ChatGPT Questions Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

The IS/LM model represents equilibrium in which two markets?

A

A. Goods market and Money market.

The IS curve comes from goods market equilibrium; the LM curve from money market equilibrium.

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2
Q

A point on the IS curve represents:

A

A. Equilibrium where investment equals saving at a certain interest rate and output level.

By definition, IS is the set of (Y,i) where the goods market is in equilibrium.

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3
Q

The LM curve shows combinations of income (Y) and interest rate (i) where:

A

B. Money demand equals money supply.

LM is the equilibrium in the money market.

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4
Q

Why does the IS curve slope downward?

A

A. Lower interest rates stimulate investment, leading to higher income.

Investment is inversely related to interest, so lower i increases aggregate demand and income.

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5
Q

The LM curve slopes upward because:

A

A. Higher income increases money demand, pushing interest rates up for a given money supply.

Thus, higher Y corresponds to higher i, giving LM an upward slope.

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6
Q

Which of the following is an assumption of the basic IS/LM model?

A

A. The price level is fixed in the short run.

This is why IS/LM focuses on output and interest, not price changes.

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7
Q

An increase in government spending, all else equal, will cause the IS curve to:

A

A. Shift to the right (outward).

Fiscal expansion shifts the IS outward.

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8
Q

If the central bank decreases the money supply, the LM curve will:

A

A. Shift left/up (interest rates higher for each level of Y).

Less money means at any income level, interest rates must be higher to equilibrate money demand.

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9
Q

In the IS/LM model, what is the short-run effect of an increase in government spending (with the money supply held constant)?

A

A. Higher output and higher interest rates.

G↑ shifts IS right: output rises; the IS-LM intersection moves up the LM curve, so interest rates also rise.

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10
Q

In the IS/LM framework, an expansionary monetary policy (increase in money supply) will generally lead to:

A

A. Higher output and lower interest rates.

Ms↑ shifts LM right: the new intersection has a lower interest rate and higher income.

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11
Q

The term “crowding out” in macroeconomics refers to:

A

A. Government deficit spending raising interest rates and thus reducing private investment.

This can partially offset the expansionary effect of fiscal policy.

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12
Q

In a liquidity trap (where the LM curve is nearly flat horizontal at very low interest rates), an increase in the money supply will:

A

A. Have little to no effect on interest rates or output.

People hoard the extra money; monetary policy is ineffective.

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13
Q

If investment is completely unresponsive to interest rates (the IS curve is vertical), what is the effect of monetary policy?

A

A. Monetary policy has no effect on output (only interest rates change).

Monetary policy can’t boost output because investment and consumption won’t increase when rates drop.

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14
Q

Fiscal policy is most effective (has the largest impact on output) when:

A

A. The LM curve is flat (horizontal).

No crowding out by interest rates, hence very effective fiscal policy.

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15
Q

Aggregate Demand (AD) in an economy is composed of:

A

A. C + I + G + X – M (Consumption + Investment + Government + Net Exports).

This is the aggregate expenditure identity for an open economy.

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16
Q

The Aggregate Demand curve is downward sloping primarily because:

A

A. A lower price level increases real wealth and lowers interest rates, boosting spending.

These are the wealth and interest-rate effects.

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17
Q

Which of the following will shift the Aggregate Demand curve to the right?

A

A. The central bank cuts interest rates.

A cut in interest rates is expansionary monetary policy.

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18
Q

The Long-Run Aggregate Supply (LRAS) curve is:

A

A. Vertical at the full-employment level of output.

In the long run, output is determined by resources and technology, not the price level.

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19
Q

The Short-Run Aggregate Supply (SRAS) curve is usually upward sloping because:

A

A. Some input prices (like wages) are sticky, so higher product prices improve profit margins and output rises.

This causes an upward-sloping SRAS.

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20
Q

A large increase in oil prices will likely:

A

A. Shift the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to the left (decrease AS).

Output falls and the price level rises as a result.

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21
Q

Which of the following would increase an economy’s long-run aggregate supply (LRAS)?

A

A. A technological innovation that boosts productivity.

Price level or demand changes don’t shift LRAS.

22
Q

In the short run, an unexpected increase in aggregate demand will tend to ______ output and ______ the price level. (Assume the economy starts below full capacity.)

A

A. increase output; increase the price level.

Firms produce more to meet higher demand, and some prices go up.

23
Q

In the long run, an increase in aggregate demand (AD) will tend to:

A

A. Increase the price level, but leave output unchanged (at its potential).

AD shifts only have a lasting impact on prices, not on real GDP, in the long run.

24
Q

What is the typical self-correcting mechanism when the economy is in a recession (output below full employment) with no policy intervention?

A

A. Falling wages and input prices over time will shift SRAS to the right, increasing output back toward potential.

This moves the economy back toward full employment, though it may be slow.

