Checkride Prep Flashcards
1
Q
Ch 4.) 4 dynamic forces that act on a airplane
A
Lift: Upward Force
Gravity: Weight, downward force
Thrust: forward acting force
Drag: backward acting force
2
Q
Ch 4.) when are 4 dynamic forces equal in flight?
A
In steady-state, straight and level flight, unaccelerated flight
(Newton’s Third Law)
3
Q
Ch 4.) What is an airfoil?
A
Useful reaction from air flowing over the surface, which creates lift.
Examples: Wings, horizontal tail surfaces, propellers
4
Q
Ch 4.) What is the angle of incidence?
A
Measured by the angle at which the wing is attached to the fuselage. This is fixed and cannot be changed by the pilot
5
Q
Ch 4.) What is relative wind?
A
The direction of airflow with respect to the wing. The flight path and relative wind are always in parallel but travel in opposite directions.
6
Q
Ch 4.) What is the angle of attack?
A
The angle between relative wind and the chord line. This can be changed by the pilot.
7
Q
Ch 4.) What is Bernoulli’s principle?
A
Higher speed air is lower in pressure. Lower speed air is higher pressure. Air foils (e.g. plane wing) is design to have air move faster above the wing, which creates a higher pressure area beneath the wing causing Lift.
8
Q
Ch 4.) What are the several factors that affect both lift and drag?
A
Wing area - Shape of Air foil angle of attack velocity of the air air density
9
Q
Ch 4.) What is the torque effect?
A
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction (Newton’s third law). For the plane, as the engine and the propeller rotate in one direction, an equal force is trying to rotate the airplane in the opposite direction.
*This is strongest at LOW airspeeds with High Power Settings and a High Angle of Attack (e.g. on takeoff)
10
Q
Ch 4.) What effect does Torque Reaction have (on ground and in flight)?
A
In Flight: Torque works longitudinally making the airplane roll. The engine is designed to be offset to counteract this effect.
On ground: During takeoff roll, the vertical axis has torque. Left side of the airplane is being forced down, and so more weight is placed on left landing gear, causing more ground friction (drag) on the left tire than the right.
11
Q
Ch 4.) Four Factors that contribute to Torque effect:
A
C: Corkscrewing effect of prop slipstream: At high propeller speeds and low forward speeds (i.e. takeoff), the slipstream strikes the vertical tail surface on the left side pushing the tail to the right and yawing the airplane to the left.
A: Asymmetrical loading of the propeller (P-Factor): When an airplane is flying with a high angle of attack, the bite of the downward moving propeller blade is greater than the bite of the upward moving blade. This is due to the downward moving blade meeting the oncoming relative wind at a greater angle of attack.
G: Gyroscopic effect of the propeller: Most noticeable on takeoffs in taildraggers when tail is raised. Specifically when the axis of a prop is tilted, the resulting force will be exerted 90 degrees ahead in direction of rotation.
E: Torque reaction to engine and propeller: Rotation of the prop to the right causes roll or bank to the left.
12
Q
Ch 4.) What is centrifugal force:
A
Centrifugal force is the “equal and opposite reaction” of the plane to change direction and to the horizontal lift.
13
Q
Ch 4.) What is Load Factor:
A
The ratio of the total load supported by the airplanes wing to the actual weight of the plane and its contents.
14
Q
Ch 4.) Why is load factor important?
A
1) due to the possibility to overload the airplane, dangerously impacts the structure
2) Increased load factor increases the stalling speed and makes stalls possible at seemingly safe flight speeds.
15
Q
Ch 4.) What situations may result in load factors reaching the maximum or being exceeded?
A
Level turns: A 60 degree bank is 2 Gs. The load factor of an 80 degree bank is 5.7 Gs. The wing must product left equal to these load factors to maintain altitude.
Turbulence: Large gusts can increase angle of attack, increasing loads.
Speed: At speeds below the maneuvering speed, the airplane will stall before the load factor can become excessive.
16
Q
Ch 4.) What are the different operational categories (think: weight and balance)
A
Normal; Safe load factors: +3.8 to -1.52
Utility: Safe load factors: +4.4 to -1.76
Aerobatic: +6 to -3
17
Q
Ch 4.) How does load factor impact stall speed?
A
As load factor increases, stall speed increases. At a given airspeed the load factor increases as angle of attack increases, and the wing stalls because the angle of attack has been increased to a certain angle.
18
Q
Ch 4.) Define maneuvering speed:
A
the maximum speed at which the limit load can be imposed without causing structural damage.
It is the speed below which you can move a single flight control to full deflection without risk of damage to plane. Stalls before this speed don’t experience a load factor
19
Q
Ch 4.) How does maneuvering speed change with increase or decrease in weight?
A
Maneuvering speed increases with increase in weight and decreases with a decrease in weight.
An aircraft operatings t or near gross weight in turbulent air is much less likely to exceed design limit load factors
20
Q
Ch 4.) Define Loss of Control in Flight
A
Defined as a significant deviation of an aircraft from the intended flight path. This most commonly happens while maneuvering.
Increase risk during uncoordinated flight, equipment malfunction, pilot complacency, distraction, turbulence, and poor risk management (like flying in IMC weather when not qualified)
21
Q
Ch 4.) What causes a stall?
A
Excessive angle of attack (critical angle of attack). Usually occurs around 16-20 degrees depending on the planes design. Each airplane has only ONE specific angle of attack where stall occurs, regardless of airspeed, weight, load factor, or density altitude.
22
Q
Ch 4.) What is a spin?
A
Controlled spins are recoverable; Uncontrolled spins are possibly unrecoverable.
Descending in a helical path while flying at an angle of attack beyond the critical angle (e.g. you have to be stalled)
23
Q
Ch 4.) When are spins most likely to occur:
A
1) Engine failure on takeoff.
2) crossed-control turn from base to final: overshoot final and making uncoordinated turn at low airspeed.
3) Engine failure on approach to landing:
4) Go-around with full nose-up trim
5) Go-around with improper flap retraction: Pilot does full power and retracts flaps rapidly (rather than gradually after noting positive climb rate after each flap level) resulting in a rapid sink rate and instinctive increase in back pressure from pilot.
24
Q
Ch 4.) How do you recover from a spin?
A
P: Power reduce to idle
A: Ailerons: position to neutral
R: Rudder: Apply rull rudder in direction opposite of rotation.
E: Elevator: Apply positive, forward movement to break the stall.
After spins stops, neutralize rudder and apply back pressure
25
Ch 4.) What is ground effect?
The condition of improved performance when operating near the ground.
26
Ch 4.) What major problems are caused by ground effect?
Ground effect During landing is height of 1/10ths of a wing span above the surface. drag may be 40% less. Potentially can cause floating.
GE during takeoff; plane might seem ready for takeoff before it really is. If plane leave ground effect prematurely, the sudden increased drag can cause flight deficiency or inability to fly
27
Ch 4.) Define Empty Weight:
All permanently installed equipment and unusable fuel. Usually oil as well
28
Ch 4.) Define Gross weight:
Max allowable weight of both the airplane and its contents.
29
Ch 4.) Define Useful Load
Weight of pilot, copilot, passengers, bags, and usable fuel
30
Ch 4.) Define moment:
weight multiplied by arm. expressed in "pound-inches"
31
Ch 4.) Define Center of Gravity:
The point about which an aircraft would balance. Expressed as "inches from Datum"
32
Ch 4.) Define Datum:
An imaginary vertical plane or line that determines 'arm'. Established by the manufacturer.
33
Ch 4.) What is the basic CG formula?
