Chapters 19/20 Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

Consolidated Audit Trail (CAT)

A

Preserves trade data from the NMS and OTC markets. CAT is a central repository that receives, consolidates, and retains the data over the lifecycle of trades and orders for all eligible securities. Eligible securities include NMS stocks, listed options, and OTC securities.

  • SROs and BDs submit data to CAT every day.
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2
Q

SEC Rule 216

A

Governs what member firms must submit to CAT:
* The original receipt or origination of the order.
* The routing of the order.
* The receipt of an order that has been routed.
* Whether the order has been modified or cancelled.
* Whether the order has been executed, in whole or in part.

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3
Q

When must firms report trades to CAT?

A

Either at 8amET on the following trading day that the member firm RECORDED the data OR at 8amET on the following trading day that the member firm RECEIVED the data.

If an error is noticed, the member firm must submit the corrected data on the third business day following the trade.

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4
Q

Clock Synchronization Requirements

A

At a minimum, clocks used for reporting must be synchronized to within 50 milliseconds of the time maintained by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).

  • Business clocks that are solely used for manual CAT events, or for the time of allocation on the Allocation Reports, must be synchronized to with one second tolerance (at a minimum).
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5
Q

True or false: CAT records data 24/7?

A

True. If data is submitted after the close on a trading day, it’s considered a part of the next trading day (ex: 4:16pm on Monday is considered Tuesday trading day.) Any activity that occurs after 4:16pm on a Friday is considered a part of Monday trading date.

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6
Q

What are the different reporting systems?

A
  • Automated Confirmation Transaction (ACT) Technology Platform
  • Trade Reporting Facility (TRF)
  • OTC Reporting Facility (ORF)
  • Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE)
  • Real-Time Transaction Reporting System (RTRS)
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7
Q

Automated Confirmation Transaction (ACT) Technology Platform

A

A system that facilitates the reporting and clearing of Nasdaq and OTC transactions by allowing order-entry and market-making firms to enter priced trades. This information is then used to report, match, and clear transactions.

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8
Q

Trade Reporting Facility (TRF)

A

A reporting system (NOT an execution system) where NASDAQ or OTC trades that have ALREADY been executed are reported.

  • TRF is not a system that’s used to report transactions on the floor of the NYSE.
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9
Q

OTC Reporting Facility (ORF)

A

Similar to TRF but only records trades in OTC securities.

NOT an order-execution system.

  • The ORF is not a system that’s used to report transactions executed on the floor of the NYSE.
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10
Q

Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE)

A

TRACE is a system that members must use to report transactions in eligible, fixed-income securities and the system then disseminates continuous bond sale information. This system is used for corporate bonds.

NOT a quotation or execution system

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11
Q

TRACE-eligable securities

A
  • Investment and non-investment grade securities
  • Split-rated
  • Debt securities issued by a U.S. or foreign company
  • Securities issued under the Act of ‘33 and purchased/sold according to Rule 144A
  • Treasuries AND Agency securities
  • Foreign soverign debt instruments.

  • Essentially, TRACE is a system that provides more transparency in the corporate bond market.
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12
Q

Real-Time Transaction Reporting System (RTRS)

A

A reporting system for munis that helps assist regulatory bodies and registered securities associations enforce compliance and admin. RTRS is operated by the MSRB and open Mon. thru Fri. from 7:30amET-6:30pmET.

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13
Q

Transactions NOT required to be reported to RTRS

A
  • Securities w/o CUSIPS
  • muni FUND securities
  • Inter-dealer transactions that aren’t eligible for comparison in a clearing agency registered w/ the Commission
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14
Q

Depository Trust Clearing Corporation (DTCC)

A

The organization that settles security trades. The DTCC guarentees settlement, thus there’s no contra party risk.

  • Settlement represents the day on which the buying firm must pay for the securities and the selling firm must deliver them and receive the proceeds from the sale.
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15
Q

Book-entry settlement

A

When the DTCC simply journals the movement of security positions and
monies between each clearing firm’s account. This is in contrast to settlement of physical securities.

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16
Q

What is the settlement process for non-DTCC-eligable securities?

