of speed down the expert trail. Which of the following factors had the greatest impact on the extent of his injuries?
A) The skier's weight
B) The dimly lit trail
C) The speed the skier was going
D) The size of the tree he hit
C) The speed the skier was going
138
Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of a patient assessment?
A) The scene size-up
B) The reassessment
C) The rapid secondary survey
D) The primary assessment
D) The primary assessment
139
You arrive at a scene at which a 16-year-old girl has cut her wrist with a knife. She appears to be pale, and blood is spurting from the cut. Which of the following actions should you take first?
A) Ask her how the injury happened.
B) Obtain a blood pressure reading.
C) Apply oxygen at 15 LPM via a nonrebreather mask.
D) Apply direct pressure to the cut.
D) Apply direct pressure to the cut.
140
You are treating a patient who has cut herself while working in the lodge kitchen. She has a jagged laceration on her left forearm that is bleeding steadily and heavily. While attempting to control the bleeding, you should first:
A) wrap the injury tightly with roller gauze and apply a tourniquet proximal to the laceration.
B) apply direct pressure to the elbow pressure point to slow the flow of blood into the arm.
C) place a sterile dressing over the site and hold steady pressure on the dressing with your hand.
D) tightly wrap roller gauze around a large sterile dressing placed over the injury.
C) place a sterile dressing over the site and hold steady pressure on the dressing with your hand.
141
Which of the following actions should you take next when direct pressure, elevation, and femoral artery pressure have failed to control arterial bleeding on a patient's leg?
A) Splint the extremity.
B) Provide oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask.
C) Immediately transport the patient by ambulance.
D) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
D) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
142
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the application of a tourniquet?
A) "A tourniquet should be applied only when directed by medical control."
B) "Arteries run close to the body's surface in a joint, so the best place to apply a tourniquet is over the joint just above the artery."
C) "If the tourniquet appears to have stopped the bleeding, you should loosen it slightly to allow a small amount of blood to perfuse the tissues."
D) "A tourniquet should be applied tightly enough so that arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet is completely stopped."
D) "A tourniquet should be applied tightly enough so that arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet is completely stopped."
143
You are having a difficult time controlling bleeding from a small skin avulsion on a patient's ankle. Which of the following statements made by the patient best explains why the bleeding has been so difficult to control?
A) "I take steroids for my lung disease."
B) "I drank a lot of alcohol last night."
C) "I take Coumadin (an anticoagulant) for my irregular heartbeat."
D) "My blood pressure sometimes runs a little high."
C) "I take Coumadin (an anticoagulant) for my irregular heartbeat."
144
The skin performs which of the following functions?
A) Elimination of carbon dioxide
B) Prevention of blood loss
C) Dissipation of internal cold
D) Regulation of temperature
D) Regulation of temperature
145
Which of the following lists correctly names the layers of the skin?
A) Epidermis, subcutaneous, muscle
B) Dermis, subcutaneous, muscle
C) Dermis, muscle, epidermis
D) Subcutaneous, epidermis, dermis
D) Subcutaneous, epidermis, dermis
146
When managing a patient with soft-tissue injuries, it is essential that you:
A) cover any hematomas with an occlusive dressing.
B) thoroughly clean all lacerations.
C) use the appropriate personal protective equipment.
D) control any bleeding with sterile dressings only.
C) use the appropriate personal protective equipment.
147
Assessment of a patient who fell reveals bruising to her right buttock. Her skin is intact and she complains of tenderness in the area when you palpate it. You would recognize which of the following types of injury?
A) An abrasion
B) An open injury
C) A contusion
D) An avulsion
C) A contusion
148
When assessing a patient you note a bruise on the chest. Another word for documenting a bruise is:
A) erythematic.
B) hematoma.
C) ecchymosis.
D) cyanosis.
C) ecchymosis.
149
Which of the following assessment findings best indicates that a patient's injury should be classified as an abrasion?
A) Red scrapes involving the outermost layer of skin only
B) Intact skin with a large accumulation of dark blood underneath
C) Intact skin with ecchymosis noted; patient describes minor pain
D) Jagged breaks in the skin; bleeding moderate but controllable
A) Red scrapes involving the outermost layer of skin only
150
You respond to a patient who has an avulsion on the left arm. When you assess this patient, you would expect to find:
A) a loose flap of torn skin on the left arm.
B) bruised skin with a piece of bone protruding from the left arm.
C) a long and deep laceration on the left arm.
D) abraded skin with an underlying bone fracture.
A) a loose flap of torn skin on the left arm.
151
A 49-year-old man was climbing on rocks when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two-inch linear wound on the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled. You would document this type of injury as a(n):
A) abrasion.
B) laceration.
C) avulsion.
D) contusion.
B) laceration.
152
You are assessing a patient who received multiple injuries in a fight. Which of the following injuries would present the greatest danger for infection?
A) A hematoma in the left foot
B) A closed crushing injury to the thigh
C) A contusion to the chin
D) An abrasion on the right side of the face
D) An abrasion on the right side of the face
153
A young boy was out riding his bike in the neighborhood when he fell onto a stick protruding from the ground. The stick impaled him in the neck. The boy immediately pulled the stick out. Assessment reveals a gaping wound to the boy's right neck. Which of the following types of dressing would you use on this injury?
A) A moist sterile dressing that is taped to the neck
B) A sterile dressing placed over the wound and bandaged with roller gauze around the neck
C) An occlusive dressing that is taped on all sides
D) Sterile gauze carefully placed inside the open wound to control bleeding
C) An occlusive dressing that is taped on all sides
154
A patient has had part of his right thumb amputated in an accident. Friends have retrieved the thumb and wrapped it in a towel. When you arrive, you would demonstrate appropriate handling of the amputated part by:
A) placing the thumb in a container of sterile saline or sterile water.
B) keeping the thumb in the towel.
C) wrapping the thumb in a moist sterile dressing, placing it in a sterile bag, and keeping it cool.
D) placing the thumb in a plastic bag filled with ice.
C) wrapping the thumb in a moist sterile dressing, placing it in a sterile bag, and keeping it cool.
155
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands bandaging?
A) "Bandaging material must always be sterile."
B) "Bandages are sterile gauze pads used to stop bleeding."
C) "Bandaging material is used to secure a dressing in place."
D) "After you apply a bandage, a dressing should always be put over it."
C) "Bandaging material is used to secure a dressing in place."
156
You have applied a pressure dressing to the calf of a woman who suffered a deep laceration from a piece of broken glass. Which of the following actions should you take next?
A) Apply a tourniquet above the laceration.
B) Apply a splint.
C) Obtain a follow-up blood pressure reading.
D) Check CMS in the patient's foot.
D) Check CMS in the patient's foot.
157
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands dressing and bandaging a wound?
A) "When applying a bandage over a dressing, apply it very tightly so the bandage won't fall off."
B) "If bleeding from a wound cannot be stopped initially with direct pressure, apply a bandage so you can take care of other injuries."
C) "Place a bandage across the joint proximal to the wound because this helps control bleeding by applying pressure to the underlying blood vessels."
D) "Leave the tips of the fingers or toes exposed when bandaging an arm or a leg so you can continue to assess CMS."
D) "Leave the tips of the fingers or toes exposed when bandaging an arm or a leg so you can continue to assess CMS."
158
Which of the following statements about pressure dressings and bandages is true?
A) Bandages should be applied in a distal-to-proximal manner.
B) All pressure dressings must be airtight to prevent contamination.
C) Dressings are placed over bandages.
D) Gauze should be placed in an open wound before a pressure dressing is applied.
A) Bandages should be applied in a distal-to-proximal manner.
159
Which of the following injuries is most likely to result in capillary bleeding only?
A) An abrasion
B) A penetration
C) An avulsion
D) A laceration
A) An abrasion
160
Which of the following phrases best describes a closed-tissue injury?
A) A wound in which underlying tissues are damaged but the overlying skin remains intact
B) A wound that has scabbed over or healed
C) A wound with no obviously visible opening, such as a needle stick
D) A wound in which platelets and proteins have formed a plug
A) A wound in which underlying tissues are damaged but the overlying skin remains intact
161
Which of the following statements about impaled objects is true?
A) A wound made by an impaled object always bleeds profusely.
B) The impaled object should be left in place during transport.
C) An impaled object never causes serious underlying tissue damage.
D) Allow only the patient to pull the impaled object out because that will hurt less.
B) The impaled object should be left in place during transport.
162
Which of the following statements about a high-pressure injection injury is false?
A) The presenting wound is typically large.
B) The injury typically involves the limbs.
C) The injury often requires surgical amputation of the injured part.
D) The injury involves the introduction of a liquid or gas into the body from a pressurized source.
A) The presenting wound is typically large.
163
Which of the following statements about an impaled object is true?
A) OEC Technicians may remove only objects that are impaled in an extremity.