25
Which of the following best characterizes the classical (pre-Keynesian) economic view?
A. Markets are self-correcting with flexible prices; the economy tends toward full employment on its own. ## Footnote They generally opposed active demand management by government.
26
According to Keynesian theory, the level of output and employment is primarily determined by:
A. Aggregate demand (total spending) in the economy. ## Footnote Insufficient demand can cause unemployment and output below potential.
27
In the Keynesian Cross (income-expenditure) model, equilibrium national income occurs when:
A. Total spending (AE) equals total output (Y). ## Footnote At that point, businesses are selling exactly what is produced.
28
The Keynesian expenditure multiplier effect implies that:
A. An initial increase in spending leads to a larger total increase in GDP. ## Footnote Each dollar spent can raise GDP by multiple dollars as it circulates.
29
Which of the following would reduce the size of the spending multiplier?
A. An increase in the marginal propensity to import (MPM). ## Footnote Any leakage – saving, taxes, or imports – reduces the multiplier.
30
If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.75 and there are no taxes or imports, the simple spending multiplier is:
A. 4. ## Footnote So a $100 increase in spending yields a $400 total increase in GDP in this simple model.
31
If the government increases its spending by $100 billion and simultaneously raises taxes by $100 billion, what is the most likely effect on equilibrium GDP (assuming a typical Keynesian model)?
A. GDP increases by about $100 billion. ## Footnote This is the balanced budget multiplier = 1.
32
If the government spends $100 billion and simultaneously raises taxes by $100 billion, what is the most likely effect on equilibrium GDP?
GDP rises by roughly the amount of the spending increase. ## Footnote This is the balanced budget multiplier = 1; the $100b in new spending directly boosts demand, while the $100b tax hike reduces consumption by less than $100b (because people reduce spending by MPC×$100b), so net effect is positive.
33
Which of the following is an example of an automatic stabilizer in the economy?
Unemployment insurance benefits that increase as jobless rates rise. ## Footnote This is a classic automatic stabilizer.
34
A countercyclical fiscal policy strategy would be to:
Increase government spending or cut taxes during a recession, and reduce spending or raise taxes during a boom. ## Footnote Countercyclical means acting against the cycle – stimulus in bad times, austerity in good times.
35
If a country enacts austerity during a recession, this policy can be described as:
Procyclical fiscal policy. ## Footnote That’s procyclical – it reinforces the downturn (reducing demand when the economy is already weak).
36
Automatic stabilizers differ from discretionary fiscal policy in that automatic stabilizers:
Work without new legislation, adjusting government taxing/spending in response to economic conditions. ## Footnote They automatically increase deficits in recessions and reduce deficits in booms.
37
Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?
Open market operations (buying/selling government bonds by the central bank). ## Footnote This is a key monetary policy instrument used by central banks to influence the money supply and interest rates.
38
Who is responsible for setting monetary policy for the countries that use the euro?
The European Central Bank (ECB). ## Footnote Individual member countries like Ireland do not set their own monetary policy under the euro system.
39
The primary objective of the European Central Bank’s monetary policy is:
Price stability (controlling inflation around a low target). ## Footnote The ECB’s main mandate is price stability (keep inflation low and stable).
40
Which of the following is NOT an expansionary economic policy?
The central bank sells government bonds on the open market. ## Footnote The central bank selling bonds is a contractionary move (it pulls money out of circulation, raising interest rates).
41
If inflation is too high and the economy is overheating, what combination of policies would help reduce inflationary pressure?
Contractionary fiscal policy and contractionary monetary policy. ## Footnote This combined policy mix will dampen demand and lower inflation, though it also slows growth.
42
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is best described as:
A flow concept measured over a period that sums up the recorded market value of all final goods and services produced domestically. ## Footnote It’s not a stock and it doesn’t count illegal/unrecorded activity.
43
Which of the following is NOT included in calculating GDP?
Government social security/unemployment benefit payments. ## Footnote They are excluded from GDP since nothing new is produced in the transaction.
44
Gross National Product (GNP) differs from GDP by:
Including net income earned by nationals abroad and excluding income earned by foreigners domestically. ## Footnote It attributes production by ownership/nationality rather than location.
45
In the circular flow of income, which of the following is an injection into the economy?
Investment spending by firms on new capital. ## Footnote Investment is an injection (spending that adds to the flow of income).
46
Which of the following is not one of the three equivalent ways to measure a country’s GDP?
Adding up all savings of individuals and firms. ## Footnote The three approaches are Expenditure approach, Income approach, and Output (value-added) approach.
47
According to Keynes’ liquidity preference theory, the three motives for holding money are:
Transactions, Precautionary, and Speculative motives. ## Footnote These are reasons people hold money instead of other assets.
48
The “impossible trinity” or Mundell-Fleming trilemma states that a country cannot simultaneously have:
A fixed exchange rate, independent monetary policy, and free capital mobility. ## Footnote All three cannot be had together.
49
Which of the following is a leakage from the circular flow of income?
Savings by households. ## Footnote Savings is a leakage (income not spent on domestic output).
50
The structural budget deficit is defined as:
The deficit that remains at full employment. ## Footnote It filters out cyclical effects, reflecting underlying fiscal stance.
51
In the IS/LM model, monetary policy will have a stronger effect on output if:
The IS curve is relatively flat. ## Footnote A flat IS means a small drop in interest rates leads to a big increase in investment and output.