A

A broker contacts the other broker directly.

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17
Q

DK Notice

A

This happens for non-DTCC-eligable securities. If there’s an unrecognized trade and the trade can’t be confirmed, the party receiving the confirmation is required to notify the confirming party by phone and, within one business day, send a written notice with a return receipt requested, indicating non-recognition of the transaction. Within 4 days, the broker must send the counterbroker a Don’t Know (DK) Notice.

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18
Q

Methods of settlement

A
  • Regular way: Most popular method. Trades involving corporate, muni, and Treasury securities settle one day after the trade.
  • Cash settlement: Settles the same day as the trade. Can be used for any security and requires both parties to agree to this.
  • Seller’s option: The seller gets more than the usual T+1 for settlement.
  • When issued: When securities are authorized but not yet issued, they will settle when they become available for delivery.
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19
Q

True or false: If a customer purchases a security in a foreign market, the
settlement date is determined by the regulatory authority in that market?

A

True

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20
Q

True or false: Customer payment timelines for securities transactions are the same as settlement?

A

False, settlement is between the two brokers. Recall, Reg T requires customers to make a full payment in (S+2) or (T+3) for regular way settlements of coroporate securities or options trades in a cash or margin account.

Reg T does not govern muni or Treasury securities, so payment is usually required by the settlement date.

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21
Q

Good delivery

A

When all the paperwork is completed accurately for a physical security settlement.

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22
Q

Aspects of delivery

A
  • CUSIP Number: To identify the correct security
  • Endorsements
  • Units of delivery
  • Restricted securities: Any legend must be removed from the security
  • DVP/RVP Accounts: Must provide the identity of the 3rd party bank

Only the transfer agent can remove the legend from a security

  • If a security is in more than one person’s name, and there is a physical settlement, all owners must sign the security.
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23
Q

Units of delivery for stock transactions

A

Certificates must be delivered in multiples of 100 shares.

Ex: A transaction involving 500 shares- one certificate for 500 shares, or five certificates for 100 shares each, or two certificates for 200 shares and one certificate for 100 shares are all good delivery since they’re all in multiples of 100 shares.

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24
Q

Units of delivery for bond transactions

A

Registered bonds are good delivery if they’re in $1,000 units or multiples thereof. Additionally, amounts of $100 or multiples aggregating to $1,000 are acceptable, but with no denomination larger than $100,000.