CG (arm) = (total) moment / (total) weight
34
Ch 4.) What's the impact of overloaded airplane?
Higher takeoff speed, longer takeoff roll, reduced rate & angle of climb, lower max altitude, shorter range, reduced cruising speed, reduced ability to maneuver plane, higher stalling speed, higher landing speed, longer landing roll, excessive weight on the nose-wheel.
35
Ch 4.) Impact of a forward CG:
Higher stall speed, slower cruise speed, more stable plane, more back pressure on yoke required (nose goes down)
36
Ch 4.) Impact of aft (rearward) CG:
Lower Stall speed, higher cruise speed, less stable (stall and spin recovery is harder)
37
Ch 4.) Standard weights for Gas, Oil, Water:
Gas: 6 lbs
Oil: 7.5 lbs
Water: 8.35 lbs
38
Ch 4.) What are the main elements of aircraft performance?
```
Takeoff an landing distance
Rate of climb
ceiling
payload
range
speed
fuel economy
ability to maneuver
stability,
```
39
Ch 4.) What factors impact plane performance?
```
Air Density
Surface wind
runway surface (material)
upslope or downslope of runway
weight
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40
Ch 4.) How does wind impact plane performance?
On Takeoff; Headwind can allow aircraft to reach lift off speed at lower ground speeds = shorter takeoff distance and better angle of climb
On landing: headwind will lower ground speeds and increase ground performnce;
Cruise: Winds aloft can decrease performance. Headwind will reduce speed and increase fuel required in flight
Tailwind will increase performance by increasing the ground speed, reducing fuel requirement
41
Ch 4.) How does weight impact takeoff and landing?
increased gross weight can impact:
- higher liftoff speed
- greater mass to accelerate (slow acceleration)
- increased drag and friction
- longer takeoff distance
42
Ch 4.) What effect does an increase in density altitude have on takeoff and landing performance?
Increased takeoff distance
reduced rate of climb
increased true airspeed on approach and landing
increased landing roll distance
43
Ch 4.) Define Density Altitude:
Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard (non- 15 degrees C) temperature.
Technically, density altitude is the vertical distance above sea level in the standard atmosphere at which a given density is found.
44
Ch 4.) How does air density impact performance?
Lift produced by wings,
power output by engine
propeller efficiency
drag forces
45
Ch 4.) What factors affect air density?
Altitude: higher in altitude = less dense air
Temp: warmer the air = less dense it is
Humidity: more humid air is less dense
46
Ch 4.) How does temp altitude and humidity affect density altitude?
Density altitude will INCREASE (low air density) when one or more of the following occurs:
- High air temp
- High Altitude
- High Humidity
Density Altitude will DECREASE (high air density) when one or more of the following occurs:
- Low air temp
- Low altitude
- low humidity
47
Ch 4.) What's the difference between best glide speed and minimum sink speed?
Best glide: Greatest forward distance. Half way between Vx and Vy.
Minimum sink speed: maximize the length of time a plane stays in flight. losing altitude at the lowest rate. But less distance is traveled. (this is a few knots lower than Glide Speed.
48
Ch 4.) in 172, how far do you glide per 1000 feet of altitude lost?
1.5 nm
49
Ch 4.) What are the useful following charts?
Takeoff and Landing: Roll + 50ft obstacle distance
Fuel, time, and distance to climb chart.
Cruise
Crosswind / Headwind component chart
Stall speed performance charts
50
Ch 4.) Define Pressure Altitude:
The altitude indicated when Altimeter is set to standard (29.92Hg).
Used to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, and other data
51
Ch. 5) What are the four main control surfaces?
Elevators: control lateral axis - Pitch.
Ailerons: Control longitudional axis. - Roll
Rudder: Controls vertical axis - Yaw.
Trim: Reduced manual pressure on control surfaces.
52
Ch. 5) How are controls operated?
Through the use of either a rod or cable system. Control wheel for ailerons and elevator; pedals for rudder/brake.
53
Ch. 5) What are flaps?
Moveable panel on the inboard trailing edge of wings. They increase both lift and drag and they allow slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing.
54
Ch. 5) Describe the landing gear system:
Tricycle-type system, utilizing two main wheels + nosewheel.
Main gear struts provide shock absorption; nose wheel absorption is from air/oil shock strut.
55
Ch. 5) Describe the braking system:
Hydraulically actuated disc-type brakes on each main gear wheel.
Hydraulic line connects to rudder pedals.
56
Ch. 5) What kind of hydraulic fluid is used?
Mineral-based. Red.
57
Ch. 5) How do you steer on the ground?
Rudders. When rudder pedal is depressed, a spring-loaded bungee connected to the nose wheel strut will turn the nose wheel.
58
Ch. 5) What kind of engine does Cessna have?
```
Horizontally opposed;
4-cylinder
Air cooled
Lycoming
160 HP
```
59
Ch. 5) What 4 strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?
Intake: Begins as the piston starts its downward travel. Intake valve opens and fuel-air mixture is drawn into cylinder.
Compression: Starts when Intake Valve closes. Piston moves back to top of cylinder. Greater power output from the fuel-air mixture once ignited.
Power: When fuel-air mixture is sgnited, which causes big pressure increase in cylinder. forces piston downward away from cylinder head. Creates power that turns the crankshaft.
Exhaust: Purges cylinder of burned gasses. begins when exhaust valve opens.
60
Ch. 5) What does Carburetor do?
Mixing fuel and air in the correct proportions.
61
Ch. 5) How does Carb Heat work?
Carb Heat valve allows unfiltered heated air to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carb. Barb heat should be used anytime suspected or known carb icing conditions exist.
62
Ch. 5) what happens to Fuel/Air mixture when use Carb Heat?
Thicker mixture. Can reduce engine power up to 15%
Heated air is less dense, which means there is less air for the same amount of fuel.
63
Ch. 5) What does the throttle do?
Allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This regulates the engine speed and power.
64
Ch. 5) What does Mixture control do?
Regulates the Fuel-to-Air ratio.
Purpose is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density. It is used to lean mixture to conserve fuel and provide optimum power.
65
Ch. 5) Describe Fuel Injected System:
Injects fuel directly into cylinders or ahead of intake valve.
6 main components:
- Engine driven fuel pump: pumps into the fuel/air control unit
- Fuel/air control unit: sends fuel to fuel manifold valve at rate controlled by the throttle
- Fuel Manifold valve: distributes fuel to the individual discharge nozzles
- Discharge nozzles: On cylinder head. Inject fuel/air mixure at the precise time for each cylinder.
- Aux fuel pump: For engine start and in emergencies
- Fuel pressure / flow indicators. measures metered fuel pressure / flow.
66
Ch. 5) What type of ignition system does plane have?
2 engine driven magnetoes.
2 spark plugs per cylinder.
Ignition system is independent of the aircraft electrical system. Magnetoes are engine-driven self-contained units sypplying electrical current without using an external source of current.
*Must be 'actuated' by rotating 'crankshaft'. (i.e. turning the keys). Battery operates the Starter, magnetoes produce spark for ignition. After the engine starts, the battery no longer contributes to the actual operation of the engine.
67
Ch. 5) 2 advantages of dual ignition system?
1) increased safety. If one fails, you have another
| 2) more complete and even combustion. Improved engine performance.
68
Ch. 5) What type of fuel system?
Gravity fed. From wing fuel tanks.
69
Ch. 5) Purpose of Fuel Tank vents?
Provides a way of replacing fuel with outside air, preventing formation of a vacuum. (A vacuum would result in decreased fuel flow.)
70
Ch. 5) Do cessna's have a fuel pump?