B) OEC Technicians may remove objects that are impaled in the chest or abdomen.
C) The primary treatment goal in the field is to stabilize the object in the position found.
D) The primary treatment in the field is to remove the object without causing further bleeding or causing as little bleeding as possible.
C) The primary treatment goal in the field is to stabilize the object in the position found.
164
Which of the following statements about amputations is true?
A) Surgeons can reattach an amputated part only if it has been without a blood supply for less than one hour.
B) A badly mangled or damaged amputated part should not be preserved or sent to the hospital because it cannot be reattached.
C) An amputation involves a completely severed body part.
D) All amputated body parts should be preserved and sent to the hospital with the patient.
D) All amputated body parts should be preserved and sent to the hospital with the patient.
165
The most effective method for treating a contusion is to apply a(n):
A) ice pack.
B) tourniquet.
C) bandage.
D) pressure dressing.
A) ice pack
166
Which of the following statements about the use of a tourniquet is true?
A) Tourniquets are a last resort and should be used rarely, if ever.
B) It can be used on most any part of the body except the neck.
C) It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.
D) On an arm or leg, it should be placed 1 inch from either the elbow or knee.
C) It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.
167
The type of muscle found in the forearm is:
A) integumentary muscle.
B) involuntary muscle.
C) voluntary muscle.
D) contractor muscle.
C) voluntary muscle.
168
Which of the following statements about voluntary muscles is true?
A) They generally connect to the skeletal system.
B) They make up less mass in the body than do involuntary muscles.
C) They have the ability to cause movement by extending.
D) They are mostly located on the torso of the body.
A) They generally connect to the skeletal system.
169
During your SAMPLE inquiry, a patient reports that he had surgery to repair a torn ligament. Based on your training, you know that a ligament is:
A) a tissue that stabilizes two contiguous bone ends.
B) a muscle that connects to a bone.
C) connective tissue that connects muscle and bone.
D) a thick muscle that surrounds a joint.
A) a tissue that stabilizes two contiguous bone ends.
170
Which of the following statements about musculoskeletal injuries is true?
A) A sprain is an injury to a joint that involves the stretching or tearing of ligaments.
B) A fracture occurs when a tendon connecting a muscle to a bone is overstretched and becomes injured.
C) Strains are injuries that occur to ligaments and to the joints to which they are attached.
D) A dislocation occurs when a bone that forms part of a joint is broken.
A) A sprain is an injury to a joint that involves the stretching or tearing of ligaments.
171
Your patient was struck in the right upper arm with a baseball bat. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates the highest probability that the humerus has been fractured?
A) Crepitus felt on palpation
B) Decreased sensation in the right hand
C) Swelling in the upper arm
D) Pain in the right upper arm
A) Crepitus felt on palpation
172
You respond to a 9-year-old boy who was injured in the terrain park. He is complaining of pain in his right wrist. Upon examination you note deformity and swelling of the right wrist, pinkness of the right hand, and a strong radial pulse. Which of the following actions would be part of the proper care for this boy?
A) Apply a cold pack to the wrist to reduce swelling.
B) Straighten the wrist to promote blood flow to the hand.
C) Massage the wrist gently to decrease the pain.
D) Maintain the wrist below the level of the heart to decrease swelling.
A) Apply a cold pack to the wrist to reduce swelling.
173
A 42-year-old man has fallen 25 feet while rock climbing. He hit the ground feet first and suffered open fractures to both tibias, which are protruding through the skin. When you arrive, he is responding to painful stimuli. His airway is open, his breathing is adequate, and his radial pulse is strong and rapid. At this point in his care, it is a priority for you to:
A) look for other injuries.
B) immobilize the fractures.
C) obtain a medical history from his friends.
D) cover him to help prevent shock.
A) look for other injuries.
174
A patient fell and sustained an open fracture of the left humerus. Assessment reveals that the bone has pulled back into the arm. Bleeding from the site is controlled. For which of the following reasons would splinting the left arm benefit this patient?
A) A splint eliminates the possibility of infection through the open wound.
B) A splint decreases the likelihood of further injury to nerves and blood vessels.
C) A splint converts the open fracture to a closed fracture.
D) A splint starts the process of healing by aligning and connecting the bone ends.
B) A splint decreases the likelihood of further injury to nerves and blood vessels.
175
Which of the following emergency care measures for a patient with a possible bone fracture can be an effective way of reducing pain?
A) Massaging the injury site
B) Applying warm packs to the fracture site
C) Splinting the fracture
D) Administering oxygen therapy to the patient
C) Splinting the fracture
176
A patient with a closed fracture to the mid-forearm has been properly splinted when which of the following structures have been immobilized?
A) The wrist and forearm
B) The elbow and forearm
C) The wrist, forearm, and elbow
D) The shoulder, elbow, and forearm
C) The wrist, forearm, and elbow
177
You and a fellow patroller respond to a snowboard injury in a 12-year-old boy who fell on his outstretched arm. His left wrist is swollen and ecchymotic. A radial pulse is readily palpated, and the skin on the hand is warm to the touch. Which of the following instructions to your partner indicates that you have a proper understanding of the care for this patient's arm?
A) "Since he still has a pulse in the arm, the swelling must be from a muscle injury. We can forego the splint and just apply ice packs."
B) "Make sure to wrap that splint as tightly as you can; we need a lot of pressure to prevent additional swelling."
C) "After we splint his wrist, we will need to apply a sling and swathe to prevent further movement."
D) "When you splint that arm, make sure that it is somewhat loose so the patient can move it if he becomes uncomfortable."
C) "After we splint his wrist, we will need to apply a sling and swathe to prevent further movement."
178
A patient exhibits swelling and deformity to the wrist. Which of the following positions for the hand is most appropriate when splinting this injury?
A) Hand in a fist with the thumb inside the fist
B) Fingers curled slightly down around a roller bandage
C) Fingers extended and spread
D) Wrist flexed with fingers extended
B) Fingers curled slightly down around a roller bandage
179
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of the proper care of a possible joint dislocation?
A) "The care for a patient with a joint injury is similar to that for a fracture."
B) "If a joint injury is suspected, ice packs, but not splints, are indicated."
C) "If a distal pulse is absent, three attempts to straighten the joint can be made."
D) "Warm packs, not cold packs, are indicated for a patient with a possible joint injury."
A) "The care for a patient with a joint injury is similar to that for a fracture."
180
Displacement of the bones of a joint is known as:
A) circumduction.
B) dorsiflexion.
C) a dislocation.
D) a fracture.
C) a dislocation.
181
You are discussing a sling and swathe while teaching an OEC class about splints. Which of the following statements regarding a sling and swathe is correct?
A) There is only one way to properly apply a sling and swathe.
B) It is used to immobilize injuries to either the upper extremity or the lower extremity.
C) It is the second most commonly used splint by OEC Technicians.
D) It provides a stable platform for the arm and can be used to immobilize either the arm alone or the arm with a separate splint in place.
D) It provides a stable platform for the arm and can be used to immobilize either the arm alone or the arm with a separate splint in place.
182
A patient for whom you recently provided care stops by to thank you. He reports that he was diagnosed with a strain to his lower right leg. Which of the following structures is the primary structure affected in that injury?
A) A joint
B) A bone
C) A muscle
D) A ligament
C) A muscle
183
A fracture that has three or more fragments is called a(n):
A) comminuted fracture.
B) oblique fracture.
C) pathologic fracture.
D) impacted fracture.
A) comminuted fracture.
184
The inside layer of a joint capsule where cells make a viscous fluid for lubricating the joint is the:
A) cartilage.
B) synovium.
C) callus.
D) fascia.
B) synovium.
185
Joints provide different degrees of movement. There are five different types of joints. An example of a "pivot" joints is the:
A) knee.
B) vertebrae of the spine.
C) radio-ulnar joint of the elbow.
D) acromio-clavicular joint of the shoulder.
C) radio-ulnar joint of the elbow.
186
The most commonly broken bone in the body is:
A) the clavicle.
B) a rib.
C) the ulna.
D) the tibia.
A) the clavicle.
187
Your friend tells you that he wants to try snowboarding. He is concerned about his safety and asks you which type of fracture is most common in snowboarders. You learned in your OEC training that this injury involves the:
A) elbow.
B) humerus.
C) radius.
D) tibia.
C) radius.
188
Which of the following statements would you make to the parent of a 10-year-old snowboarder who took a hard fall and complains of some discomfort in a wrist that is slightly swollen but has no deformity?
A) "This is probably a pathologic fracture."
B) "This looks like an open fracture."
C) "It could be a nondisplaced fracture and needs to be medically evaluated."
D) "It's probably just a sprain."
C) "It could be a nondisplaced fracture and needs to be medically evaluated."
189
Which of the following musculoskeletal tissues does not heal?
