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EXAM RATIONALE Flashcards

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1
Q

Which among the processes of separating components of mixtures makes use of differences in solvent affinity?

A. Decantation
B. Magnetic separation
C. Chromatography
D. Distillation

A

C. Chromatography

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2
Q

It gives the spatial orientation of the electron cloud with respect to the three areas in space.

A. Spin quantum number
B. Magnetic quantum number
C. Principal quantum number
D. Azimuthal quantum number

A

B. Magnetic quantum number

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3
Q

What is the Pauli’s Exclusion Principle?

A. No 2 electrons in an atom may have the same principal quantum number.
B. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have same set of quantum numbers.
C. No more than 2 electrons may have the same set of quantum numbers.
D. Electrons in an atom may differ by, at most, one of four quantum numbers.

A

B. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have same set of quantum numbers.

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4
Q

Which elements belong to Group VIIA?

A. Na, F
B. F, N
C. Na, Ca
D. F, Br

A

D. F, Br

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5
Q

Which group is referred to as “alkali metals”?

A. Group IB
B. Group IIA
C. Group IA
D. Group IIB

A

C. Group IA

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6
Q

Which statements best describe the properties of elements in the periodic table, from the upper right corner, going down and then to the left?

I. Elements increase in metallic character
II. Elements become more electronegative
III. Elements become more basic
IV. Elements become less electronegative

A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, IV

A

A. I, III, IV

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7
Q

The following elements form basic hydrides, except:

A. Calcium
B. Sulfur
C. Strontium
D. Magnesium

A

B. Sulfur

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8
Q

Which of the following statements best describe elements in the periodic table?

I. Helium is the first element in Group IA
II. Non-metals occupy the upper right area of the periodic table
III. Metals are located in the left area of the periodic table
IV. Diagonally related elements are known as bridge elements

A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

A

D. II, III, IV

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9
Q

Which of the following elements is the most metallic?

A. F
B. Cl
C. I
D. Br

A

C. I

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10
Q

Arrange the elements according to increasing
electronegativity.

A. I, Br, Cl, F
B. Cl, Br, F, I
C. Br, Cl, I, F
D. F, Cl, Br, l

A

A. I, Br, Cl, F

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11
Q

The modern periodic table of elements was prepared by:

A. Antoine Lavoisier
B. John Newlands
C. Dmitri Mendeleev
D. Henry Moseley

A

D. Henry Moseley

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12
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the period 2 in the periodic table of elements?

A. C
B. H
C. O
D. N

A

B. H

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13
Q

The following are non-metals, except:

A. B
B. C
C. N
D. S

A

B. C

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14
Q

When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases best describes this occurrence?

A. Neutralization reaction
B. Physical change
C. Chemical change
D. Substitution reaction

A

C. Chemical change

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15
Q

Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical reaction whereby a substance split into simpler substance?

A. Decomposition reaction
B. Single displacement reaction
C. Double displacement reaction
D. Combination reaction

A

A. Decomposition reaction

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16
Q

Elements that exist in two or more crystalline forms are said to be __________________.

A. Amphoteric
B. Polymorphic
C. Amorphous
D. Allotropic

A

D. Allotropic

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17
Q

Enthalpy in thermodynamics means:

A. Latent heat
B. Heat content
C. Heat of fusion
D. Specific heat

A

B. Heat content

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18
Q

A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero.

A. Zeroth
B. First
C. Second
D. Third

A

D. Third

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19
Q

Which law describes the relationships between pressure, volume, and temperature of gases as depicted in the equation: PV=nRT?

A. Hess’ Law
B. Avogadro’s law
C. Law of Mass Action
D. Ideal gas law

A

D. Ideal gas law

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20
Q

Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong acid or base that must be added to a liter of solution to change the pH by one unit?

A. Buffer capacity
B. Ionization constant
C. Equilibrium constant
D. Isotonicity adjusting agent

A

A. Buffer capacity

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21
Q

Which of the following can cause a shift in chemical equilibrium?

A. Catalyst
B. Cations
C. Anions
D. Concentration

A

D. Concentration

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22
Q

A rule stating that when stress is applied to a system in equilibrium, the system shifts to relieve the stress.