No. Gravity systems do not require a fuel pump.
71
Ch. 5) What type of fuel?
100LL. Blue.
It is possible, but not desirable, to use 100 if needed.
72
Ch. 5) What color is jet fuel?
Colorless or 'straw' color
73
Ch. 5) What is function of the manual primer? How does it work?
Purpose is to provide assistance in starting the engine. The primer draws fuel from the fuel strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports.
74
Ch. 5) Describe the electrical system:
28 volt, direct current system.
Powered by an engine driven 60-amp alternator;
24 volt battery
75
Ch. 5) How are circuits protected?
By circuit breaker or fuses. You can reset Breakers.
76
Ch. 5) What does the electrical system provide power for?
Radio, Fuel gauges, pitot heat, lights, flaps, turn coordinator
77
Ch. 5) What does the ammeter indicate?
Flow of current (in Amperes) from alternator to the battery or from battery to electrical system.
When engine is running and and master switch is on, it also shows rate of charge to the battery.
If alternator breaks (goes off line, stops functioning) then Amps will show discharge rate of battery
78
Ch. 5) What is function of Voltage regulator?
Monitors system voltage. In a 28-volt system, it will maintain 28 volts +/- .5
79
Ch. 5) Why is the generator/alternator voltage higher than battery voltage?
Difference keeps the battery charged. E.g. 12-volt battery has 14 volts.
80
Ch. 5) How does cabin heat work?
Fresh air heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to cabin through a series of ducts
81
Ch. 5) How does the pilot control temp in the cabin?
Mixing outside air with heated air in a manifold near the cabin firewall. Air comes through ducts and vents located on the cabin floor.
82
Ch. 5) What are the 5 basic functions of engine oil?
1) Lubricates engine's moving parts
2) Cools engine by reducing friction
3) removes heat from cylinders
4) Creates a seal between Cylinder Wall and Pistons
5) cleans metal and carbon particles and other contaminants off
83
Ch. 5) What causes Carb Icing? what are early indicators?
Vaporization of fuel as it passes through the carburetor causes a sudden cooling of the mixture.
Water vapor is squeezed out by the cooling, and if the temp is cold enough, moisture will create ice.
When temps are below 70 degrees F (21 C) with relative humidity above 80%.
First indication is loss of RPM.
84
Ch. 5) How can you tell you've gotten rid of carb ice?
When first heated, there will be a drop in RPM. Then a rise in RPM. If there was ice, there will also be intermittent engine roughness. Then RPM will rise once gone
85
Ch. 5) What are anti-icing and de-icing equipment?
Anti-Icing: prevents ice from forming. Examples: pitot tube and static ports, carb heat, heated fuel vents, propeller blades with electro-thermal boots, and heated windshields.
DeIcing: removes ice that has already formed on protected surfaces. Limited to Pneumatic boots on wing and tail leading edges.
- pilot can use these to inflate with air from pneumatic pumps to break ice.
86
Ch. 5) What is detonation?
Uncontrolled explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinders combustion chamber. Can lead to failure of piston, cylinder, or valves. Can cause over heating, roughness, or loss of power.
Characterized by high cylinder head temps, and occurs most often at high power settings
87
Ch. 5) What are operational causes of Detonation?
1) using lower fuel grade
2) Low RPM with high manifold pressure
3) operating the engine at a high power setting with an excessively lean mixture
88
Ch. 5) What do you do in cases of detonation?
Avoid with these basic guidelines:
1) use proper fuel grade
2) Use an enriched fuel mixture and shallow climb angle to increase cylinder cooling during takeoff and initial climb
3) avoid extended, high power, steep climbs
4) Monitor engine instruments to verify proper operation
89
Ch. 5) What is Pre-Ignition?
Occurs when fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine's normal ignition. Results in reduced engine power and high operating temps.
Usually caused by a residual hot spot in the combustion chamber, from a carbon spot on spark plug, cracked spark plug, or other damage in cylinder.
can cause sever engine damage because the expanding gases exert excessive pressure on the piston
90
Ch. 5) What do you do in cases of PreIgnition?
1) Reduce Power
2) Reduce the climb rate for better cooling
3) Enrich fuel/air mix
91
Ch. 5) What does it mean if during runup, when switch from "Both" magnetoes to "Left" magneto, if there is no drop in RPM?
It means the other side has totally failed and the engine is completely running on the one side.
92
Ch. 5) What does it mean if the Amps instrument shows positive deflection?
After starting: Power from batter is being replished by the alternator;
During flight: A faulty voltage regulator is causing the alternator to overcharge the battery. Reset system and terminate flight ASAP.
93
Ch. 5) What does it mean if Ams instrument shows negative deflection?
After starting: This is normal during start. At other times, this indicates the alternator is not functioning or it is being overloaded. Battery not receiving a charge*
During flight: Alternator is not functioning or an overload exists. Battery not receiving a charge. Possible causes: the master switch was accidentally shut off, or alternator circuit breaker tripped.
94
Ch. 5) What if Amps show negative continuously in flight?
Alternator circuit breaker should be checked and reset.
1) turn off alternator & Pull circuit breaker
2) All electrical equipment not essential should be turned off
3) Terminate flight.
95
Ch. 5) What action should be taken if Amps indicates a continuous charge while in flight? (more than two needle widths?)
Battery would overheat + possible explosion. Electronic components in the electrical system would be adversely affected
If excessive voltage is detected, an OverVoltage sensor should shut off alternator. Then:
1) Alternator turned off. pull circuit breaker
2) turn off all electrical equipment non essential
3) Terminate flight.
96
Ch. 5) During a cross country flight, you notice the oil pressure is low, but the oil temp is normal. What is the problem and how do you react?
Could be the result of having low fuel.
If oil temp continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the culprit.
Land ASAP to determine cause.
97
Ch. 5) What procedure should be followed if there's a partial loss of power in flight?
A: Glide speed. (Airspeed)
B: Best place to land.
C: Checklist - try to determine cause and correct.
1) Check fuel amount
2) Check fuel selector valve's current position
3) Check Mixture
4) Check operation of magnetos in all 3 positions: Both, Left, Right.
5) Check primer control
98
Ch. 5) What to do if Engine Fire in flight?
1) Mixture Idle Cut Off
2) Fuel Selector to "Off"
3) Master "Off"
4) Cabin heat "off" / Vents "on"
5) Fly 100 KIAS - increase descent if needed
6) Execute a Forced Landing Checklist
99
Ch. 5) What to do if Engine Fire on the Ground?
1) Continue turning magnetos - start will cause flames and excess fuel to get sucked through carburetor
2) If engine starts: Increase power to higher RPM for a few minutes. Then Shut down engine.
3) If engine doesn't start: Throttle "Full"; Mixture: "Idle Cutoff"; Try to restart engine
4) If fire continues: Ignition to "Off"; Master "off"; Fuel Selector "off"
100
Ch. 5) Which instruments use Pitot & static system?
All 3: static
Altimeter, vertical speed, airspeed indicator (pitot)
101
Ch. 5) How does the altimeter work?
Measures the absolute pressure of the ambient air and displayed it in terms of feet above a selected pressure level.
Mechanically, a Stack of Aneroids. As presure tries to compress aneroids against natural springiness, thickness changes as air pressure changes.
102
Ch. 5) What are the limitations of a pressure altimeter?
Limits are non-standard pressure and temperature.
On a warm day: Pressure is higher than standard. Altimeter therefore show below actual pressure
On cold day: pressure is lower than standard. Altimeter therefore shows something higher than actual.