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25
How are securities valued for estate tax purposes?
Securities are generally valued as of the date of death or as of an alternative date that’s six months after the date of death.
26
Declaration date vs record date vs payment date
Declaration date: The date where the dividend is authorized. Record date: The date where an investor must own the stock to be eligable to receive the dividend. Payment date: The date where the declared dividend is paid out to shareholders.
27
Ex-dividend date
The date, same as the record date, where the stock begins to trade w/o its dividend. This is set by the SRO.
28
Due bill
If someone buys a stock before the ex-dividend date, but the seller fails to deliver the security by the ex-dividend date, then the seller will receive a due bill to not only deliver the security, but the accompanying dividend.
29
Deadlines for options contracts
Equity options are usually issued w/ expirations of up to 9 months. They will expire on the 3rd Friday of the expiration month and stop trading at 4pmET on the expiration date. Although the option won't actually expire until 11:59pmET, the right to exercise will stop at 5:30pmET. ## Footnote * Member firms can accept exercise notices after 5:30pmET, but only if there was some error made or exceptional circumstances.
30
How do BDs assign options?
When the OCC receives exercise instructions from the firm that represents the purchaser, it will randomly ***assign*** the exercise notice to a BD whose account shows a short option position that’s identical to the long option position being exercised. If a broker-dealer receives an assignment notice, it must select a client to whom the notice will be assigned. There are 3 methods to choosing the client: 1. Random selection 2. FIFO 3. Any other method that's fair and equitable
31
True or false: An option that has not been exercised by the OCC’s cutoff time will expire worthless. However, at expiration, an option that’s in-the-money by at least $.01 will be automatically exercised by the OCC?
True
32
True or false: W/ index options, remember that there’s no physical delivery of shares at the time of exercise, but instead, the writer of the option pays the buyer of the option an amount of cash that’s equal to the difference between the contract’s strike price and index value (the in-the-money amount). This cash amount is due 1 business day after the option is exercised?
True
33
Direct Registration System (DRS)
Allows investors to hold securities in book-entry form, rather than to receive physical delivery. DRS is linked with DTCC and electronically transfers assets to and from the transfer agent and BD.
34
True or false: Mutual fund securities settle one business day after the trade date?
False, mutual funds don't have a fixed settlement; however, payments for redemptions must be made within seven calendar days.
35
Upon death of a brokerage client, what documents might a transfer agent ask for?
* Affidavit of domicile * Notarized copy of the death certificate * Copy of a will or court appointment * State inheritance tax waiver
36
Error account
All BDs must have an error account where they record trade errors are made by the RRs. The RR does NOT decide on their own to place a trade in the error account, but rather this is done by a registered principal. ## Footnote * BDs are NOT responsible for errors caused by the clients.
37
Cancel and rebill
If a RR executes a transaction using the wrong account #, the appropriate remedy is to transfer the transaction to the appropriate account # w/ the permission of a registered principal. ## Footnote * If there’s a cancel and rebill, corrected confirmations must be generated. Ex: If the original transaction was to a client's cash account but was meant for their IRA, two confirmations are needed: one for the cancellation of the original and one for the new.
38
What happens if an error occurs in paperwork, rather than in execution?
The client is obligated to accept the actual execution. A corrected confirmation will be generated and sent to the client.
39
Clearly erroneous transactions
An obvious error in any term, such as price, # of shares or other unit of trading, or identification of the security. These trades may be voided by FINRA.
40
Erroneous transaction threshold for exchange-listed securities between $0-$25?
It's erroneous if the market price differs 10% from the transaction's last consolidated sale during market hours. 20% if the trade happens outside of market hours.
41
Erroneous transaction threshold for exchange-listed securities between $25-$50?
5% during normal market hours and 10% outside of normal market hours.
42
Erroneous transaction threshold for exchange-listed securites greater than $50?
3% during normal market hours and 6% outside of normal market hours.
43
Erroneous transaction threshold for exchange-listed securites that are considered a multistock event (– Filings involving 5-19 securities by the same member will be aggregated into a single filing)?
10% during normal market hours and 10% outside of normal market hours.
44
Erroneous transaction threshold for leverage ETFs or ETNs?
Normal market hours numerical guidelines multiplied by the leverage multiplier (i.e., 2x).
45
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securites less than $1?
20%
46
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securites greater than $1 but less than $5?
Low end of range, min. 20% High end of range, min. 10%
47
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securites greater than $5 but less than $75?
10%
48
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securites greater than $75 but less than $200?
Low end of range, min. 10% High end of range, min. 5%
49