A. Law of Mass Action
B. Le Chatelier’s Principle
C. Law of Conservation of Mass
D. Law of Definite Proportion

A

B. Le Chatelier’s Principle

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23
Q

Beta particles penetrate tissue up to _____ cm.

A. 1000
B. 10
C. 1
D. 100

A

C. 1

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24
Q

Which type of radiation has no mass and no charge but has the greatest penetrating power?

A. Beta radiation
B. Gamma radiation
C. Alpha radiation
D. Sun rays

A

B. Gamma radiation

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25
The following are units of measurement for radioactivity, except: A. Becquerel B. Disintegration per second C. Volts D. Curie
C. Volts
26
Principal ore of Mn: A. Cryolite B. Magnesite C. Pyrite D. Pyrolusite
D. Pyrolusite
27
Which is not a noble gas? A. Ne B. Ar C. Sr D. Xe
C. Sr
28
Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties that makes it suitable to prevent systemic alkalosis ? A. Magnesium sulfate B. Aluminum hydroxide C. Barium sulfate D. Calcium hydroxide
B. Aluminum hydroxide
28
The major physiological ions, both intracellular and extracellular, include the following except: A. Na B. P C. K D. Ca
D. Ca
29
The first element produced artificially is: A. Te B. Ta C. Tc D. Ti
C. Tc
30
Drug of choice for bipolar disorder: A. Li 2CO3 B. Li 2O C. LiCl D. LiOH
A. Li 2CO3
31
Element that can be used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis: A. Ag B. Cu C. Au D. Co
C. Au
32
Corrosive sublimate is chemically presented as: A. HgCl2 B. HgCl C. NaOH D. KOH
A. HgCl2
33
What is the element present in chlorophyll? A. Mn B. Fe C. Zn D. Mg
D. Mg
34
Which of the following elements is known to improve the immune system? A. Iron B. Selenium C. Iodine D. Zinc
D. Zinc
35
Which of the following statements best describe elements in the Periodic Table? I. Helium is the first element in Group IA II. Non-metals occupy the upper right area of the Periodic Table III. Metals are located in the left area of the Periodic Table IV. Diagonally related elements are known as bridge elements A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
36
The only single acid that can dissolve gold. A. Nitric acid B. Selenic acid C. Aqua regia D. Sulfuric acid
B. Selenic acid
37
Babbit metal is a combination of: A. 80% Sn, 20% Sb B. 80% Cu, 20% Sb C. 80% Sb, 20% Sn D. 20% Cu, 80% Sn
A. 80% Sn, 20% Sb
38
It is added to glass to hide the blue-green color of iron. A. Manganese dioxide B. Lead C. Potassium D. Magnesium dioxide
A. Manganese dioxide
39
Soft coal is: A. Anthracite B. Bituminous C. Coke D. Activated charcoal
B. Bituminous
40
Potassium supplements are administered in all of the following manners, except: A. Infusion B. Elixir PO C. Slow release PO D. Rapid IV injection
D. Rapid IV injection
41
This is a chronic condition resembling tuberculosis in symptom. A. Silicosis B. Parakeratosis C. Itai-itai disease D. Minamata disease
A. Silicosis
42
It contains iron in solution or in suspension and is characterized by a ferruginous taste. A. Carbonated water B. Chalybeate water C. Saline water D. Lithia water
B. Chalybeate water
43
This is obtained from the removal of most of the impurities in a cast iron. A. Wrought iron B. White cast iron C. Pig iron D. Gray cast iron
A. Wrought iron
44
Eka-silicon: A. Scandium B. Technetium C. Germanium D. Gallium
C. Germanium
45
Radiopharmaceutical used in myocardial perfusion scan. A. Tc 99m-Phytate B. Tc 99m-Etidronate C. Tc 99m-Pertechnetate D. Tc 99m-Sestamibi
D. Tc 99m-Sestamibi
46
Alloy of nickel which is composed of Al and Ni. A. Raney nickel B. Monel nickel C. Constantan D. German silver
A. Raney nickel
47
These are the properties of alkali metals, except: A. Most reactive group B. Activity increases with increasing atomic number C. Alkalinity increases with increasing atomic number D. Degree of solvation increases with increasing atomic number
D. Degree of solvation increases with increasing atomic number
48
Amalgams of alloy. A. Mercury B. Cadmium C. Lead B. Antimony
A. Mercury
49
Strong Ag proteinate: A. Neosilvol B. Protargol C. Collargol D. Argyrol
B. Protargol
50