A) A ligament
B) A cartilage
C) A tendon
D) A muscle
B) A cartilage
190
In order to make a SAM splint™ a "rigid" splint, you need to:
A) make a "T" shape lengthwise in its middle.
B) use it in combination with a wooden splint.
C) fold it in a double thickness.
D) use it in a sugar-tong configuration.
A) make a "T" shape lengthwise in its middle.
191
The structure responsible for transmitting the force of a contracting skeletal muscle to a bone is a:
A) ligament.
B) cartilage.
C) joint.
D) tendon.
D) tendon.
192
You are caring for a 26-year-old woman with a probable wrist fracture. Before applying a splint you ask her to remove her large engagement ring. She hesitates and asks why she should do this. Which of the following responses would be an OEC Technician's best response?
A) "The metal in the ring will interfere with taking X-rays at the hospital."
B) "You should remove the ring now because your fingers may become very swollen."
C) "You don't want to lose your ring when they are caring for you at the hospital."
D) "The diamond could get caught in the splint and ruin the ring."
B) "You should remove the ring now because your fingers may become very swollen."
193
One method for immobilizing a clavicle fracture is a figure eight splint. Which of the following statements about a figure eight splint is false?
A) It should not be used for fractures of the lateral one-third of the clavicle.
B) This splint may immobilize the clavicle better than a sling and swathe does.
C) It is used to immobilize fractures of the proximal and middle thirds of the clavicle.
D) This splint is useful for acromioclavicular (A/C) injuries.
D) This splint is useful for acromioclavicular (A/C) injuries.
194
To properly apply a figure eight splint, an OEC Technician should:
A) place the cravat directly over the fracture to splint it.
B) tighten the figure eight until the patient's shoulders are pulled back tightly.
C) not use a cravat that is wider than 1 inch.
D) tighten the cravats so that the position of the shoulders is the same as if the patient were sitting normally.
D) tighten the cravats so that the position of the shoulders is the same as if the patient were sitting normally.
195
You and a fellow patroller are applying a blanket roll to a 48-year-old patient with an anteriorly dislocated shoulder. While your partner holds the blanket roll in position under the affected shoulder, which of the following actions should you not take in securing the roll?
A) Tie one of the cravats over the affected shoulder.
B) Stabilize the patient's hand and forearm on the blanket using two cravats.
C) Tie one of the cravats over the patient's opposite shoulder and around the neck.
D) Tie one of the cravats around the patient's waist.
A) Tie one of the cravats over the affected shoulder.
196
When it becomes apparent that the arm distal to an elbow injury has a CMS deficit, OEC Technicians should:
A) use only a sling so that no pressure that further compromises CMS is put on the elbow.
B) make one attempt to realign and restore CMS before splinting.
C) attempt to realign the injury when final definitive care by a physician is less than two hours away.
D) splint the arm with the elbow slightly flexed.
B) make one attempt to realign and restore CMS before splinting.
197
Which of the following splints should not be used to treat proximal forearm fractures?
A) A splint that prevents rotation of the forearm at the elbow B) A splint that does not immobilize the elbow
C) A sugar tong splint wrapped around the elbow and extending down to the palm crease
D) A ladder splint that goes up to the axilla and down to the palm crease
B) A splint that does not immobilize the elbow
198
Which of the following statements about the axial skeleton is true?
A) It has 126 bones consisting of the skill, vertebrae, and pelvis.
B) It has 60 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.
C) It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and pelvis.
D) It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.
D) It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.
199
Which of the following statements about the appendicular skeleton is true?
A) It has 126 bones consisting of the arm, pelvis, rib cage, and legs.
B) It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and rib cage.
C) It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.
D) It has 80 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.
C) It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.
200
Which of the following terms does not describe a type of bone?
A) Long
B) Flat
C) Irregular
D) Short
D) Short
201
Which of the following splints should not be used for a wrist fracture?
A) A SAM splint™
B) A soft splint
C) A Thomas Splint
D) An air splint
C) A Thomas Splint
202
A sling and swathe can be used for a:
A) humerus fracture if combined with a separate splint.
B) potential wrist fracture without the need for a separate splint.
C) potential ulna fracture without the need for a separate splint.
D) rib fracture.
A) humerus fracture if combined with a separate splint.
203
Treatment of an anterior S/C dislocation is best managed using a:
A) rigid splint.
B) figure eight splint.
C) sling and swathe.
D) blanket roll.
C) sling and swathe.
204
An injured forearm, shoulder, clavicle, or scapula should be cradled in a sling:
A) with its weight evenly distributed.
B) with the splinted extremity elevated at the level of the clavicle.
C) at a 45-degree angle to the chest.
D) at the same level as the elbow.
A) with its weight evenly distributed.
205
A common injury to the carpal bones among snowboarders who fall forward on an outstretched hand is a fractured:
A) scaphoid.
B) radius.
C) ulna.
D) thumb.
A) scaphoid.
206
You are dispatched to aid a snowboarder who has sustained a shoulder injury. The injured man is sitting on the side of the trail and reports that because of past dislocations of the shoulder he has a subluxation, and that the shoulder is okay. Which of the following statements best describes his condition?
A) The shoulder joint partially dislocates and then returns to a normal anatomic position.
B) The shoulder has a posterior dislocation.
C) The shoulder has an anterior dislocation.
D) The shoulder has become dislocated but with can be managed with prescription pain drugs.
A) The shoulder joint partially dislocates and then returns to a normal anatomic position.
207
The closed fracture of which of the following bone(s) has the greatest potential for internal blood loss?
A) The pelvis
B) The tibia/fibula
C) The femur
D) The humerus
A) The pelvis
208
A former patient returns to the Ski Patrol treatment room to thank you for the treatment he received. He informs you that he has a popiteal fossa injury. With your OEC knowledge, you realize that his injury is related to which of the following structures?
A) The back of the knee
B) The ankle
C) The wrist
D) The lumbar muscles
A) The back of the knee
209
Because of the abundant blood vessels and nerves in the elbow, an injury to a child's elbow should be splinted in:
A) a 90-degree angle.
B) a 45-degree angle.
C) an elevated position using a blanket roll.
D) the position found.
D) the position found.
210
Which of the following pairs of proteins causes muscle tissue to shorten or contract?
A) Glutamine and glycine
B) Leucine and lysine
C) Actin and myosin
D) Alanine and arginine
C) Actin and myosin
211
Which of the following terms does not describe a type of joint?
A) Hinge
B) Gliding
C) Ball and socket
D) Post
D) Post
212
Which of the following splints should not be used for a wrist fracture?
A) An air splint
B) A soft splint
C) A SAM splint™
D) A Thomas Splint
D) A Thomas Splint
213
Which of the following statements about the appendicular skeleton is true?
A) It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and rib cage.
B) It has 126 bones consisting of the arm, pelvis, rib cage, and legs.
C) It has 80 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.
D) It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.
D) It has 126 bones consisting of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and legs.
214
Which of the following statements about the axial skeleton is true?
A) It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.
B) It has 126 bones consisting of the skill, vertebrae, and pelvis.
C) It has 60 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.
D) It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and pelvis.
A) It has 80 bones consisting of the skull, vertebrae, and thoracic cage.
215
When it becomes apparent that the arm distal to an elbow injury has a CMS deficit, OEC Technicians should:
A) splint the arm with the elbow slightly flexed.
B) make one attempt to realign and restore CMS before splinting.
C) use only a sling so that no pressure that further compromises CMS is put on the elbow.
D) attempt to realign the injury when final definitive care by a physician is less than two hours away.
B) make one attempt to realign and restore CMS before splinting.
216
You and a fellow patroller are applying a blanket roll to a 48-year-old patient with an anteriorly dislocated shoulder. While your partner holds the blanket roll in position under the affected shoulder, which of the following actions should you not take in securing the roll?
A) Tie one of the cravats around the patient's waist.
B) Tie one of the cravats over the patient's opposite shoulder and around the neck.
C) Tie one of the cravats over the affected shoulder.
D) Stabilize the patient's hand and forearm on the blanket using two cravats.
C) Tie one of the cravats over the affected shoulder.
217
To properly apply a figure eight splint, an OEC Technician should:
A) place the cravat directly over the fracture to splint it.
B) not use a cravat that is wider than 1 inch.
C) tighten the figure eight until the patient's shoulders are pulled back tightly.
D) tighten the cravats so that the position of the shoulders is the same as if the patient were sitting normally.
D) tighten the cravats so that the position of the shoulders is the same as if the patient were sitting normally.
218
You are caring for a patient who has an angulated lower leg fracture. To splint this injury you should:
A) use gentle longitudinal tension to align the fracture.
B) splint the leg in the position found.
C) apply an air splint, which when inflated will align the leg.
D) apply 5-10 lbs of traction by pulling on the patient's foot.
A) use gentle longitudinal tension to align the fracture.