103
Define and state how you would determine the following altitudes: Absolute, Indicated, Pressure, True, and Density
Absolute: the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain.
Indicated: The altitude read directly from the altimeter when set to current altimeter setting
Pressure altitude: Altitude when the altimeter setting is adjusted to 29.92 (standard).
True Altitude: The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
Density Altitude: Pressure altitude for nonstandard temp variations. For Takeoff, Climb, and landing. (Corrected for temp)
104
How does the airspeed indicator work?
It uses the differential pressure between the static air and the pressure impact in the pitot tube. The difference is registered on the airspeed indicator
105
What is an error of the airspeed indicator?
Position error: caused by static ports sensing erroneously. This can happen from slipstream flow.
106
What are the different types of air speeds?
Indicated airspeed: Airspeed as observed on the indicator. Does not take into consideration airspeed errors: Position, or compressibility
Calibrated airspeed: Indicated airspeed but corrected for position error and instrument error. This is equal to True Air Speed at sea level in standard atmosphere.
Equivalent airspeed: Corrected for compressibility. Equal to Calibrated Airspeed at sea level in standard atmosphere.
True Airspeed: CAS Corrected for Altitude and Non-Standard atmosphere. Air speed in relation to the air mass in which it is flying.
107
Name several important airspeeds not marked on the airspeed indicator:
Maneuvering Speed (Va): 99 kts. Max speed for full limit load or full deflection of control surfaces without causing damage.
Landing gear operating speed (Vlo): Max speed for extending / retracting landing gear. (not cessnas)
Best angle-of-climb (Vx): needed for short field takeoffs
Best rate of climb (Vy): Most altitude for given time. Normal climbout rate.
108
What do color coded markings mean for airspeed indicator?
White arc: Flaps operating range; Vso = stall; Vfe = max flap extension speed.
Green arc: normal operating range; Vs1: Stall speed when clean (no flaps); Vno: Normal operatings max structural cruise.
Yellow arc: Caution range.
Red line: Vne: Never exceed speed. Above this structure failure may occur.
109
How does the vertical speed indicator work?
Differential pressure instrument.
110
What are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator?
Doesn't indicate correctly until stabilized.
111
Which instruments use gyroscopes?
Turn coordinator,
heading indicator
attitude indicator.
112
What are the fundamental properties of gyroscopes? How is it powered?
Rigidity in space: Remains in a fixed position
Precession:
Powered either by vacuum, pressure systems or electrically operating.
113
How does the vacuum system work?
An engine driven vacuum pump provides suction.
114
How does the attitude indicator work?
The horizontal bar represents the true horizon.
The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation.
115
What are the limitations of attitude indicator?
Banking limits are from 100 - 110 degrees. Pitch limits are 60 - 70 degrees.
116
What are the errors of attitude indicator?
Very little, but possibly a slightly strong indicatioin with rapid acceleration (nose up) or deceleration (nose down)
117
How does the heading indicator operate?
Uses Rigidity in Space: rotor turns on a vertical plane and compass card is fixed to the rotor.
118
What error is the heading indicator subject to?
"Precession" and Friction causes the heading indicator to creep or drift from a heading after being set. This is dependent on the condition of the instrument.
Heading indicator may indicate as much as 15 degrees error per hour of operation.
119
How does the turn coordinator operate?
Uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn.
The gyroreacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, therefore moving the needle plane icon in proportion to the rate of turn.
The ball (slip/skid indicator) is a liquid filled tube with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity.
120
What is precession?
Precession is the tilting or turning of the rotor axis as a result of external forces. When a deflective force is applied to a stationary gyro rotor, the rotor will move in the direction of the force.
121
What information does the turn coordinator provide?
Shows the Yaw and Roll of aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes.
Standard rate of. turn of 3 degree per second.
122
What will the turn indicator indicate when the plane is in a "skidding" or a "slipping" turn?
Slip: ball in tube will be inside of the turn. Not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.
Skid: the ball in the tube will be to the outside of the turn. too much rate eof turn for the amount of bank.
123
Gen Aero) Describe the engine:
The 172 R and S models are equipped with a Lycoming, 4 cylinder, normally aspirated, fuel injected, 360 cubic inch, horizontally opposed, air cooled, direct drive IO-360-L2A engine.
The R model produces 160 HP @ 2400 RPM, and the
S model and R Model with Cessna 72-01 engine modification produces 180 HP @ 2700 RPM.
Ignition is provided by 2 magnetos on the back of engine which provide spark to 8 spark plugs (2 per cylinder).
The engine has an 8 quart oil sump. Genesis Aero minimum oil quantity for takeoff is 6 quarts. If engine is hot just under 6 is acceptable.
124
Gen Aero) Describe the propellors:
The engine drives a McCauley, 75 inch (R- Model) 76 inch (S- Model and R with Modification), 2 blade, all metal, fixed pitch propeller.
125
Gen Aero) Describe the Vaccum system
Two engine-driven vacuum pumps are located on the back of engine, providing vacuum to the attitude and heading gyros, and have a normal operating
range 4.5-5.5 inches of mercury. Failure of a vacuum pump is indicated by an annunciator panel light. In most circumstances, failure of one pump alone will not cause the loss of any instruments because the remaining pump should handle the entire vacuum demand.
126
Gen Aero) Describe the landing gear
The landing gear is a fixed, tricycle type gear consisting of tubular spring steel providing shock absorption for the main wheels, and an oleo (air/oil) strut providing shock absorption on the nose wheel.
The nose strut extends in flight, locking it in place. The nose wheel contains a shimmy damper which damps nose wheel vibrations during ground operations at high speeds.
The nose wheel is linked to the rudder pedals by a spring loaded steering bungee which turns the nose up to 10
degrees each side of center. Differential breaking allows up to 30 degrees of steering each side of center.
127
Gen Aero) Describe the breaks
Brakes are hydraulically actuated, main wheel single-disc brakes controlled by master cylinders attached to both pilots' rudder pedals. When the airplane is parked, the main wheel brakes may be set by the parking brake handle beneath the left side instrument panel. To apply the parking brake, set the brakes with the rudder pedals, pull the handle aft and rotate it 90° down. Make sure the parking break I’d not engaged prior to take off.
128
Gen Aero) Describe the flaps:
The 172 has single slot type flaps driven electrically by a motor in the right wing.
A flap position selector on the instrument panel has detents at the 0°, 10°, 20° and 30° positions. Never deploy flaps above maximum flap deployment speeds. Do not perform a forward slip with flaps deployed. In the event of an electrical failure the flaps will not be able to be deployed, if this occurs preform a forward slip to land.
129
Gen Aero) Describe Pitot Static system
The Pitot Static system consists of a pitot tube on left wing providing ram
air pressure to the airspeed indicator, and a static port on the left side of the fuselage providing static pressure to the Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator and Airspeed Indicator. The pitot tube is electrically heated and an alternate static source is located under the instrument panel next to throttle.
130
Gen Aero) Describe the fuel system:
The fuel system consists of 2 tanks in the wings with a total fuel capacity of 56 gallons, of which 53 is usable. Usable fuel quantity is placarded on fuel selector. Typically there are 13 Fuel sumps – 5 each wing and 3 under engine cowling.
Fuel vents – 1 under left wing
Fuel is gravity fed from wing tanks to the fuel selector valve labeled BOTH, RIGHT, and LEFT, and then to a reservoir tank. From the reservoir tank the fuel
flows to an electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump, past the fuel shutoff valve, through the strainer and to an engine driven fuel pump. Fuel is then delivered to the fuel air control unit where it is metered and passed to a manifold where it is distributed to each cylinder. The auxiliary fuel pump is used for engine priming during cold engine starts. The auxiliary fuel pump is OFF for normal takeoff and landing operations.
