Chapters 1-3

Question 1

What is the cell involved in acquired immunity?

Answer 1

Lymphocytes

Question 2

What wells are also known as antigen presenting cells?

Answer 2

Macrophages

Question 3

What term is associated with the b-cell response to antigens?

Answer 3

Humoral immunity

Question 4

What is the cell involved in the clearance of viral infected cells, tumou cells, and foreign tissue grafts?

Answer 4

CD8 cells

Question 5

What is responsible for the following is responsible for the activation of the classical pathway of compliment?

Answer 5

Antibody bound to antigen

Question 6

The major histocompatibility complex is located on chromosome 6 and is not important in all the following immune function

Answer 6

Hemolysis

Question 7

Human leukocyte antigen antibodies are often stimulated following a patient’s repeated transfusions of platelets This poor response to platelet transfusion is known as:

Answer 7

Refractoriness (repeated platelet transfusions that contain leukocytes can increase the immune response to human leukocyte antigen and decrease the effectiveness of platelet transfusion)

Question 8

In a lymphocytotoxicity test, cells that take on the dye:

Answer 8

Are recognized by a specific antibody

Question 9

In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as

Answer 9

Antibody excess

Question 10

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?

Answer 10

False negative

Question 11

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed how should this reaction be graded?

Answer 11

4+

Question 12

Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody is unique class function

Answer 12

Constant region of heavy chain

Question 13

What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in removal of antibody bound to red cells?

Answer 13

Fc fragment

Question 14

Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity

Answer 14

Variable region

Question 15

What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?

Answer 15

IgG

Question 16

What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?

Answer 16

IgG

Question 17

What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin?

Answer 17

IgM

Question 18

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?

Answer 18

Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system

Question 19

The purpose of adding antibody -sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test is to?

Answer 19

Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies

Question 20

An antibody with a specificity other than to one’s own cells or tissue that is stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy is termed an:

Answer 20

Alloantibody

Question 21

Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response?

Answer 21

Size greater than 10000 daltons

Question 22

Incubation step is not necessary

Answer 22

Direct antiglobulin test

Question 23

Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent

Answer 23

Both direct and indirect antiglobulin test

Question 24

Tests for a certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Answer 24

Direct antiglobulin test

Question 25

Detect IgG or complement coated red cells

Answer 25

Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test

Question 26

Test that uses IgG sensitized red calls (check cells)

Answer 26

Antiglobulintest

Question 27

Method the uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix

Answer 27

Get technology

Question 28

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?

Answer 28

Polyclonal based

Question 29

The evidence for reagent red cell deterioration may include which of the following?

Answer 29

Spontaneous agglutination, significant hemolysis, loss of agglutination strength over time

Question 30

Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are:

Answer 30

Polyclonal in specificity

Question 31

Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in

Answer 31

Vitro (monoclonal antibodies are prepared from antibody- producing B lymphocytes and myeloma cells in a hybridoma)

Question 32

An advantage of using mono Donal antibody over a polyclonaldoesn't include:

Answer 32

All variations of the antigen can be detected

Question 33

Solid -phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tape testing because:

Answer 33

The end point is more clearly defined

Question 34

What is the regarding IgG sensitized red cells?

Answer 34

They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test

Question 35

The get technology method uses a concentration offed cells that is:

Answer 35

Lower than tube techniques

Question 36

What is true regarding high-protein anti- D reagents?

Answer 36

They have been largely replaced with low protein monoclonal reagents. They contain approx 20% bovine albumin. They may increase the possibility of a false positive reaction, requiring the use of a control.

Question 37

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?

Answer 37

Unable to determine without further testing

Question 38

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples

Answer 38

Pooled screening cells

Question 39

Polyspecific antihuman globulin contains:

Answer 39

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

Question 40

The indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature?

Answer 40

37°C

Question 41

Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?

Answer 41

The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo

Question 42

In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, a negative test would appear as:

Answer 42

A button of cells on the bottom of the well

Question 43

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are observed to be evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as:

Answer 43

2+

Question 44

Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells

Answer 44

Lectins

Question 45

Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patients red cells

Answer 45

ABO antisera

Question 46

Reagent to detect the presence of red cell antibodies

Answer 46

Screening cells

Question 47

Reagent to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody

Answer 47

Panel cells

Question 48

Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies

Answer 48

A1 and B cells

Question 49

A person whose red cells type M+, N+ with antisera would be:

Answer 49

A heterozygote (mand N are alleles, the inheritance of both alleles makes the individual a heterozygote)

Question 50

The children of an AB mother and a B father could phenotype as all the following except:

Answer 50

O (unless there was a rare cis AB inheritance pattern, an AB parent would not likely have a group O child)

Question 51

Parents who are both phenotypes as group A cawnot have group O child

Answer 51

False

Question 52

In a family study it was determined that all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. The parents are most likely:

Answer 52

AO and BO (punnette square)

Question 53

It anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-?