219
The ideal position for patients before you transfer them to a long spine board for immobilization is:
A) prone in a neutral anatomic position, with the back straight, the eyes facing forward, and the extremities straight with the palms against the sides of the thighs.
B) supine, in a neutral anatomic position, with the back straight, the eyes facing forward, and the extremities straight with the palms against the thighs.
C) on one side in a neutral anatomic position, with the back straight, the eyes facing forward, and the extremities straight with the palms against the sides of the thighs.
D) on one side in a neutral anatomic position, with the back straight, the eyes facing forward, the lower arm extended above the head, and the upper arm at the side with the palm against the thigh.
B) supine, in a neutral anatomic position, with the back straight, the eyes facing forward, and the extremities straight with the palms against the thighs.
220
You are demonstrating boot removal to a class of OEC candidates. While explaining Rescuer #1's role, you indicate that his first task is to:
A) stabilize the patient's leg and ankle.
B) unbuckle or unlace the boot.
C) remove the boot.
D) check the patient's CMS.
A) stabilize the patient's leg and ankle.
221
The most frequent injury in skiing is a:
A) thumb strain.
B) concussion.
C) fractured radius.
D) knee sprain.
D) knee sprain.
222
You respond to an accident and find a young man lying prone but in a neutral, anatomic position, except that his head is turned to the side. Using the principles of Jams and Pretzels, you would say that this patient is in position:
A) 3A.
B) 2A.
C) 3.
D) 1A.
C) 3.
223
The National Ski Patrol's current recommendation regarding ski boot removal when applying a traction splint is:
A) that removal is determined by the weather conditions and the extent of the patient's injuries.
B) that removal should occur in a warm environment, so it should occur as soon as possible after you reach the first aid room.
C) to leave the boot on until you have at least two other patrollers to help with its removal.
D) to leave the boot on if the patient is to be placed in a traction splint in the outdoor environment, unless the local medical director approves doing otherwise.
D) to leave the boot on if the patient is to be placed in a traction splint in the outdoor environment, unless the local medical director approves doing otherwise.
224
Displacement of the bones of a joint is known as:
A) dorsiflexion.
B) circumduction.
C) a fracture.
D) a dislocation.
D) a dislocation.
225
Which of the following functions is not one of the several functions of bones?
A) Protecting vital organs
B) Responding to sensory nerve stimulation to protect skin and other tissues
C) Producing red blood cells
D) Providing structure and form for body tissues
B) Responding to sensory nerve stimulation to protect skin and other tissues
226
Which of the following statements about traction splints is correct?
A) Once the mechanical traction has been applied, the ischial strap must be released to promote circulation in the affected leg.
B) Once a traction splint has been positioned under the leg, you attach the ankle hitch and then manual traction can be released.
C) Manual traction should be applied until the mechanical traction is at least equal to the manual traction.
D) Mechanical traction should be applied until the affected leg is approximately 1-2 inches longer than the unaffected leg.
C) Manual traction should be applied until the mechanical traction is at least equal to the manual traction.
227
Which of the following assessment findings contraindicates the use of a traction splint to treat a femur injury?
A) A gross deformity of the hip that indicates dislocation
B) An open fracture
C) Decreased pedal pulse rate
D) Numbness in the foot
A) A gross deformity of the hip that indicates dislocation
228
Which of the following assessment findings contraindicates the use of a traction splint to treat a femur injury?
A) A gross deformity of the hip that indicates dislocation
B) An open fracture
C) Decreased pedal pulse rate
D) Numbness in the foot
B) An open fracture
229
You are working in the first-aid room when a patient arrives with an open injury of the left lower leg. Which of the following observations would indicate that the extremity was improperly splinted?
A) Ice packs wrapped in towels have been applied to the skin between the splints.
B) The patient is able to flex her left ankle when directed to do so.
C) The splint has immobilized the ankle, knee, and hip regions.
D) The skin of the left foot is red and swollen and a pedal pulse is present.
B) The patient is able to flex her left ankle when directed to do so.
230
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of the proper care of a possible joint dislocation?
A) "The care for a patient with a joint injury is similar to that for a fracture."
B) "If a joint injury is suspected, ice packs, but not splints, are indicated."
C) "Warm packs, not cold packs, are indicated for a patient with a possible joint injury."
D) "If a distal pulse is absent, three attempts to straighten the joint can be made."
A) "The care for a patient with a joint injury is similar to that for a fracture."
231
The benefit of applying a traction splint to a deformed femur fracture is that it:
A) increases perfusion to the muscle.
B) contracts the thigh muscle.
C) decreases pain.
D) corrects the fracture.
C) decreases pain.
232
You are called to treat a 27-year-old man who fell while snowboarding and struck his leg against a tree. The primary assessment shows no threats to his airway, breathing, or circulation. A secondary assessment reveals a severely deformed knee that is swollen and ecchymotic. The leg is pale and cool, and the patient cannot move the leg when asked to do so. In addition, you cannot palpate a pedal pulse. Which of the following actions should you take at this time?
A) Continue attempting to realign the leg until a pulse returns.
B) Apply a traction splint and enough traction until a pulse returns.
C) Attempt to straighten the leg once to see if a pulse returns.
D) Apply cold packs to the knee and then Quick Splint it in the position found.
C) Attempt to straighten the leg once to see if a pulse returns.
233
A patient has suffered an injury to his right leg, and deformity of the tibia-fibula region is obvious. After conducting a primary assessment and manually stabilizing the leg, which of the following actions should you take next?
A) Check for a pedal pulse.
B) Apply a traction splint.
C) Apply an ice pack to the injury.
D) Apply a Quick Splint.
A) Check for a pedal pulse.
234
Which of the following emergency care measures for a patient with a possible bone fracture can be an effective way of reducing pain?
A) Applying warm packs to the fracture site
B) Massaging the injury site
) Splinting the fracture
D) Administering oxygen therapy to the patient
C) Splinting the fracture
235
When placing a person in anatomic position using the principles of Pretzels and Jams, are the head, shoulders, and buttocks put into a straight line?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
236
A 42-year-old man has fallen 25 feet while rock climbing. He hit the ground feet first and suffered open fractures to both tibias, which are protruding through the skin. When you arrive, he is responding to painful stimuli. His airway is open, his breathing is adequate, and his radial pulse is strong and rapid. At this point in his care, it is a priority for you to:
A) look for other injuries.
B) immobilize the fractures.
C) cover him to help prevent shock.
D) obtain a medical history from his friends
A) look for other injuries.
237
Your secondary assessment of a patient who is complaining of pain in his right leg reveals an opening in the skin where the fractured tibia broke through the skin and retreated back into the leg. You would recognize this injury as a(n):
A) partial fracture.
B) laceration.
C) closed fracture.
D) open fracture.
D) open fracture.
238
You are notified that a patient is coming to the first-aid room with bruising to the lumbar area of the back. Based on this statement, you would expect to find bruising in which area?
A) The neck
B) The lower back
C) The buttocks
D) The upper back
B) The lower back
239
You respond to an accident at which a male patient is complaining of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is coming from a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, what area of the back would the pain be emanating from?
A) The upper back
B) The tailbone
C) The lower back
D) The neck
B) The tailbone
240
A patient involved in a motor-vehicle collision has suffered the separation of a rib from a spinal vertebra. Based on the anatomy of the spine, where has this injury occurred?
A) The lumbar spine
B) The middle spine
C) The cervical spine
D) The thoracic spine
D) The thoracic spine
241
A young intoxicated male patient cannot move his lower extremities after diving into the shallow end of a pool and hitting the bottom with his head. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to be responsible for this injury?
A) Compression
B) Penetration
C) Distraction
D) Rotation
A) Compression
242
While performing a primary assessment on a patient who has an isolated spinal cord injury, you note that he is in severe respiratory distress and struggling to breathe. Where should you suspect that the spinal cord injury has occurred?
A) The thoracic spine
B) The diaphragm
C) The lumbar spine
D) The cervical spine
D) The cervical spine
243
Which of the following signs or symptoms best indicates that a patient has suffered an injury to the thoracic spine?
A) Paralysis of the arms
B) Cool and diaphoretic skin
C) Tingling in the legs
D) Altered mental status
C) Tingling in the legs
244
A patient involved in an accident has his head positioned so that his left cheek is touching his left shoulder. He states that he has severe pain in his neck and he cannot move his head. He also states he has no feeling in his arms or legs. You have no equipment. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A) Avoid using a cervical collar or backboard and transport the patient in his current position.
B) Carefully straighten the head and neck so that a cervical collar can be placed.
C) Avoid palpation of the cervical spine and apply a vest-type spinal immobilization device.
D) Stabilize and maintain the head in the position in which the patient is holding it.
D) Stabilize and maintain the head in the position in which the patient is holding it.