131
Gen Aero) Describe the electric system
The airplane is equipped with a 28 volt DC electrical system and a 24 volt lead-acid battery. Electrical energy is supplied by a 60 amp alternator located on the front of the engine. An external power receptacle is located on the left side of engine cowl. Electrical power is distributed through electrical buses and circuit breakers. If an electrical problem arises, always check circuit breakers.
“Essential” circuit breakers should be reset in flight only once, and only if there is no smoke or “burning smell”, and only if the affected system and equipment is needed for the operational environment. Do not reset any non-essential circuit breakers in flight.
132
Ch. 5) How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnetized needles are fasted to a float assembly, on top of a mounted compass card. These align themselves parallel to the earth's magnetic lines.
Float assembly is housed in a bowl filled with acid-free white kerosene.
133
Ch 5.) What are limitations of magnetic compass?
Jewel and pivot type mounting allows the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approx. 18 degrees bank angle. At steeper bank angles the compass indications are erratic.
134
Ch. 5) What are various compass errors?
Oscillation: Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control
Deviation: Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in plane
Variation: Angular differences between true and magnetic north, reference isogonic lines of variation.
Dip errors:
ANDS (Accelerating causes a North error; Decelerating causes a South error) when flying east-west
UNOS: (Undershoot North, Overshoot South) - northern turns lag, southern turns lead
135
C. 5) What are some advanced avionics equipment?
```
Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS)
Air Data Computer (ADC)
Primary Flight Display (PFD)
Multi-function display (MFD)
Flight Director (FD)
Flight Management System (FMS)
Inertial navigation system (INS)
```
136
Ch 5) What is the function of magnetometer?
Measures strength of earth's magnetic field to determine plane heading. Feed information (Digitally) to AHRS and PFD (advanced avionics)
137
Ch. 5) Which standby flight instruments are normally provided in an advanced avionics aircraft?
Conventional "round dial instruments" such as attitude indicator, airspeed indicator, and altimeter.
138
Ch. 5) For aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation, what is the function of the standby battery?
Standby battery is held in reserve and charged in case of failure of the charging system and subsequent exhaustion of the main battery. When the main battery's volts deplete to a certain level, it 'triggers' the standby battery to start.
139
Ch. 5) What are the two types of ADS-B (Automatic dependent Surveillance-Broadcast) equipment?
ADS-B Out: Automatically broadcasts GPS position, altitude, velocity, and other information out to ATC ground stations and to other planes. It is Required in all airspace where transponders are required.
ADS-B In: ability to receive, process and display ADS-B traffic.
140
Ch. 5) Describe traffic information servies-broadcast.
TIS-B is the broadcast of ATC traffic info to ADS-B In aircraft from ground radio stations.
Note:
- not to be used for collision avoidance
- updated every 3 to 13 seconds
- only shares data about transponder-equipped planes.
141
Ch. 6) What are the three ways to navigate?
Pilotage: referencing visual landmarks
Dead Reckoning: Computing direction and distance from known position
Radio Navigation: Use of radio aids
142
Ch. 6) What aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation?
Sectional Charts: for visual navigation of slow to medium speed planes. Revised semi-annually. 1 inch = 6.8 miles.
VFR Terminal Area Charts (TACs): Class B airspace. More detail + larger scale. 1 inch = 3.5 nm. Revised semi-annually.
VFR Flyway Planning Charts: Printed on reverse side of TACs. Depicts flight paths.
143
Are Electric Flight Bags (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and Supplements) in cockpit?
YES. EFBs can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material if info is the functional equivalent of paper material. It is recommended that a secondary or back up source is also available.
144
Ch. 6) What is an isogonic line?
Shown as broken magenta line, isogonic lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation
145
Ch. 6) What is magnetic variation?
Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. Shown as either East or West variation depending on where Magnetic North is located.
East is least (subtract)
West is best (add)
146
Ch. 6) What are lines of latitude and longitude?
LATITUDE: Circles parallel to the equator (east-west). Like latter steps.
LONGITUDE: is drawn from pole to pole. The Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich, England and is the Zero line.
147
Ch 6) What is magnetic deviation?
Interference of metals and electric units (circuits, radios, lights, tools, engine) the compass needle is frequently deflected from normal reading.
Differs by airplane and by heading being flown.
148
Ch. 6) List some navigational aids:
VOR (Very high frequency Omnidirectional Range)
VORTAC: Tactical air navigation
VOR/DME: Distance measuring equipment
RNAV: Area navigation that includes INS, VOR/DME and GPS
149
Ch. 6) What is VOR?
Very high frequency radio stations that project radials in all directions (360 degrees)
Most VORs are also VORTACs, meaning they provide standard bearing info of VOR + distance info to pilots.
150
Ch. 6) What is VOR Radial?
Defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending from the station.
Radials are identified by their direction "From" the station.
151
Ch. 6) How are VOR NAVAIDS classified?
Terminal, low, and high
152
Ch. 6) What reception distance can be expected from various classes of VOR?
T: 12,000 and below: 25 miles
L: Below 18,000 feet: 40 miles
H: Below 18,000 feet: 40 miles
153
Ch. 6) What limitations apply to VOR reception distances?
Line of sight restrictions; + ranges varies proportionally to the altitude of receiving equipment
154
Ch. 6) How do you check accuracy of VOR?
VOT check: +/- 4 degrees.
Ground checkpoint: +/- 4 degrees.
Dual VOR check: 4 degrees between each other
Airborne checkpoint: +/- 6 degrees.Selected radial over ground point: +/- 6 degrees.
Check Chart Supplement US
155
Ch. 6) What is a DME (distance measuring equipment)?
DME is used to measure the SLANT Range distance of an aircraft from DME nav aid. Aircraft with DME are provided with distance and ground speed info when receiveing a VORTAC or TACAN facility.
Operates in UHF frequency spectrum.
156
Ch. 6) Explain GPS (Global Positioning System)
A satellite based radio nav system that broadcasts a signal. The receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo range measurment that is then used to determine the user's location
157
Ch. 6) What are 3 functional elements of GPS?
Space element: 30 satellites
Control element: netwrork of ground-based GPS monitoring and control stations.
User element: antennas (provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing)
158
Ch. 6) What is the purpose of the RAIM?
RAIM = Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
Ensures that adequate GPS signals are being received from satellites at all times. GPS will alert pilot if integrity of gps signals are in question.
Without RAIM capability, pilot has no assurance of GPS accuracy.
159
Ch. 6) Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability info?
FAA website on RAIM prediction; Pilots can also request GPS RAIM aeronautical info from Flight Service station during preflight briefings
160
Ch. 6) Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made?
1) proper installation
2) Databases not expired (ie foreflight or old sectional)
3) Review NOTAMS and RAIM info
4) Review operational status of ground-based NAVAIDS (e.g. VOR 30-day check, in plane book)
5) POH on board + gps ops manual on board
161
Ch. 6) How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?
4 satellites for 3D (latitude, longitude, altitude)
If only have 3, then lose altitude visibility
5 satellites also provides RAIM
162
Ch. 6) What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel mount VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation?
Most VFR and no hand-held unituse RAIM Alerting capability. If lose required number of satellites will not be displayed.
Database currency: Not required for VFR but it is required for IFR.
Antenna location: Often based more on convience than performance. E.g. Handheld GPS receiver is usually in the cabin or cockpit & not optimized. Loss of signal _ lack of RAIM capability could lead to erroneous position and nav info without warning
163
Ch. 6) Define VFR Waypoint
A supplementary tool to assist with position awareness. Provide navigational aids for pilots.