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securites greater than $200 but less than $500?
5%
50
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securites greater than $500 but less than $1k?
Low end of range, min. 5% High end of range, min. 3%
51
Erroneous transaction threshold for OTC securities greater than $1k?
3%
52
What other factors does FINRA use besides pricing to determine if a trade is erroneous?
1. Whether the security was subject to a stock split or other corporate action 2. Whether the stock was recently halted or resumed trading 3. Whether the security is an IPO
53
What must a member firm do when it receives an execution that it believes is erroneous?
The member firm MUST submit a written complaint within 30 minutes of execution. ## Footnote * In the case of an Outlier Transaction, a request may be made within 60 minutes after the transaction. * A FINRA officer or Nasdaq official has the authority to declare a transaction null and void. The officer usually takes action within 30 minutes of becoming aware of a transaction in an exchange-listed security. * In the case of an OTC equity security, the officer will take action ASAP, but in all cases, by 3pm on the next trading day.
54
Outlier Transaction
A transaction in the Nasdaq market in which the execution price of the security is greater than three times the current numerical guidelines.
55
Erroneous transaction appeal process
An appeal to a NASDAQ or FINRA ruling can be made to the Market Operations Review Committee (MORC) or the Uniform Practice Committee (UPC). The appeal must be in writing and must be received within 30 minutes after the person making the appeal is given notification. ## Footnote * For exchange-listed securities, the decision will be made as soon as feasible, but generally on the same trading day. For OTC equity securities, the decision will be made as soon as feasible, but no later than two trading days after the execution under review. * On a request for an appeal made after 3:00 p.m., the decision may not be made later than the next trading day.
56
FINRA definition of a complaint
Any written statement made by a client (or person acting on behalf of a client) that makes any grievance involving a person working under a member firm in connection with a transaction. ## Footnote * The complaint may be delivered in any written format, which includes letters, e-mails, instant messages, and text messages.
57
What must member firms do when receiving a complaint?
The complaint MUST be forwarded to a principal who reviews and initials the complaint. Member firms must keep the complaints in an office of supervisory jurisdiction (OSJ) for 4 years. The file must contain the firm's course of action. A firm's course of action can be written or verbal. ## Footnote * Even if a member firm has never received a complaint, a complaint file must be kept.
58
FINRA's Code of Procedures
Describes the disciplinary process used in the event that a member firm or any of its associated persons violate FINRA rules, SEC rules, or fail to pay dues or assessments.
59
How do FINRA disciplinary proceedings work?
The department of enforcment requests authorization to issue a complaint. The member firm to whom the issue is against is considered the *respondent*. The respondent must file a response to the complaint within 25 days of receiving it. If the respondent fails to respond, a second issue is sent. If after 14 days of sending the second issue the respondent still fails to respond, it's considered an admission of guilt. A respondent has the right to a hearing that consists of a Hearing Officer and two panelists. The Hearing Officer is an attorney employed by FINRA. The panelists are associated w/ or retired from other member firms. Within 60 days after the Hearing Panel has stopped accepting evidence, a written decision must be rendered that was arrived at by majority vote. ## Footnote * The hearing officer must provide the repondent w/ 28 days of advanced notice of the hearing.
60
True or false: At any time before the hearing has begun, the respondent may propose an offer of settlement to the Hearing Panel. If accepted by the panel, the respondent waives the right to appeal. However, if the respondent’s offer is rejected, the hearing will proceed to a conclusion?
True
61
Possible sanctions a hearing panel may impose?
* Censuring a BD or RR * Fining a BD or RR * Suspending the membership of a BD or RR * Cancelling the membership of a BD or RR * Suspending or barring a RR from association w/ a BD * Any other fitting sanction. ## Footnote * Other than being barred or expelled, a sanction is effective 30 days after the respondent has received notice of a final disciplinary action. A bar or expulsion is effective as soon as the decision is served on the respondent.
62
Appealing a hearing panel decision
A respondent has 25 days to appeal a hearing panel decision. The appeal must be made to FINRA’s National Adjudicatory Council (NAC). A respondent has the right to appeal the NAC’s decision to the SEC. Finally, if dissatisfied with the SEC’s decision, the matter may be brought before a federal court. ## Footnote * The Department of Enforcement can also appeal a hearing panel's decision.
63
Code of arbitration
Used for disputes between member firms and clearing corporations, and between member firms and employees of member firms. Disputes MUST be filed within 6 years of occurance. | NOT used for disputes between member firms and FINRA ## Footnote * For any disputes that involve statutory discrimination or sexual harassment claims, using arbitration is not required
64
True or false: On new account forms, the arbitration clause MUST be highlighted and followed by certain disclosures?
True
65
How arbitrations work