245
A patient is complaining of back pain and numbness in both legs after being thrown from a bicycle. When should you check the motor function, sensory function, and pulses in this patient?
A) During the secondary assessment
B) Immediately after applying a cervical collar
C) During the primary assessment
D) Immediately after achieving manual in-line spinal immobilization
C) During the primary assessment
246
A patient with head, neck, and back pain has just been fully immobilized to a long backboard. Which of the following instructions should you provide to your team next?
A) "Loosen the collar so you can palpate the back of the neck."
B) "Check for CMS before we move him to the stretcher."
C) "Maintain manual in-line spinal stabilization until he is on the stretcher."
D) "Remove the chest straps so he can breathe more easily now that his head and legs are secured."
B) "Check for CMS before we move him to the stretcher."
247
You are securing a patient to a long backboard. Which of the following lists indicates the appropriate order for securing the straps?
A) Legs, head, torso, pelvis
B) Head, legs, torso, pelvis
C) Torso, pelvis, legs, head
D) Head, torso, pelvis, legs
C) Torso, pelvis, legs, head
248
A patient has just been log rolled and positioned onto the long backboard. Which of the following actions should be performed next?
A) Secure the patient's chest with straps.
B) Apply a properly sized cervical collar.
C) Secure the patient's head.
D) Release manual in-line stabilization.
A) Secure the patient's chest with straps.
249
You are maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine for a patient being log rolled, transferred, and secured to a long backboard. At what point should you release the manual in-line stabilization?
A) After the patient's head, chest, and knees have been secured with straps
B) Once the patient has been log rolled onto the long backboard
C) After the patient has been secured to the backboard and transferred to the stretcher
D) After the patient's head has been secured with a head immobilization device
D) After the patient's head has been secured with a head immobilization device
250
Which of the following statements about removing a helmet in a prehospital setting is correct?
A) Any patient wearing a helmet should have it removed so that the airway and breathing can be properly assessed.
B) Helmets should never be removed, so OEC Technicians must be creative in working around the obstacle of a helmet while providing care.
C) Helmets should be removed only if they are too tight or if spinal immobilization is required.
D) It is acceptable to leave a helmet on a patient if the patient has no airway or breathing problems.
D) It is acceptable to leave a helmet on a patient if the patient has no airway or breathing problems.
251
A 2-year-old boy fell down a flight of stairs. Which of the following instructions would you provide to other patrollers who are immobilizing the patient?
A) "Just apply a cervical collar and then place him directly on the stretcher."
B) "After he is on the board, place a towel behind his head to keep his airway open."
C) "Let's place a folded towel under his shoulders to help maintain his head alignment."
D) "It is better if the collar is a little too big because it will be more comfortable for him."
C) "Let's place a folded towel under his shoulders to help maintain his head alignment."
252
A 22-year-old female rock climber has fallen 25 feet to the trail below. The primary assessment shows her to be confused and to have an open airway and shallow breathing. Her pulse is 72 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 78/50 mmHg. She has no motor ability or sensation in her legs. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Internal bleeding
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hemorrhagic shock
D) Spinal cord injury
D) Spinal cord injury
253
You should recognize a possible spinal column injury with no spinal cord involvement when you discover which of the following assessment findings?
A) Intact motor ability to all four extremities with the loss of sensation to the legs
B) Pain in the cervical spine with the loss of sensation to the right arm and leg
C) Intact sensation to all four extremities with the loss of motor ability in the arms
D) Tenderness to the thoracic spine with intact motor and sensory function in each extremity
D) Tenderness to the thoracic spine with intact motor and sensory function in each extremity
254
A mechanical injury to the brain that results in a short-term and/or a long-term neurologic deficit is:
A) a subdural hematoma.
B) a repetitive head injury.
C) neural ischemia.
D) a traumatic brain injury.
D) a traumatic brain injury.
255
You suspect that an unhelmeted climber who struck his head during a fall may have a basilar skull fracture. As you conduct your assessment, which of the following findings reinforces this suspicion?
A) Paralysis of the left arm and left leg
B) Dilation and sluggish response to light of the right pupil
C) Blood coming from both ears
D) Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril
D) Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril
256
Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of increasing pressure within the skull from a closed head injury?
A) Heart rate of 132 beats per minute
B) Pupils equal and reactive
C) Blood pressure of 192/106 mmHg
D) Blood pressure of 110/50
C) Blood pressure of 192/106 mmHg
257
Your patient is a young female who was thrown from her mountain bike and is now confused. Assessment findings include an open airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask her friends who were with her?
A) "Are all of her immunizations up to date?"
B) "Has she ever needed to be hospitalized before?"
C) "Did she lose consciousness?"
D) "Is she allergic to anything?"
C) "Did she lose consciousness?"
258
You are participating in training OEC candidates and are asked about cerebral contusions. You would explain to the class that a cerebral contusion is:
A) bruising and swelling of the brain tissue.
B) active bleeding between the brain and the skull.
C) the formation of a pocket of blood within the brain tissue.
D) an open skull fracture with increased pressure within the skull.
A) bruising and swelling of the brain tissue.
259
You are called to the lodge by a family who is concerned that their mother is not acting right. The family tells you that they are concerned because their mother has been complaining of a headache and is very confused today. Assessment reveals a bruise on the right side of the head that the family states she got about a week ago when she fell. Which of the following conditions would you be concerned about based on the history and assessment findings?
A) A scalp laceration
B) A cerebral contusion
C) A subdural hematoma
D) A concussion
C) A subdural hematoma
260
Which of the following findings is most consistent with a skull fracture?
A) Bilateral dilated pupils that do not respond to light
B) Bruising behind the ear that develops several hours after the injury
C) A hematoma in the occipital area of the head
D) Altered mental status
B) Bruising behind the ear that develops several hours after the injury
261
Which of the following findings indicates that a patient who received a blow to the head is suffering from something other than a concussion/TBI?
A) He asks the same questions over and over.
B) His heart rate is 92 and his blood pressure is 144/86.
C) His pupils are noticeably unequal.
D) He cannot remember what happened.
C) His pupils are noticeably unequal.
262
When explaining the priorities of helmet removal to a candidate patroller, you would stress:
A) sliding the helmet rearward off the head so that you don't hit the patient's nose.
B) applying a cervical collar before removing the helmet to help stabilize the head.
C) sliding the fingers under the occiput so that the head doesn't drop backward.
D) removing the helmet to ensure the patient's proper alignment on a backboard.
C) sliding the fingers under the occiput so that the head doesn't drop backward.
263
Although the National Ski Patrol was originally a subcommittee of the National Ski Association, the NSP became an independent organization in:
A) 1980.
B) 1953.
C) 1962.
D) 1975.
B) 1953
264
The person who first organized a volunteer "ski patrol" and then was asked to organize a national patrol was:
A) Minnie Dole.
B) Warren Bowman.
C) Roger Langely.
D) Roland Palmedo.
A) Minnie Dole.
265
Which of the following statements about OEC 5th Edition is false?
A) It supersedes local medical direction and management directives.
B) It is to be used by instructors to teach students the basic concepts of care.
C) It contains the most recent information about prehospital care at the time of its publication.
D) It is a resource text for the NSP OEC course.
A) It supersedes local medical direction and management directives.
266
Most teaching systems have found that the most effective way to master technical skills is by:
A) observing others doing the skills.
B) personally practicing the skills.
C) memorizing the skill guides in a book.
D) teaching the skills to a class.
B) personally practicing the skills.
267
The 5th Edition of Outdoor Emergency Care:
A) contains the baseline knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation curriculum for EMTs in all settings.
B) must be learned in its entirety before taking the OEC Technician evaluation.
C) exceeds the knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation for Emergency Medical Responder.
D) can only be taught in the winter so that students can practice the skills taught in the course.
C) exceeds the knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation for Emergency Medical Responder.
268
The course called "Outdoor Emergency Care" was created by the National Ski Patrol to:
A) provide a standard of training for OEC Technicians and others involved in outdoor recreation.
B) create a standard of care for ski patrollers and others involved in outdoor emergency care.
C) respond to a request from Minnie Dole to develop training for patrollers working at ski resorts.
D) create a worldwide standard of care for anyone providing outdoor emergency care.
A) provide a standard of training for OEC Technicians and others involved in outdoor recreation.
269
A network of specially trained personnel, equipment, facilities, and other resources that respond to medical emergencies–regardless of cause, location, or the patient's ability to pay–best describes:
A) a public health system.
B) a community wellness program.
C) a health care system.
D) an emergency care system.
D) an emergency care system.
270
The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as a patient transitions from initial contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes:
A) continuity of care.
B) integration of health services.
C) online medical control.
D) medical direction.
A) continuity of care
271
When speaking to another person over the airwaves, the use of radio codes:
A) is required when everyone on your patrol is trained.
B) decreases confusion in communication.