164
Ch. 6) Describe flight planning steps
1) briefing on latest weather, airport, and enroute NAVAID info
2) Fill out Nav Log (waypoints, altitude, winds, true course, GS, variation, distances, estimated time, fuel burn)
3) Weight and Balance (including takeoff and landing performance)
4) File flight plan (ForeFlight or WX-Brief)
165
Ch. 6) What happens if you file a flight plan but forget to Open it?
FSS will hold VFR flight plan for 1 hour after proposed departure time, then it's cancelled.
166
Ch. 6) What do you do if you get lost and GPS is out?
Condition 1) Plenty of fuel + good weather:
- Try to orient self based on Nav log and presumed correct direction of flight
- If VORs around, use them for determining cross-bearing position. Or, fly to the VOR station to confirm position.
- If can't orient based on VOR or navlog, try to look outside for big landmarks (rivers, lakes, interstates) to get approx position
Condition 2) Low Fuel, Poor weather, Lack of experience
- Get on the ground. try to locate an airport nearby or land in a field
167
Ch. 6) When you realize you're lost, what steps are recommended?
4 Cs:
- Climb: Higher altitude allows better comms and better visual range for identifying landmarks
- Communicate: Use the system. Use 121.5 if no other frequency produces results.
- Confess: Tell tower or FSS that you're lost.
- Comply: Follow their instructions to get landed safely.
168
Ch. 6) How do you safely Divert assuming there is no GPS?
1) approximate the magnetic course to the alternate route (straight edge and compass from nearby VOR or an airway that closely parallels the existing direction.
2) Estimate distance to new destination. Fine tune distance as time allows with a plotter.
3) once on course, note time, see if can get weather to calculate heading and GS. Then determine ETA and fuel consumption
4) PRIORITIZE FLYING THE PLANE
5) Notify airport (if comms available)
169
Ch. 6) Describe common radio equipment installed in Gen Aviation aircraft:
Radios are VHF, which operates from 118 to 136.975 frequencies. Two categories are 720 and 760, which depends on how many channels
170
Ch. 6) What is the universal VHF emergency frequency?
121.5. This is monitored by Flight Service Stations, radar frequencies, civil towers, and military. It is the frequency for emergencies.
171
Ch. 6) What is a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency?
CTAF is used for radio communications when there isn't a control tower. CTAF can be unicom, multicom, FSS, or Tower
172
Ch. 6) What is UNICOM?
UNICOM is non-gov communications which can provide airport info at certain airports.
173
Ch. 6) What is ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service. Is continuous broadcast of recorded, essential and routine information in selected high activity terminal areas. Supposed to relieve congesting by automating info
174
Ch. 6) If operating at an airport without a control tower, FSS or UNICOM, what procedure should you follow?
If there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM, then use the MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures.
175
Ch. 6) What frequencies are monitored most by FSS's other than 121.5?
There are assigned frequencies for their different functions, listed in Chart Supplement US.
122.2 is designated as a common enroute simplex frequency at most FSSs.
176
Ch. 6) What is an RCO?
A remote communications outlet is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel. Ground-to-ground comms between ATC and pilots at satellite airports. Might also be used for en route clearances, departure authorizations, or advisory purposes
177
Ch. 6) How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne?
1) Ask FSS briefer during preflight weather briefing (if using WX Brief)
2) Consult comms section under flight service in Chart Supplement US
You can do this via Foreflight
178
Ch. 6) What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?
Indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0 and 255.4 are available.
179
Ch. 6) Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box?
Means that that frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies
180
Ch. 6) What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?
Indicates there are no FSS frequencies available. "No voice" symbol.
181
Ch. 6) Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box?
Means its the best frequencies to use in the immediate v vicinity of the NAVAID site.
If there's an "R" that means it can only receive (e.g you transmit on that frequency)
182
Ch. 6) If you are uncertain about the status of a restricted area along your route of flight, where do you find the frequency for the controlling agency/contact facility responsible for that restricted area?
Special Use Airspace info can be found on te end panel of a VFR sectional chart.
Restricted areas are in blue. Frequencies will be listed if available. Controlling agency will be shown if facility/frequency is not available.
183
Ch. 6) If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, which authority and responsibilities does he/she have?
1) PIC is final authority on operation of aircraft
2) PIC can deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
3) PIC who does deviate shall, upon request from Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the administrator
184
Ch. 6) What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol?
Can't fly if:
1) within 8 hours,
2) while under the influence
3) Blood-alcohol-content of .04 percent or more
185
Ch. 6) Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously on drugs or alcohol to be carried?
No.
Except in emergency or except a medical patient under proper care.
186
Ch. 6) Can you operate electronic devices in plane?
If flying IFR or operating with Air Carrier Operating Certificate, then no.
Exceptions are medical devices (pace makers, hearing aids), voice recorders, or anything the plane operator determines will not cause interference with the nav or comms system.
187
Ch. 6) When can objects be dropped from an aircraft?
When they don't create a hazard.
188
Ch. 6) Is a preflight required for local flight?
Yes. Pilots must be familiar with all available info concerning the flight, including:
1) Runway lengths,
2) Takeoff and landing distance data under existing (weather) conditions
189
Ch. 6) What preflight is required for flights away from vacinity?
1) NOTAMS
2) Weather reports
3) ATC traffic delays
4) Runway Lengths
5) Alternative airports available
6) Fuel requirements
7) Takeoff and landing distances
190
Ch. 6) When / who is required to use seatbelts and when?
- Each person must have it secured during taxi, takeoff and landing
- Under 2 years old = not required
191
Ch. 6) What responsibility does the pilot in command have concerning passengers and their seatbelts?
PIC must ensure each person is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that persons safety belt/harness.
PIC must notify when to use
192
Ch. 6) When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts on?
During takeoff and landing, en route, unless it interferes with duties
193
Ch. 6) What are restrictions / regulations apply when proximity flying (e.g. formation flight)?
1) can't create collision
2) Each plane's PIC has to have pre-arrangement
3) no paying passengers
194
Ch. 6) What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft?
Balloons > Gliders > Airships > Airplanes > Rotorcraft
Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
195
Ch. 6) When does an aircraft have the right of way over all other air traffic?
An aircraft in distress.
196
Ch. 6) Which plane has the right of way under the following conditions?
- Converging:
- Approaching head on:
- Overtaking:
- Converging: Aircraft on the right has the right of way
- Approaching head on: Both planes alter course to the Right
- Overtaking: plane being overtaken has the right of way. Plane in the overtaking plane must alter to the Right.
197
Ch. 6) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, what is the max indicated airspeed at which a person may operate under 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots (288 MPH)
198
Ch. 6) What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city?
not below 1,000 feet above highest obstacle and within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet
199
Ch. 6) What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over "other than congested" areas?
500 feet above the surface.
over water or sparsely populated areas, not closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, or vehicle, or structure
200
Ch. 6) Define minimum safe altitude
An altitude allowing an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
201
Ch. 6) What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over Wildlife refuge or Forest service area?
2000 feet
202
Ch. 6) When flying below 18,000 feet cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure?
Current altimeter from weather briefing. If a current one isn't available, use the current reported from next closest airport.
203
Ch. 6) If an altimeter setting is not available what do you use?
Elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used. (same procedure if plane doesn't have radio)
204
Ch. 6) When can a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction?
Cannot unless:
1) Amended clearance is obtained
2) An emergency
3) In response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
205
Ch. 6) As pilot in command, what action if any is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given?
