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Checkpoint Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the basic unit of matter?

a. Atom
b. Mass
c. Element
d. Compound

A

a. Atom

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2
Q

Identify the property that is involved in the
identification of alcohol using a pycnometer
(density)

a. Intensive /
b. Intrinsic /
c. Extensive
d. Extrinsic
e. Both A and B

A

e. Both A and B

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3
Q

Identify which type of change has occurred when
CO2 (g) becomes CO2 (s)

a. Physical
b. Chemical
c. No change
d. Either B or C

A

a. Physical

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4
Q

Identify the law that is described as shown in the
chemical formula below:
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

a. Proust
b. Dalton’s
c. Law of conservation of mass
d. Law of conservation of energy
e. NOTA

A

c. Law of conservation of mass

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5
Q

Identify which type of change has occurred when
CO2 (g) becomes CO2 (s)

a. Melting
b. Freezing
c. Sublimation
d. Deposition

A

d. Deposition

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of a
colloid?

a. Tyndall Effect
b. Brownian Movement
c. Absorption
d. Charged Electrically

A

c. Absorption

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of a
heterogenous mixture?

a. Efficascent Oil
b. Paracetamol Syrup
c. Amoxicillin Suspension
d. NOTA
e. AOTA

A

c. Amoxicillin Suspension

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8
Q

What type of solution is formed when a stock solution of a 400mL 20% alcohol solution is used to dilute a 2L alcohol into 4% w/v?

a. Supersaturated
b. Saturated
c. Unsaturated
d. Either A or C

A

c. Unsaturated

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9
Q

Which of the following compounds would form a
neutral salt with NaOH?

a) Acetic Acid
b) Ethanoic Acid
c) Oil of Vitriol
d) None of the Above

A

c) Oil of Vitriol

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10
Q

What happens to the Reducing Agent?

a. Is reduced
b. Is oxidized
c. Gain electrons
d. Both B and C

A

b. Is oxidized

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11
Q

Who discovered the sub-atomic particle that is
shown by the atomic number?

a. Rutherford
b. Thompson
c. Dalton
d. Chadwick

A

a. Rutherford

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12
Q

Which of the following examples is a radioactive
isotope of Hydrogen?

a. Hydrogen Ion
b. Heavy Hydrogen
c. Tritium
d. Both B or C

A

c. Tritium

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13
Q

The following can form basic oxides except?

a. Na
b. Mg
c. F
d. Li

A

c. F

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14
Q

The most metallic halogen

a. F
b. Br
c. Cl
d. I
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

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15
Q

What type of reaction is exhibited when H2OI (l) -> H2O(s)

A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic
C. Insufficient Data
D. NOTA

A

B. Exothermic

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16
Q

What type of system is aquaflask?

A. Open
B. Closed
C. Isolated
D. NOTA

A

C. Isolated

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17
Q

Consider three (3) containers of 2L flasks at STP. Container A contains O2, Container B contains CO2, and Container C contains H2. Which gas contains the largest number of moles?

a. Container A
b. Container B
c. Container C
d. All are the same

A
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18
Q

Stresses to the equilibrium (ganyan na q)
EXCEPT:

A

d. Catalyst

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19
Q

If add heat to the exothermic reaction(? Ganyan
ata pagkaword)

A

moves to the Right

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20
Q

Which of the following compounds would test positive with ammoniacal silver nitrate?

A. Acetone
B. Formaldehyde
C. Paraffins
D. Olefins

A

B. Formaldehyde

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20
Q

Which of the following compounds would yield a positive result with Beilstein test?

A. Butane
B. Butanol
C. Chlorobutane
D. Propanoate

A

C. Chlorobutane

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20
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Carbon?