Depending on the $ amount of the dispute, the National Arbitration Committee will appoint a panel of 1-3 arbitrators to hear the dispute. If a customer is involved, the majority of the arbitrators will be *public arbitrators* (NOT work in the securities industry). All awards granted by the arbitrators must be paid by the guilty party within 30 days of the decision. If not, there will be further penalties. ## Footnote * Unless the law directs otherwise, the findings of the arbitrators are final for both members and customers.
66
Simplified arbitration
A procedure used if the amount < $50k. In a simplified arbitration, one arbitrator gives the final ruling w/o a hearing based on written evidence.
67
Mediation
An alternative to arbitration in dispute resolution. This is where the two parties come to terms w/o arbitration or litigation by using a mediator who is knowledgable about the securities industry as a 3rd party to facilitate negotiations. Mediations continue until a resoltuion is found, the mediator determines that they have met an impass, or one of the parties/the mediator withdraws from negotiations. | When the parties meet w/ the mediator, the meetings are called caucuses ## Footnote * Sometimes, only part of an issue is settled through mediation leaving the more challenging aspect for arbitration. * The parties are NOT required to wait until the mediation is over to begin the process of arbitration.
68
True or false: A mediator can impose a settlement?
False
69
True or false: The hearings and final decisions in arbitration and mediation is public?
False, in arbitration, the hearings are pvt. but the result is public. In mediation, the discussions and results are pvt.
70
W/ regards to arbitration, what must be disclosed on a U4?
Any conviction, charge, or guilty plea to any: * felony or misdemeanor involving investments or an investment-related business or any fraud * false statements or omissions * wrongful taking of property * bribery * perjury * forgery * counterfeiting * extortion * conspiracy to commit any of these offenses. ## Footnote * A person who has been arrested, but has not yet been charged with a crime, is not required to report the event on Form U4 or to FINRA.
71
Form U4 disclosures
* Criminal legal proceedings * Regulatory disciplinary actions * Civil judicial actions * Customer complaints * Terminations * Financial events (bankruptcies, leans placed against the person, etc.) ## Footnote * Any changes in a person's life that applies to these must be disclosed within 30 days. * Failure to report anything could lead to someone being barred from the securities industry. * An answer of yes to any one of these questions requires an explanation on the appropriate disclosure reporting page (DRP) of the U4 and could lead to a statutory disqualification.
72
Form U5
After a registered person resigns or is terminated from a member firm, the firm is required to notify FINRA within 30 days on Form U5 and must provide the applicable details. If anything changes, Form U5 must be updated within 30 days after the registered person leaves the firm. ## Footnote * If a broker-dealer receives a written customer complaint after an RR has left the firm, it’s still required to notify FINRA regardless of how long ago the RR had left the firm. However, there’s no requirement to send a copy of the complaint to the former RR.
73
If a person leaves a member firm, how long do they have to rejoin before having to retake their examinations?
2 years
74
Form U6
Used to report disciplinary actions against an RR or BD.
75
Central Registration Depository (CRD)
An automated database that contains info regarding the employment and disciplinary histories of registered persons. ## Footnote * If any information on an individual Form U4 changes, an amendment to the CRD system must be filed promptly.
76
FINRA's BrokerCheck
A public site to access info about RRs
77
Things that can be found on BrokerCheck
* The RRs employing firm and 10 years of work history * Legal and regulatory charges brought on against the RR * Customer-initiated arbitrations and civil proceedings and settlements of MORE THAN $15K. * Written customer complaints alleging sales practice violations and compensatory damages of $5k or more in the last 24 months. * Terminations of employment after allegations involving violations of investment-related statutes or rules, fraud, theft, or failure to supervise investment-related activities ## Footnote * If someone disagrees with info found on BrokerCheck, they must file an amended U4.
78
Investor education
Member firms, at least once per year, must provide customers w/ these disclosures: * BrokerCheck hotline * FINRA's website * A statement regarding the availability of an investor brochure that includes information describing FINRA BrokerCheck
79
Expungement
Info is removed from the CRD if the info is false or clearly erroneous OR the RR was not involved in the activity.
80
If an investor is selling securities (either stocks or bonds) in physical form, what process could be used to safeguard the delivery of the securities?
Send the unsigned certificates in one envelope, and send a signed stock or bond power in a separate envelope.
81
Clearing the trade vs settlement
Clearing: The buyer and seller have agreed on the terms of the trade Settlement: The delivery of securities and payment for those securities
82
Credit call spread/Bear call spread
A type of options strategy used when an options trader expects a decline in the price of an underlying asset. A bear call spread is performed by simultaneously selling a call option and buying another call option at a higher strike price and the same expiration date.
83
Credit put spread/Bull put spread
An options strategy where the investor sells the put, then buys a lower strike put within the same order.