2 actions:
1) Must notify ATC of deviation ASAP
2) PIC must sumit a detailed report of emergency within 48 hours if requested by ATC
206
Ch. 6) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport?
1) Weather minimums must be above basic VFR weather minimums (3 sm, 500 below-1000 above, 2000 ft hz)
2) Visual contact with the tower is maintained
3) A clearance to land is received. (Light gun)
207
Ch. 6) What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitter or receiver or both are inoperative?
If receiver is inoperative:
- remain outside or above Class D
- Determine flow of traffic
- Advise tower of plane type, position, altitude, and intention to land.
- Request Light Gun signals.
If Transmitter is inoperative:
- Remain outside of class D & determine flow of traffic
- Monitor frequency for landing or traffic info
If both Transmitter and Receiver are inoperative:
- Remain outside of class D & determine flow of traffic
- Join pattern & watch for light gun signals
If Lose comms: Adjust Transponder to 7600
208
Ch. 6) What are general rules for traffic pattern operations at non-powered airports in Class E or G?
Each person operating an aircraft should:
1) For approaches, make all traffic turns to Left unless otherwise noted.
2) Call out Every move. E.g. Cessna 716MW making left downwind.
3) Departing: Comply with traffic pattern. Declare final call.
209
Ch. 6) When landing with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator at what slope should plane land?
Glide slope
| two red two white
210
Ch. 6) Fuel requirements for VFR flight?
Day: 30 minutes of fuel beyond destination
Night: 45 minutes of fuel beyond destination
Assume normal cruising speed
211
Ch. 6) How do you determine altitude of flight?
East: Odd thousands + 500
West: Even thousands + 500
212
Ch. 6) What is an emergency locator transmitter?
ELT is a radio transmitter that operates on 121.5 MHz or 406 MHz. It radiates a downward-sweeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second. The 406 MHz ELTs transmit GPS position for search and rescue
Designed to work automatically after accident. It can be manually activated as well.
Testing: only first 5 minutes after the hour.
213
Ch. 6) Are ELTs required?
Yes, except in a few instances:
1) Training plane only operating within 50nm
2) Plane in design and testing phase
3) new plane in manufacturing, prep, delivery
4) Agricultural planes
214
Ch. 6) When must ELT batteries be replaced or recharged?
1) When ELT has been used for more than 1 cumulative hour (e.g. if tested enough to reach that point or if used in a crash)
2) When 50 percent of their useful life has expired
Expiration date for replacing or recharging battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter, indicating the 50% mark.
215
Ch. 6) What are the rules for supplemental oxygen?
1) Altitudes from 12,500 - 14,000 MSL, if in range for more than 30 minutes than flight crew must be provided supplemental oxygen
2) Above 14,000 MSL Flight crew must be provided Oxygen for entire time
3) Above 15,000 MSL each occupant must receive Oxygen
216
Ch. 6) Where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted?
1) congested areas
2) open air assembly of people
3) Inside of class B, C, D, or E airspace
4) within 4 nm of federal airway
5) below altitude of 1,500 feet AGL
6) when visibility is less than 3nm
217
Ch. 6) Define aerobatic flight:
An intentional maneuver with abrupt changes in attitude, abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration.
218
Ch. 6) When are parachutes required onboard?
1) Required for maneuvers that intentionally exceed bank angle of 60 degrees or if pitch is over 30 degrees
2) This doesn't apply if doing such maneuvers for training or certifications.
219
Ch. 6) What is class A airspace?
18,000 MSL to 60,000 MSL. This includes Airspace and International Airspace overlaying water up to 12 miles off coast for 48 contiguous states + Alaska. (i.e. this isn't true for Hawaii) within the areas of domestic radio or ATC radar coverage.
Class A is not depicted on sectionals.
220
Ch. 6) Why can fly in Class A airspace?
No VFR flights unless authorized by ATC. Private Pilot cert is minimum + Must be instrument rated.
221
Ch. 6) What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within class A airspace?
1) 2-way radio
2) Mode C altitude encoding transponder
3) ADS-B and TIS-B equipment
4) Equipped with IFR-required equipment
222
Ch. 6) Define Class B airspace:
Usually Surface to 10,000 MSL at busiest airports.
Each configuration is tailored. Includes surface area and 2+ layers (shelves). Designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.
223
What are minimum pilot certifications required to operate an aircraft within Class B Airspace?
1) Private Pilot
| 2) student and recreational pilots generally not allowed, but if follow FAR 61.95 can do so.
224
Ch. 6) Minimum equipment required for Class B Airspace?
1) 2-way radio
2) Mode C altitude encoding transponder
3) ADS-B Out equipment
4) If IFR, then a VOR receiver
225
Ch. 6) Before flying in Class B, what basic requirement must be met?
Must receive ATC Clearance prior to operating in the area
226
Ch. 6) What are VFR conditions for Class B?
1) Clear of Clouds (you can get as close as you want, just not through them)
2) 3 SM Visibility
227
Ch. 6) How is class B depicted in sectional chart?
A solid shaded blue line with numbers indicated the base and top (e.g. 100/sfc)
228
Ch. 6) What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating in Class B?
VFR pilots will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B.
PIC still responsible for avoiding Wake Turbulance and basic VFR avoidance operations.
229
Ch. 6) What is the maximum speed allowed:
- inside Class B
- under 10,000
- inside class D
- Class C
1 & 2) Inside B or under 10,000, max is 250 knots. BUT if flying VFR it is 200 kts for class B.
3) Class D: 200 kts
4) Class C: 200 kts
230
Ch. 6) Describe Class C Airspace
Surface to 4000 AGL (charted in MSL).
Control tower
radar approach control
Student pilots are allowed to fly here.
231
Ch. 6) What are basic dimensions of Class C Airspace?
Individually tailored, but usually
- 5nm radius from sfc > 4000
- 10 nm shelf from 1200 > 4000
20 nm shelf extends from the lower limits of radar/radio coverage up to the ceiling of the approach controls airspace
232
Ch. 6) Minimum equipment required for Class C Airspace?
1) 2-way radio
2) Mode C altitude encoding transponder
3) ADS-B Out equipment
233
Ch. 6) Before flying in Class C, what basic requirement must be met?
Must establish 2-way radio communications with ATC.
This means: ATC has acknowledged your call sign. (e.g. "716MW, standby". If they don't say your call sign, it doesn't count as having established 2-way comms and you cannot enter Class C.
234
Ch. 6) When departing a satellite airport without a control tower, what requirement must be met?
Must establish 2-way comms with the ATC facility that has jurisdiction over the Class C airspace as soon as practical after departing
235
Ch. 6) How is class C depicted on sectional chart?
Solid magenta line. found in Sectional chart, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts where appropriate.
236
Ch. 6) When two way radio comms are established, VFR aircraft receive what service in Class C?
1) Sequenced to primary airport
2) Provided Class C services within C airspace and outer area
3) basic radar service based on bandwidth/workload
237
Ch. 6) Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft:
Basic radar: Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring
TRSA Service: Radar sequencing and separation for VFR in a TRSA
Class B service: Basic radar + separation based on IFR, VFR and weight + sequencing
Class C service: Provides basic radar, approved separation between IFR and VFR, and sequencing
Class D: No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft. Pilot is responsible for avoidance measures. Bandwidth permitting, ATC will provide traffic info, safety alters, and sequencing.
238
Ch. 6) Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment required?