C) is discouraged because the codes are not universal to all public safety agencies.
D) is preferred so that the public cannot understand your transmission.
C) is discouraged because the codes are not universal to all public safety agencies.
272
Many emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a tiered approach. OEC Technicians are most likely deployed in which tier?
A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
A) Tier 1
273
An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of:
A) an advanced Emergency Medical Technician.
B) an Emergency Medical Responder.
C) an Emergency Medical Technician.
D) a Paramedic.
B) an Emergency Medical Responder.
274
Critical care providers who bring advanced life support equipment, therapies, and interventions to the scene are typically deployed in what tier?
A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
D) Tier 4 Tier 1 - EMR Tier 2 - EMT Tier 3 - AEMT Tier 4 - Critical Care Providers
275
Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object?
A) What type of terrain is involved?
B) How heavy is the object?
C) How long will it take to make the move?
D) Which carrying device will work best?
C) How long will it take to make the move?
276
Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have:
A) waterproof qualities.
B) handles.
C) insulating qualities.
D) stitched edges.
B) handles.
277
The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allowseasier breathing because:
A) air flows more easily through a patient's nose compared to a head-downhill position.
B) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
C) it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport.
D) the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position.
B) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
278
When approaching a helicopter, whether it is running or not, always do so from the:
A) back.
B) right side.
C) front.
D) left side.
C) front.
279
Shock patients who are not having difficulty breathing are placed head downhill because doing so:
A) increases the heart rate.
B) increases perfusion to vital organs.
C) decreases blood pressure.
D) increases blood pressure.
B) increases perfusion to vital organs.
280
Of the four lift techniques OEC Technicians use, the draw sheet method:
A) has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers.
B) is the safest for the patient.
C) has the lowest rate of dropped patient incidents.
D) requires the fewest rescuers to use.
A) has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers.
281
After you apply and use an AED on patient lying on his back. His pulse returns and he is breathing adequately. What position is he in?
A) Right lateral recumbency
B) Left lateral recumbency
) Prone position
D) Supine
D) Supine
282
The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs?
A) The pancreas and the bladder
B) The bladder and the kidneys
C) The rectum and the reproductive organs
D) The kidneys and the spleen
C) The rectum and the reproductive organs
283
You are assisting in the care of an elderly patient complaining of shortness of breath. You place the patient on 15L of oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and place him in a high Fowler's position. This means that you will place this patient on his:
A) left side, with his left arm over his head.
B) back, with his upper body elevated at 45° from the waist.
C) back, with his upper body elevated at 90° from the waist.
D) back, with his head down and his legs elevated higher than the head.
C) back, with his upper body elevated at 90° from the waist.
284
Which one of the following events causes an individual to take a breath?
A) Pressure in the chest increases.
B) The diaphragm contracts.
C) The chest cavity decreases in size.
D) The intercostal muscles relax.
B) The diaphragm contracts.
285
Which of the following lists identifies the regions of the spinal column from superior to inferior?
A) Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
B) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
C) Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
D) Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral
B) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
286
In which of the following respiratory structures would a blockage cause total cessation of air flow into and out of the lungs?
A) The right bronchus
B) The trachea
C) The nasopharynx
D) The esophagus
B) The trachea
287
What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient had pancakes for breakfast two hours ago?
A) P
B) E
C) M
D) L
D) L
288
Which of the following findings is a sign, not a symptom?
A) A sharp headache
B) Chest pain
C) An upset stomach
D) An open leg fracture
D) An open leg fracture
289
The key to a successful assessment is:
A) a systematic and universal approach.
B) a rapid trauma exam.
C) interviewing bystanders.
D) toe to head physical exam.
A) a systematic and universal approach.
290
An OEC Technician should obtain the medical history of an alert and oriented trauma patient during the:
A) scene size-up.
B) reassessment.
C) secondary assessment.
D) primary assessment.
C) secondary assessment
291
You are performing a secondary assessment on the unrestrained adult passenger of a motor vehicle that rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli and in a state of hypoperfusion. When assessing the head, which one of the following is appropriate?
A) Cleaning a scalp laceration
B) Applying pressure to a depressed area of the skull
C) Performing a blind finger sweep to clear the airway
D) Checking the pupils with a pen light
D) Checking the pupils with a pen light
292
A primary assessment should take about how long?
A) 4 minutes
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 30-60 seconds
D) 30-60 seconds
293
When writing a prehospital care report, you accidentally document a laceration as being on the left side of a patient's face when it was actually on the right side of the face. In addition to putting your initials and current date/time next to your correction, you would change your documentation in which of the following ways?
A) Draw a single line through the word "left" and write the word "right" next to it.
B) Color over the word "left" with black ink and write the word "right" next to it.
C) Use correction fluid to cover the word "left" and write the word "right" next to it.
D) Write the word "error" through the word "left" and then write the word "right" next to it.
A) Draw a single line through the word "left" and write the word "right" next to it.
294
Written medical communications are generally used for all of the following except:
A) a message is encoded from the sender to the receiver.
B) verbal and nonverbal actions deliver information to another person.
C) information is documented on a patient accident report.
D) a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.
B) verbal and nonverbal actions deliver information to another person.
295
The characteristics of good report writing can easily be remembered by using mnemonic FACTUAL-OEC. Some of these acronym letters stand for:
A) clinical picture, timeline, and assessment.
B) actions taken, clinical picture, and timeline.
C) facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.
D) focused, age, concurrent, and unusual events.
C) facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.
296
In the acronym SAILER, the letter S stands for:
A) subjective.
B) sex.
C) splint.
D) symptoms.
B) sex
297
You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather face mask. Following the acronym CHEATED where is it appropriate to document the information concerning the oxygen administration?
A) H
B) T
C) A
D) C
B) T
C- Chief Complaint
H- History
E - Examination
T- Treatment
E - Evaluation
D - Disposition
298
Which of the following findings is an objective finding made during a patient assessment?
A) Patient's complaint of headache for the past 12 hours
B) Patient's complaint of nausea
C) Patient's rating of pain as 10 out of 10
D) Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
D) Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
299
Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient?
A) Instructing the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on
B) Setting the oxygen flow rate to between 6 LPM and 16 LPM
C) Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient
D) Ensuring that the reservoir fully collapses with each breath
C) Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient
300
Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
A) It is less painful for the patient.
B) It is the rescuer's preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C) It is a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly.
D) It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
D) It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
301
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how to use an oropharyngeal airway?
A) "I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion."
B) "It protects the patient from aspirating vomit or other secretions."
C) "Once it has been placed, the head tilt-chin lift is no longer needed."
D) "If it is too small, it could push the epiglottis over the opening of the trachea."
A) "I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion."
302
You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct?
A) "Roll the patient onto his side and then hold him there until help arrives."
B) "Elevate the patient's lower body so that his oral secretions will drain out easily."
C) "Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side."
D) "After turning the patient on his side, rest the patient's head on your aid pack."
C) "Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side."
303
You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to:
A) turn the oxygen control knob to 15 LPM.
B) check the pressure gauge indicator to determine how much pressure is in the cylinder.
C) turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
D) attach the nonrebreather mask to the regulator and fill the reservoir.
C) turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
304
Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?
A) A 85-year-old female who hit her head on a tree limb and is now responsive to painful stimuli
B) A 45-year-old female who is alert and vomiting blood
C) A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
D) A 67-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is unresponsive
C) A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
305
During a scene size-up, which of the following observations most strongly suggests that your adult patient is suffering from an acute respiratory emergency?
A) The patient's hands are trembling.
B) The patient's respiratory rate is 20.
C) The patient is in the tripod position.
D) The patient is holding a metered-dose inhaler.
C) The patient is in the tripod position.
306
The most important muscle of respiration is the:
A) diaphragm.
B) intercostal muscle.
C) sternocleidomastoid.
D) pectoralis major.
A) diaphragm.
307
You are called to aid a 65-year-old man who is having difficulty breathing. When you arrive, you find that he is sitting upright in a chair and is in obvious respiratory distress. His airway is open and his respirations are 28 per minute. At this time you would:
A) try to obtain a medical history from him.
B) provide him oxygen with a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.
C) assess his breath sounds.
D) assist him to a supine position.
B) provide him oxygen with a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.
308
Which of the following lists best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs once it passes the pharynx?
A) Trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli
B) Bronchi, larynx, trachea, cricoid
C) Epiglottis, esophagus, trachea, alveoli
D) Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
D) Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
309
Involuntary breathing in patients without significant respiratory disease is controlled by:
A) the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the blood.
B) a conscious effort of inspiration.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood.
A) the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the blood.
310
You and your OEC candidate are evaluating a 67-year-old patient with respiratory distress. You tell the candidate to document that the patient complains of dyspnea. The candidate asks you what "dyspnea" means. You explain that dyspnea is:
A) a subjective complaint of shortness of breath.