In the qualitative test, which of the following become in the Xanthoproteic test? I. C II. F III. T IV. I V. W A. I, II B. II, III C. III, V D. II, V
D. II, V
51
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The product of the full reduction of primary alcohol is carboxylic acid. B. The catalyst for the partial reduction of aldehyde is NABH 4. C. The catalyst for the full oxidation of carboxylic acid is LiAlH 4. D. The product of the oxidation of aldehyde is primary alcohol.
B. The catalyst for the partial reduction of aldehyde is NABH 4.
52
How many carbons does a caprylic acid have? A. 6 B. 4 C. 10 D. 8
D. 8
53
What is the process of relocating the H+ of enol to become a ketone? A. Tautomerization B. Hydration C. Hydrohalogenation d. Friedel-Craft Acylation
A. Tautomerization
54
The catalyst the is capable of turning an alkyne into a direct alkane is? A. Lindlar catalyst B. Palladium C. H+ D. H2SO4
B. Palladium
55
In the incomplete combustion of an alkane, what is/are the product(s)? I. Water II. CO III. Soot IV. Oxygen A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III, l
A. I, II, III
56
True about electron withdrawing groups: I. Increase stability II. Decrease stability III. Increase basicity IV. Increase acidity A. I only B. II only C. II and III D. II and IV
D. II and IV
57
Which of the following statements is FALSE about enantiomers? A. Non-mirror image B. RRR 🡪 SSS C. Non-superimposable D. All chiral carbons are inverted
A. Non-mirror image
58
Mixing of two or more non-equivalent atomic orbitals to form a new set of equivalent orbitals. A. Catenation B. Hybridization C. Organification D. VSEPR
B. Hybridization
59
What is the maximum number of electrons an ‘F’ orbital can hold? A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 14
D. 14
60
What is the geometric isomer of the structure? CH3CH2 C=C CI H A. Cis B. Trans C. Z D. E
C. Z
61
What is the geometric isomer of the structure? H3N Pt Cl NH3 Cl A. Cis B. Trans C. Z D. E
A. Cis
62
Arrange the following based on the least to most basic. I. Alcohol II. Amine III. Phenol IV. Carboxylic acid V. Alkane A. I, II, III, IV, V B. V, IV, III, I, II C. IV, II, I, V, III D. IV, III, I, II, V
D. IV, III, I, II, V
63
Determine the number of sigma and pi bonds present in the structure. C=C— H A. 8 sigma and 1 pi B. 16 sigma and 4 pi C. 12 sigma and 3 pi D. 13 sigma and 4 pi
D. 13 sigma and 4 pi
64
What is the name of this structure? A. Anthraquinone B. Anthracene C. Pyrazine D. Piperidine
B. Anthracene
65
All of the following are FALSE statements, except: A. An alicyclic compound follows the Huckel’s rule. B. Cyclononane is an example of an aromatic compound. C. An aromatic compound has cumulated bonds. D. Pyrazine is aromatic with n=1 in Huckel’s rule.
D. Pyrazine is aromatic with n=1 in Huckel’s rule.
66
What is the geometric bond angle of an sp? A. 120 B. 118 C. 180 D. 109.5
C. 180
67
What is the reaction involved in alkyl halides? A. Electrophilic addition B. Electrophilic substitution C. Nucleophilic addition D. Nucleophilic substitution
D. Nucleophilic substitution
68
What is the final product of the amination of a ketone? A. Alkane B. Imine C. Aldehyde D. Carbinolamine
B. Imine
69
What is the final product of the reduction of a tertiary alcohol? A. Carboxylic acid B. Ketone C. Aldehyde D. No reaction
D. No reaction
70
What is the catalyst in the hydrolysis of a carboxylic acid derivative? A. H+ B. NaOH C. LiAlH4 D. Pd
A. H+
71
Which of the following is not true about the Grignard reaction? A. It could happen on an aldehyde. B. The product of Grignard reaction in an aldehyde is tertiary alcohol. C. The reactant in this reaction is CH 3MgCl. D. The product of Grignard reaction in an aldehyde is a primary alcohol.
B. The product of Grignard reaction in an aldehyde is tertiary alcohol.
72
What is the product of hydroxylation of an alkene? A. Geminal diol B. Dichloromethane C. Vicinal diol D. Geminal dihalide
C. Vicinal diol
73
The chain initiation in free radical substitution is usually aided by? A. Soot B. Heat C. Oxygen D. Chlorine
B. Heat
74
With increasing number of carbons, the boiling and melting points ______________ while water solubility ________________. A. Increase; increase B. Increase; decrease C. Decrease; decrease D. Decrease; increase