Answer 53

Weaker

Question 54

A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none to his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

Answer 54

X -linked dominant (bc. only passed to daughters it was carried on the X chromosome, dominant genetic trait)

Question 55

Of the following matters that can be used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful value? A) human leukocyte antigen typing B) D antigen C) ABO system antigens D) the Kidd system

Answer 55

D antigen

Question 56

Mitosis results in ____ chromosomes as the original

Answer 56

Two cells with the same number of

Question 57

Crossing over occurs during:

Answer 57

Meiosis

Question 58

When an individual is said to be group Ai it refers to the individuals'

Answer 58

Phenotype

Question 59

An advantage of the polymerase chain reaction for viral marker testing is

Answer 59

A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected

Question 60

What is meant by the term autosomal?

Answer 60

A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes

Question 61

How is RNA different from DNA?

Answer 61

Single stranded Sugar is ribose (rather than deoxyribose) Uracil base only exists with RNA

Question 62

When using hardy-weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which must be true?

Answer 62

The population statistics must be large Mutations must not occur Mating has to be random

Question 63

If two traits were found to occur higher in a population together than eachoccurs separately, they may be linked. This would suggest that:

Answer 63

The genes are close together on the same chromosome

Question 64

A gene that does not express a detectable product

Answer 64

Amorphicgenes

Question 65

Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems

Answer 65

Codominant genes

Question 66

Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus

Answer 66

Polymorphic

Question 67

When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents

Answer 67

Recessive

Question 68

The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA

Answer 68

Hybridization

Question 69

DNA fragments produced byenzymatic device at specific recognition sites

Answer 69

Restriction fragment-length polymorphism

Question 70

Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

Answer 70

Amplicon

Question 71

Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker

Answer 71

Probe

Question 72

Technique used to replicate a specific targeted DNA sequence

Answer 72

Polymerase chain reaction

Question 73

What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti- A, B produced by group O individuals?

Answer 73

A and B (group O individuals make anti- A, B, an antibody with a specificity to both the A and B antigens)

Question 74

Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the cells surface

Answer 74

O, A1B

Question 75

A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion

Answer 75

AB and A

Question 76

Apatient's red cells are agglutinate by anti-B but not by anti-A. This person would have which of the following ABO phenotypes

Answer 76

Group B

Question 77

The test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells is called:

Answer 77

ABO reverse grouping

Question 78

a group A man marries a group AB woman. The father of the group A man was group O. What possible ABO phenotypes could be expected in the offspring?

Answer 78

Group A, B, and AB

Question 79

According to landsteiner's rule, what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual's serum?

Answer 79

Anti-B

Question 80

Select the appropriate strategy if the results of red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions

Answer 80

Incubate tubes at room temperature or 4°C with an autocontrol (ABO antibodies are stronger at room temperature lower. The autocontrol determines whether the enhanced antibody reaction was due to ABO antibodies onto a cold reacting antibody. The auto control should be negative for the ABO typing to be valid)

Question 81

What would be the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype with anti-H lectin?

Answer 81

Negative

Question 82

Given the following ABO phenotype ping data: Forward Anti-A: 2+mf Anti-B: 0 Reverse A1 cells: 0 B cells: 3+ What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy

Answer 82

Group O blood products given to group (Mixed field reaction save often caused by transfusion of group O red cells, which may take place during an emergency or inventory issue)

Question 83

What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory

Answer 83

Anti- A, B

Question 84

Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given?

Answer 84

Group B packed cells to a group O recipient

Question 85

A blood sample from a 90yr old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. The most likely cause of this discrepancy is:

Answer 85

That patient has low-titer isoagglutinins

Question 86

Most “naturally occurring” ABO system antibodies fall into which class

Answer 86

IgM

Question 87

What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene?

Answer 87

A, H

Question 88

What percentage of the group A population are type A2?

Answer 88

20%

Question 89

Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva?

Answer 89

80%

Question 90

To distinguish between A1 and A2 blood type which reagent is used?

Answer 90

Dolichos biflorus lectin

Question 91

Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A1 and A2 blood types?

Answer 91

To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing

Question 92

The subgroup of A with the least amount of A antigen is:

Answer 92

Ael

Question 93

N-acetylgalactosamine

Answer 93

Group A

Question 94

L-fucose

Answer 94

Group O, H antigen

Question 95

D- galactose

Answer 95

Group B

Question 96

Does Bombay have immunodominant sugar?

Answer 96

No!

Question 97

Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?

Answer 97

rr

Question 98

Which of the following genotypes is possible for an individual whose red cells react as indicated below except: ANTISERA REACTIONS anti-C + anti-D + anti-E + anti-c + anti-e +

Answer 98

R0r”

Question 99

The weak D test detects

Answer 99

A weak D antigen