A. Carbon can form bonds with itself due to its catenating ability.
B. Carbon can form a maximum of four bonds due to having 4 valence electrons.
C. Carbon is the backbone of organic molecules.
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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20
Q

Which of the following compounds is a functional isomer of 3-chloro-1-propanol?

a. 2-chloro-2-propanol
b. Chloropropanol
c. 3-chloropropanal
d. 3-bromo-2-propanal

A

b. Chloropropanol

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20
Q

Which of the following structural
formula best describes the figure?
OH NH2

a. Skeletal
b. Expanded
c. Condensed
d. Either A or B

A

a. Skeletal

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21
All of the following are cell wall inhibitors, except: a. Carbapenem b. Cephalosporins c. Aminoglycosides d. Penicillins
c. Aminoglycosides
22
Which of the following inhibits 30s? a. Chloramphenicol b. Tetracyclines c. Macrolides d. Lincosamides
b. Tetracyclines
23
The ring common among penicillins and cephalosporins a. Benzene ring b. Beta-lactam ring c. Thiazole ring d. Phenothiazine
b. Beta-lactam ring
24
Increases serum levels and prolongs the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter’s tubular excretion a. Probenecid b. Indomethacin c. Propranolol d. Methyldopa
a. Probenecid
25
Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation a. Phenoxymethylpenicillin b. Benzathine Penicillin c. Benzylpenicillin d. Cloxacillin
b. Benzathine Penicillin
26
This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolation penicillin a. Freeze drying b. Extraction c. Chromatography d. X-ray
a. Freeze drying
27
Benzyl penicillin is also known as: a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin c. Oxacillin d. Ampicillin
a. Penicillin G
28
The chemical name is 2,6-dimethoxyphenyl penicillin a. Pen G b. Pen V c. Methicillin d. Nafcillin
c. Methicillin
29
Augmentin is a combination of: I. K salts of Clavulanic acid II. Amoxicillin III. Ampicillin IV. Sulbactam a. I and II b. II and III c. II and IV d. III and IV
a. I and II
30
Unasyn is a combination of: I. Amoxicillin II. Sulbactam Sodium III. Ampicillin Sodium IV. Clavulanic Acid a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV
c. II and III
31
A parenteral cephamycin a. Cefoxitin b. Cephalexin c. Ceftazidime d. Cefadroxil
a. Cefoxitin
32
A fourth generation cephalosporin a. Cefoxitin b. Cefepime c. Cefamandole d. Cefuroxime
b. Cefepime
33
Which is not true for cephalosporin a. Broad spectrum b. Bactericidal c. Affected by penicillinase d. Acid-stable
c. Affected by penicillinase
34
Cephalosporin C contains a. Penicillanic acid b. Thiazolidine ring c. Lactone ring d. Dihydrothiazine ring
d. Dihydrothiazine ring
35
Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in which the primary amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic basic function. Imipenem is also: a. 5-acetamido thienamycin b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4 isoxazolyl penicillin c. N-formimidoyl thienamycin d. a-(1-methanesulfonyl-2-dioxo-imidazolid ine-carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin
c. N-formimidoyl thienamycin
36
Primaxin is a combination of: I. Tazocillin II. Imipenem III. Piperacillin IV. Cilastatin a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV
d. II and IV
37
The 1st aminoglycoside to be used in chemotherapy a. Amikacin b. Gentamicin c. Streptomycin d. Kanamycin
c. Streptomycin
38
Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields: I. Streptidine II. Streptobiosamine III. Deoxystreptamine a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III
a. I and II
39
The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma, and Chlamydia infection is a. Pen G b. Tetracycline c. Vancomycin d. Gentamicin
b. Tetracycline
40
Tetracycline is a. An intermediate spectrum, bactericidal b. A broad spectrum, bacteriostatic c. A broad spectrum, bactericidal d. An intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic
b. A broad spectrum, bacteriostatic
41
Ascorbic and tetracycline are: a. Enols b. Esters c. Ethers d. Amines
a. Enols
42
Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents: a. Isoniazid b. Chloramphenicol c. Erythromycin d. Tetracycline
d. Tetracycline
43
7-chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin a. Clindamycin b. Roxithromycin c. Spectinomycin d. Ilotycin
a. Clindamycin
44
This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol a. NO2 group b. NH2 group c. OH group d. COOH group
a. NO2 group
45
A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the solid of Iloilo a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin
c. Erythromycin
46
Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics I. Large Lactone Ring II. Ketong Group III. A glycosidically linked amino sugar IV. An asymmetric carbon atoms in the acyl amide propanediol a. I only b. II only c. I - III d. I - IV
c. I - III
47
Active form of the sulfonamide: a. Non-ionized b. Ionized c. Amphoteric d. Oxo ring
b. Ionized
48
More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin a. Levo b. Dextro c. Cis isomer d. Trans isomer
a. Levo
49
Sulfonamides are metabolized by human principally by: a. Acetylation b. Oxidation c. Methylation d. Deamination
a. Acetylation
50
Which if the following is/ are true regarding Griseofulvin? I. It is recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections II. Its bioavailability is notoriously poor Ill. It is supplied in “microsize” and “ultramicrosize” forms a. I, II, and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
a. I, II, and III
51
For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route? a. Miconazole b. Amphotericin B c. Ketoconazole d. Clioquinol
b. Amphotericin B
52
The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle c. European year d. Datura alba
b. Periwinkle
53
A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in treatment of cancer a. Alopecia b. Misos c. Mydriasis d. Ataxia
a. Alopecia
54
A type of tumor which has the capability of invading surrounding tissues and moving to distant locations in the body in a process known as metastasis a. Malignant tumor b. Benign tumor c. A&B d. None
a. Malignant tumor
55
1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to: a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. None of the above
b. 1 billion cancer cells
56
It has become the drug of choice in the treatment of genital herpes a. Amantadine b. Idoxuridine c. Acyclovir d. Vidarabine
c. Acyclovir
57
Ethionamide is a second line treatment drug of choice for tuberculosis and is used in the treatment of INH-resistant tuberculosis or when a patient is intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is the structural difference with INH series? a. 5-substitution b. 2-substitution c. 4-substitution d. 3-substitution
b. 2-substitution
58
AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of: a. Koch’s infection b. HIV or AIDS c. Carbuncle d. Ringworm
b. HIV or AIDS
59
What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin d. Pyrazinamide
c. Rifampicin
60
Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite: a. Will be effective for radical cure b. Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis c. Will not be clinically effective d. Will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use
b. Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis
61
Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria a. Amodiaquine b. Mefloquine c. Atabrine d. Daraprim
b. Mefloquine
62
A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes spastic paralysis to susceptible helminthes a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Thiabendazole c. Mebendazole d. Niclosamide
a. Pyrantel pamoate
63
Mechanism of action of Thiabendazole a. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase d. Quinine + Tetracycline/ Doxycycline/ Clindamycin c. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate d. Irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase
b. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
64
The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the live but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes: a. Primaquine b. Pyrimethamine c. Quinacrine d. Chloroquine
a. Primaquine
64
In case of treatment failure following administration of primary drugs in P.falciparum malaria, the recommended treatment would be: a. Artesunate suppository b. Artemether-Lumefantrine c. Chloroquine + Primaquine d. Quinine + Tetracycline/ Doxycycline/ Clindamycin
d. Quinine + Tetracycline/ Doxycycline/ Clindamycin
65
Ethanol that has been rendered unfair for use in intoxicating beverages by the addition of other substances a. Denatured alcohol b. Wood alcohol c. Isopropyl alcohol d. Formaldehyde
a. Denatured alcohol
66
Generally accepted other names of Alcohol, USP I. Ethanol II. Wood alcohol III. Spiritus vini rectificatus IV. Wine spirit a. I and IV b. I, II, and III c. I, III, and IV d. I and III
c. I, III, and IV
67
Which of the following is/are characteristics of an ideal antiseptic? I. Rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms II. Retain activity in the presence of body fluids III. High Surface tensions a. I, II, and III b. I and III c. II and III d. I and II
d. I and II
68
Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of bacteria. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient? a. Bacillus subtilis b. Enterobacter aerogenes c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Salmonella typhi
d. Salmonella typhi

MOD 1 (8 decks)

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