B) a term that describes a patient who is in respiratory distress.
C) a term that describes your objective assessment of a patient's difficulty in breathing.
D) another term for tachypnea.
A) a subjective complaint of shortness of breath.
311
You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. She describes the pain as sharp and states that it increases when she takes a deep breath. You note that she is tachypneic. Her BP is 130/82 and her pulse is 100. Based on her presentation, you suspect that she may have:
A) pericardial effusion.
B) an aortic dissection/aneurysm.
C) pulmonary embolism.
D) unstable angina.
C) pulmonary embolism
312
When assisting a patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet, it is:
A) placed between the cheek and teeth.
B) placed under the tongue.
C) chewed and then allowed to dissolve slowly.
D) swallowed with only an ounce of water.
B) placed under the tongue
313
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an understanding of chest pain and acute myocardial infarction?
A) "If the patient experiences chest pain that radiates into the left arm, it is most likely a heart attack. If the pain radiates anywhere else, it is most likely not cardiac in origin."
B) "If the patient's chest pain does not go away with nitroglycerin, you can assume that the medication has expired and is no longer effective."
C) "Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of 'severe heartburn.' "
D) "If the chest pain started during activity, it is most likely cardiac in origin. If the pain started while the patient was at rest, it is most likely not cardiac in origin."
C) "Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of 'severe heartburn.' "
314
You are out shopping when a middle-aged man suddenly falls to the ground. You quickly run to assist him and note that he is not breathing and does not have a carotid pulse. You begin CPR because you know that prompt intervention with an AED is needed. Which of the following statements is not a reason that prompt intervention with an AED is needed?
A) Since AED was first used by trained and lay rescuers, patient survival from sudden cardiac arrest has doubled.
B) Studies show that after 10 minutes of pulseless cardiac arrest due to V-fib or V-tach, the heart is less responsive to electrical stimulation.
C) Asystole, which can accompany an acute MI, is often reversed by the use of an AED.
D) Two common arrhythmias that are associated with sudden cardiac death–ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia–can respond to AED use.
C) Asystole, which can accompany an acute MI, is often reversed by the use of an AED.
315
You are preparing to teach a class on hypertension. Which of the following statements provides incorrect information that you would not include in your presentation?
A) The increased pressure in hypertension damages small arteries in many of the body's organs.
B) Hypertension results from the restriction of blood flow when the internal diameter of small arterioles is reduced by atherosclerosis or other factors.
C) Hypertension is defined as a blood pressure with a systolic reading greater than 140 or a diastolic reading greater than 90.
D) There are no known treatable risk factors for hypertension.
D) There are no known treatable risk factors for hypertension.
316
You are assessing a 68-year-old man who is complaining of severe abdominal pain that radiates to his back. He tells you that he has a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Based on this history and his complaints, on your physical exam you would look for:
A) blood pressure that is higher in one arm than in the other.
B) a pulsating mass in his abdomen.
C) bruising on his abdomen.
D) abdominal pain that is relieved when you place the patient on his side.
B) a pulsating mass in his abdomen.
317
Trauma centers are specifically designed to:
) be testing areas for physicians who wish to be "board certified" as trauma surgeons.
B) manage patients with multi-system trauma.
C) encourage patients with less urgent injuries to use lower-level facilities.
D) provide training to physicians who will work with trauma patients.
B) manage patients with multi-system trauma.
318
Which of the following descriptions describes a patient suffering from multi-system trauma?
A) A 70-year-old female who slipped on some ice and has a hematoma at the back of her head
B) A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain
C) A 24-year-old male who was tackled in a football game and has pain and deformity in his right shoulder and left wrist
D) A 32-year-old female who was stabbed by her boyfriend
B) A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain
319
You arrive alone at a scene at which a 16-year-old skier has collided with a tree. He is unresponsive and has blood flowing from his ears and nose. He was not wearing a helmet. Which of the following lists reflects the most appropriate care of this patient?
A) Primary assessment, immobilization, bandaging of the ears to control bleeding, airway management
B) Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible
C) Primary assessment, oxygen administration, rapid transport to the aid room, immobilization in the aid room
D) Immobilization, transfer to a sled, completion of the assessment in the aid room
B) Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible
320
The group of signs and symptoms that are often seen during the initial stages of patient blast management, which is known as the "blast pattern triad," includes:
A) hypertension, bradycardia, and apnea.
B) apnea, hypotension, and bradycardia.
C) confusion, bradycardia, and hypertension.
D) tachycardia, confusion, and urinary incontinence.
B) apnea, hypotension, and bradycardia.
321
Which of the following factors does not directly relate to the severity of bodily injury?
A) The size of the injured person
B) The amount of kinetic energy absorbed
C) The direction the kinetic energy travels
D) The density of the structures impacted
A) The size of the injured person
322
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician understands the importance of evaluating the mechanism of injury?
A) "Evaluating the mechanism of injury is important because it determines whether emergency transport to the hospital is needed."
B) "The mechanism of injury can give valuable clues about the source of injury and how seriously a patient is injured."
C) "The mechanism of injury is useful in determining the exact injuries a patient has sustained."
D) "The mechanism of injury is a useful tool in determining whether a patient's outcome will be good or bad."
B) "The mechanism of injury can give valuable clues about the source of injury and how seriously a patient is injured."
323
When assessing a patient you note a bruise on the chest. Another word for documenting a bruise is:
A) hematoma.
B) erythematic.
C) cyanosis.
D) ecchymosis.
D) ecchymosis.
324
When managing a patient with soft-tissue injuries, it is essential that you:
A) use the appropriate personal protective equipment.
B) cover any hematomas with an occlusive dressing.
C) thoroughly clean all lacerations.
D) control any bleeding with sterile dressings only.
A) use the appropriate personal protective equipment.
325
Which of the following statements about the use of a tourniquet is true?
A) It can be used on most any part of the body except the neck.
B) On an arm or leg, it should be placed 1 inch from either the elbow or knee.
C) Tourniquets are a last resort and should be used rarely, if ever.
D) It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.
D) It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.
326
You have applied a pressure dressing to the calf of a woman who suffered a deep laceration from a piece of broken glass. Which of the following actions should you take next?
A) Check CMS in the patient's foot.
B) Obtain a follow-up blood pressure reading.
C) Apply a tourniquet above the laceration.
D) Apply a splint.
A) Check CMS in the patient's foot.
327
Assessment of a patient who fell reveals bruising to her right buttock. Her skin is intact and she complains of tenderness in the area when you palpate it. You would recognize which of the following types of injury?
A) An open injury
B) An abrasion
C) A contusion
D) An avulsion
C) A contusion
328
Which of the following statements about a high-pressure injection injury is false?
A) The injury involves the introduction of a liquid or gas into the body from a pressurized source.
B) The injury often requires surgical amputation of the injured part.
C) The injury typically involves the limbs.
D) The presenting wound is typically large.
D) The presenting wound is typically large.
329
You are caring for a 26-year-old woman with a probable wrist fracture. Before applying a splint you ask her to remove her large engagement ring. She hesitates and asks why she should do this. Which of the following responses would be an OEC Technician's best response?
A) "The metal in the ring will interfere with taking X-rays at the hospital."
B) "You don't want to lose your ring when they are caring for you at the hospital."
C) "The diamond could get caught in the splint and ruin the ring."
D) "You should remove the ring now because your fingers may become very swollen."
D) "You should remove the ring now because your fingers may become very swollen."
330
A 42-year-old man has fallen 25 feet while rock climbing. He hit the ground feet first and suffered open fractures to both tibias, which are protruding through the skin. When you arrive, he is responding to painful stimuli. His airway is open, his breathing is adequate, and his radial pulse is strong and rapid. At this point in his care, it is a priority for you to:
A) cover him to help prevent shock.
B) obtain a medical history from his friends.
C) look for other injuries.
D) immobilize the fractures.
C) look for other injuries.
331
The type of muscle found in the forearm is:
A) integumentary muscle.
B) involuntary muscle.
C) voluntary muscle.
D) contractor muscle.
C) voluntary muscl
332
Joints provide different degrees of movement. There are five different types of joints. An example of a "pivot" joints is the:
A) knee.
B) radio-ulnar joint of the elbow.
C) acromio-clavicular joint of the shoulder.
D) vertebrae of the spine.
B) radio-ulnar joint of the elbow.
333
A patient has suffered an injury to his right leg, and deformity of the tibia-fibula region is obvious. After conducting a primary assessment and manually stabilizing the leg, which of the following actions should you take next?
A) Apply a traction splint.
B) Apply a Quick Splint.
C) Apply an ice pack to the injury.
D) Check for a pedal pulse
D) Check for a pedal pulse
334
Which of the following terms does not describe a type of joint?