B. Increase; decrease
75
For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative. A. Erythromycin B. Spectinomycin C. Clindamycin D. Cephalothin
A. Erythromycin
76
All of the following contains a large lactone ring, except: A. Erythromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Neomycin D. Azithromycin
C. Neomycin
77
Unasyn® is a combination of: I. Amoxicillin II. Sulbactam sodium III. Ampicillin sodium IV. Clavulanic acid A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. II and IV
C. II and III
78
What is the microbial source of Chloramphenicol? A. Penicillium notatum B. Streptomyces griseus C. Streptomyces venezuelae D. Streptomyces orientalist
C. Streptomyces venezuelae
79
All of the following are cell wall inhibitors, except: A. Carbapenem B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
80
Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation? A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin B. Benzathine penicillin C. Benzyl penicillin D. Cloxacillin
B. Benzathine penicillin
81
Active form of sulfonamide: A. Non-ionized B. Ionized C. Amphoteric D. Oxo ring
B. Ionized
82
This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin: A. Freeze drying B. Extraction C. Chromatography D. X-ray diffraction
A. Freeze drying
83
Primaxin® is a combination of: I. Tazocillin II. Iipenem III. Piperacillin IV. Cilastatin A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. II and IV
D. II and IV
84
Ascorbic acid and tetracyclines are: A. Enols B. Esters C. Ethers D. Amines
A. Enols
85
Isoniazid is metabolized by humans principally by: A. Acetylation B. Oxidation C. Methylation D. Deamination
A. Acetylation
86
A second generation Cephalosporin: A. Cefotaxime B. Cefamandole C. Ceftaroline D. Cefepime
B. Cefamandole
87
Which of the following chemotherapeutic agent is not bactericidal? A. Carbenicillin B. Gentamicin C. Cefuroxime D. Tetracycline
D. Tetracycline
88
Which of the following is a folate-reductase inhibitor? A. Trimethoprim B. Sulfonamides C. Oxazolidinonedione D. Lincosamide
A. Trimethoprim
89
What is the mechanism of action of quinolones? A. Injury to plasma membrane B. Inhibition of DNA gyrase C. Protein synthesis inhibition D. Production of toxic free radicals
B. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
90
First generation urinary tract anti-infective: A. Pikromycin B. Griseofulvin C. Lincomycin D. Nalidixic acid
D. Nalidixic acid
91
Phenylmethanol: A. Chloretone B. Benzyl alcohol C. Phenylalcohol D. Carvacrol
B. Benzyl alcohol
92
From the list given below, identify the drug possessing “triad of features” which includes antiamoebic, antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal: A. Iodoquinol B. Chloroquine C. Emetine D. Metronidazole
D. Metronidazole
93
An agent used to prevent the long term effect of methotrexate on normal cells. A. MESNa B. Dexrazoxane C. Leucovorin D. Amifostine
C. Leucovorin
94
A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer: A. Tamoxifen B. Depo-provera C. Flutamide D. Goserelin
B. Depo-provera
95
Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of bacterium. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient? A. Bacillus subtilis B. Enterobacter aerogenes C. Salmonella typhimurium D. Salmonella typhi
D. Salmonella typhi
96
A polyene antibiotic first isolated in 1951 from a strain of Streptomyces nourse i by Hazen and Brown. A. Nystatin B. Ketoconazole C. Natamycin D. Amphotericin B
A. Nystatin
97
Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria: A. Amodiaquine B. Mefloquine C. Atabrine D. Daraprim
B. Mefloquine
98
The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes: A. Primaquine B. Pyrimethamine C. Quinacrine D. Chloroquine
A. Primaquine
99
What is the mechanism of action of Thiabendazole? A. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths. B. Irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase. C. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphate. D. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase.
D. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase.

MOD 1 (8 decks)

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