A) Post
B) Gliding
C) Hinge
D) Ball and socket
A) Post
335
A patient was killed immediately following a self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head. Which portion of the central nervous system was most likely damaged in order to cause the rapid death of the patient?
A) The cerebellum
B) The cerebrum
C) The brain stem
D) The meninges
C) The brain stem
336
Which of the following signs is a characteristic sign that may be seen during a secondary assessment of patients with spinal cord injury?
A) Normal skin color and complaint of headache and nausea
B) Flushed skin color below the level of the injury and impairment or absence of sensation and movement
C) Flushed skin color at the level of pinpoint back pain
D) Bruising on the back and on the abdomen at the level of the injury, with normal or impaired sensation
B) Flushed skin color below the level of the injury and impairment or absence of sensation and movement
337
You suspect that an unhelmeted climber who struck his head during a fall may have a basilar skull fracture. As you conduct your assessment, which of the following findings reinforces this suspicion?
A) Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril
B) Blood coming from both ears
C) Dilation and sluggish response to light of the right pupil
D) Paralysis of the left arm and left leg
A) Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril
338
You have been called to aid a 32-year-old male patient who fell down a flight of stairs. The patient is walking toward you and states that he would like to be looked at because his shoulder and lower back hurt. You immediately apply in-line manual cervical stabilization and your partner examines his back, which reveals no sign of injury. How should you immobilize this patient?
A) Place a long board on a stretcher and carefully assist the patient onto the long board.
B) Place a cervical collar on the patient, place a long spine board behind him, and then lower him to the ground.
C) Have the patient lie down on the ground and immobilize him in the usual fashion.
D) Place a cervical collar on the patient and then transfer him to a stretcher.
B) Place a cervical collar on the patient, place a long spine board behind him, and then lower him to the ground.
339
A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has a deformity to the left side of the head. The skin overlying the deformity is still intact. Based on these assessment findings, which of the following conditions would be your greatest concern?
A) A possible brain injury
B) Soft tissue trauma to the scalp
C) The potential for infection of the brain
D) A fracture of the skull
A) A possible brain injury
340
You are assessing 30-year-old man who has fallen about 20 feet. He is alert and oriented but states that he cannot move or feel his legs. Additionally, because his blood pressure is 82/48 mmHg, you suspect neurogenic shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings reinforces your suspicion of neurogenic shock?
A) Heart rate of 144
B) Warm and dry skin
C) Heart rate of 44
D) Shallow rapid respirations
C) Heart rate of 44
341
You are caring for a 15-year-old male with a laceration of the left ear. Which of the following actions would you not take in dressing this injury?
A) Placing a bulky dressing between the ear and the scalp
B) Using direct pressure to control the bleeding
C) Securing the dressing with gauze that is wrapped securely around the head
D) Wrapping gauze loosely around the head and under the opposite axilla
D) Wrapping gauze loosely around the head and under the opposite axilla
342
Your friend tells you that she was diagnosed with a corneal abrasion a day ago. She is concerned because she still has some discomfort in the eye. Based on your training, you know that:
A) ongoing pain is not uncommon.
B) something must be left in the eye.
C) the lens of the eye must be involved.
D) the pain probably indicates that an infection has begun.
A) ongoing pain is not uncommon.
343
What instructions would you give to an OEC candidate who asks how to treat a patient who has visible blood in the anterior chamber of the eye?
A) "Put a shield over the eye and bandage tightly to apply some pressure to the eye."
B) "It is important to keep the pressure in the eye low, so we will transport this patient in a sitting position."
C) "Put a shield over the eye and cover both eyes before immediately transporting this patient."
D) "Apply a cold pack to the eye and transport this patient immediately."
C) "Put a shield over the eye and cover both eyes before immediately transporting this patient."
344
A mother brings her 7-year-old child to the aid room and tells you that fluid is draining from the child's right ear. She tells you that the child has had a fever since this morning and was complaining of right ear pain. Based on your OEC training, you would:
A) arrange for ALS transportation immediately.
B) have the boy lie on his right side to allow the fluid to drain.
C) use a 4 x 4 to pack the ear and then bandage it securely using gauze around the head.
D) put a pressure dressing over the ear to stop the drainage.
B) have the boy lie on his right side to allow the fluid to drain.
345
Which of the following statements concerning the eye socket or orbit is false?
A) It does not take much force to injure the orbital bones.
B) It is formed by the skull and facial bones.
C) It anchors the muscles that control voluntary eye movement.
D) It protects the fluid-filled eyeball.
A) It does not take much force to injure the orbital bones.
346
During an altercation, your patient was cut with a sharp knife. Your assessment reveals a laceration across the right eyelid down to the right cheek that is oozing dark red blood. It also appears that the patient's eye was cut with the knife. You would:
A) apply direct pressure to the eyelid and the eye to control the bleeding.
B) clean the incisions with sterile water.
C) cover both eyes with a sterile dressing.
D) apply cold packs to the eyelid to decrease swelling.
C) cover both eyes with a sterile dressing
347
The thorax is enclosed by the:
A) ribs, clavicles, diaphragm, and mediastinum.
B) ribs, sternum, thoracic spine, and diaphragm.
C) thoracic vertebrae, diaphragm, mediastinum, and clavicles.
D) clavicles, sternum, diaphragm, and thoracic spine.
B) ribs, sternum, thoracic spine, and diaphragm.
348
You are assisting at an accident scene and are asked to apply a dressing over a sucking chest wound on the patient's left anterior chest wall. Which of the following items would you use?
A) Sterile gauze soaked in sterile water
B) A clean cravat
C) Vaseline gauze
D) A dry sterile gauze dressing
C) Vaseline gauze
349
When assessing a patient who sustained blunt trauma to the chest, which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of a serious injury to the lung?
A) Painful respirations
B) An ecchymotic area on the anterior chest
C) A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
D) Hypoxia
D) Hypoxia
350
Your patient was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. Which of the following assessment findings best helps to determine that the patient has a flail segment?
A) Paradoxical chest wall movement
B) Pain upon inspiration
C) Chest wall bruising
D) Shortness of breath
A) Paradoxical chest wall movement
351
You are listening to two patrollers discuss the accident to which they just responded. Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe that one of the patients had suffered from traumatic asphyxia?
A) A bilateral femur deformity
B) A chest wound that makes a sucking sound
C) Bluish discoloration of the neck and face
D) Abdominal bruising and distention
C) Bluish discoloration of the neck and face
352
An OEC candidate asks you to explain a pneumothorax. Your response should be that it occurs when:
A) the trachea becomes obstructed, causing the lungs to collapse.
B) air enters the lung alveoli through a traumatic opening in the chest wall.
C) air accumulates between the inner chest wall and the outside of the lung, causing the lung to collapse.
D) the lung becomes overinflated with air and then collapses.
C) air accumulates between the inner chest wall and the outside of the lung, causing the lung to collapse.
353
When palpating the anterior portion of a patient's abdomen, you note tenderness in the left upper quadrant. As a knowledgeable OEC Technician, you would recognize that which of the following organs may be involved?
A) The gallbladder
B) The kidney
C) The spleen
D) The liver
C) The spleen
354
In treating an evisceration, OEC Technicians should:
A) apply a sterile dressing and direct pressure.
B) not put the protruding organs back inside the abdominopelvic cavity.
C) cover the wound with an occlusive flutter-valve dressing.
D) apply a sterile dressing and an ice pack.
B) not put the protruding organs back inside the abdominopelvic cavity.
355
A patient complains of severe and sharp pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant. Based on this location, what organ or structure is most likely involved?
A) Appendix
B) Kidney
C) Spleen
D) Liver
A) Appendix
356
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands the goal of assessing a patient who has abdominal pain?
A) "To best treat the patient, OEC Technicians must identify the exact cause of the patient's pain."
B) "If the patient has tenderness upon palpation of the abdomen, OEC Technicians should assume that bleeding is the cause."
C) "It is more important to recognize a possible abdominal emergency than it is to identify the exact cause."
D) "It is important to determine if the liver is the cause of pain, because that is the most life-threatening condition."
C) "It is more important to recognize a possible abdominal emergency than it is to identify the exact cause."
357
An OEC Technician understands the major function of most organs in the abdomen when she makes which of the following statements?
A) "The primary role of the organs in the abdominal cavity is the absorption of oxygen."
B) "The fundamental role of the organs in the abdomen is the cleansing and filtering of blood."
C) "The major function of the organs in the abdominal cavity is digestion."
D) "The basic function of the abdominal organs is the storage of fat."
B) "The fundamental role of the organs in the abdomen is the cleansing and filtering of blood."
358
In most cases, the position of comfort in abdominopelvic trauma is:
A) in the Trendelenburg position.
B) in a right recumbent position with the knees bent.
C) in a left recumbent position with the knees bent.
D) supine, with the knees bent.
D) supine, with the knees bent.
359