1) In Class A, B, and C airspaces + Mode C Veil
2) Above B & C airspaces up to 10,000 MSL
3) 10,000 ft MSL Class E
4) Gulf of Mexico Coast > 12 NM ADS-B- Out
5) Planes entering / exiting USA (ADIZ)
All planes, if equipped, should really have ADS-B Out enabled any time it's near or at an airport. (but it isn't required)
239
Ch. 6) Describe Class D airspace:
Surface to 2,500 ft AGL.
Must establish 2-way radio comms with ATC facilities.
configuration is individually tailored.
240
Ch. 6) What is a Class E Surface Area arrival extension?
The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on VFR pilots. Extensions become part of the surface area and are in effect during the same times a the surface area.
241
Ch. 6) How is Class D depicted on a sectional?
Blue segmented lines
242
Ch. 6) What happens when a Class D control tower ceases operations for the day?
When not operating, reverts to Class E surface area rules. Or a combo of E down to 700 and Class G 700 to surface.
Check Chart Supplement US for specifics.
243
Ch. 6) Will all airports with an operating control tower always have Class D airspace on the surface.
Not all airports with an operating control tower will have Class D airspace.
These airports do not have weather reporting which is a requirement for surface based controlled airspace, previously known as a control zone.
The controlled airspace over these airports will normally begin at 700 feet or 1,200 feet above ground level and can be determined from the visual aeronautical charts
244
Ch. 6) Define Class E *Controlled* Airspace:
Defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and VFR in accordance with the airspace classification.
245
Ch. 6) Examples of Class E airspace.
1) Surface area designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation: Class E surface areas extend upward from the surface to a designated altitude, or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace. The airspace will be configured to contain all instrument procedures.
2) Extension to a surface area: Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR. (Magenta dashed lines on sectional chart!!)
3) Airspace used for transition: Class E airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or en route environment. **Do not confuse the 700-foot and 1200-foot Class E transition areas with surface areas or surface area extensions.
4) En route domestic areas: usually 1200 AGL - 18000 MSL unless otherwise noted. Federal airways are included in this.
5) airspace above Class A (Over 60,000 MSL) is Class E
246
Ch. 6) What are operating requirements for Class E?
1) Pilot certification (including student)
2) beacon transponder
3) ADS-B Out when flying over Gulf of Mexico above 3000 feet AGL from coast to 12 nm
247
Ch. 6) If Class E or G airports have control tower what are procedures?
Establish 2-way comms
248
Ch. 6) Define Class G airspace:
Anything not designated A, B, C, D, E. Traffic control has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic. VFR minimums still exist.
249
Ch. 6) What are the vertical limits of Class G?
If uninterrupted by other airspaces, G will extend up to 14,500 MSL where Class E begins.
250
Ch. 6) Class G weather requirements:
If under 1,200 AGL: 1 SM + clear of Clouds
If over 1,200 AGL: 3 SM + 5-1-2
251
Ch. 6) What are the "basic" VFR minimums required for B, C, D, E airspace?
1000 foot ceiling + 3 sm visibility.
If these conditions can't be maintained, then a "Special VFR clearance" is required from ATC* and require 1 SM visibility + clear of clouds. Use control tower within destination or for Class E, FSS can be used.
252
Ch. 6) Can you get a "special VFR clearance" at night?
no. must be instrument rated if not VFR night conditions.
253
Ch. 6) Under what conditions may a pilot enter Restricted or Prohibited areas?
Restricted: unless that person has permission of the controlling agency.
Prohibited: Never.
254
Ch. 6) What is a warning area?
Begins over US coasts at 3 nm and is hazardous.
255
Ch. 6) What is a MOA?
Military Operating Area.
Military training. Should contact FSS to obtain status of "hot" or "cold". Before entering MOA, pilot should contact controlling agency for traffic advisories.
256
Ch. 6) what is an alert area?
High volume of pilot training or an unusual aerial activity. No waiver required, but pilots must use extreme caution and should generally avoid to minimize congestion
257
Ch. 6) what is controlled firing area?
hazardous. If they spot an incoming aircraft, activities are suspended immediately. Because of this, they aren't on sectional charts.
258
Ch. 6) What are national security areas?
Areas requiring increased security and safety.
Pilots asked to voluntarily avoid these areas.
259
Ch. 6) Where are the requirements for operating within Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR) or Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)?
Part 93.
260
Ch. 6) Where can information on Special Use Airspace be found?
1) FAA website - SUA,
| 2) NOTAMs system website
261
Ch. 6) Where do you find info on VFR flyways, VFR corridors, and Class B airspace transition routes?
On the reverse side of VFR Terminal Area Charts (Class B charts)
262
Ch. 6) What are military training routes?
Military training routes for low-altitude, high-speed training.
Above 1500: 3-Digits
Below 1500: 4-Digits
IR = IFR
VR = VFR
263
Ch. 6) What is a terminal radar service area?
TRSA: airspace surrounding certain airports that provides Full Time Radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft.
Usually surrounding Class D or E.
Depicted with solid black line and altitude for each segment. Class D is blue segmented.
264
Ch. 6) What is ADIS and where are they located?
1) Entry points to US (e.g. Coasts, international boundaries)
2) Over US metro areas as needed
265
Ch. 6) What are requirements for operating in an ADIZ?
1) Flight plan
2) 2-way radio
3) Transponder
4) Position reports (notified 15 minutes prior to entry)
5) If cannot comply with all NOTAMS for a land-based Metro ADIZ, then cannot enter.
266
Ch. 6) When is immediate notification to NTSB required?
Contact nearest NTSB field office
1) After an aircraft Accident
2) After series Incidents
- Inflight fire
- collision in flight
- propellor comes off
- flight control system not working
267
Ch. 6) What is an incident?
Occurrence other than an accident that impacts operations of an aircraft
268
Ch. 6) What is an accident?
occurrence associated with the operation of a plane with any person on board with the intention of flight, if a person suffers injury or death, or the plane has serious damage.
Serious injury: requires hospitalization for 48 hours, fracture, 2nd/3rd degree burns, impact internal organs, or severe damage to nerves/muscle/tendons
269
Ch. 6) what is substantial damage in an accident?
Substantial damage: Impacting structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of plane, requiring major repair or replacement.
Does not include:
- engine failure if only 1 engine,
- bent cowling,
- small holes in fabric,
- ground damage to propellor or rotor,
- damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, wing tips.
270
Ch. 6) Within what timeframe must someone report to NTSB?
10 days = accident
7 for missing plane.
as requested by NTSB for Incident
271
Ch. 6) Describe VASI and PAPIs
5 mile range during the day; 20 miles at night.
VASI is in two rows
PAPI is in one row
all red = below glide path (2.5 degrees)
2 red 2 white = on glide path (3 degrees)
all white = above glide path (3.5 degrees)
272
Ch. 6) What does a rotating beacon during the day indicate?
That ground visibility is less than 3 statute miles. (minimums for VFR)
273
Ch. 6) What are 6 types of signs around airports?
Mandatory instruction: Red sign / white letters
Location sign: black background / yellow letters
Direction sign: yellow background / black letters
Destination sign: yellow background / black letters + ARROWS
Information sign: yellow background / black letters
Runway distance remaining: black background / white numbers
274
Ch. 6) what color are runway markings and taxiway markings?
```
Runways = white
Taxiways = yellow
```
275
Ch. 6) How do you determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without control tower?
1) UNICOM advisory
2) Sectional chart + Assume left traffic unless otherwise noted
3) Segmented circle visual indicator
4) More info in Chart Supplement US
276
Ch. 6) What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower?
Enter at 45 degree angle midfield at level flight at pattern altitude.
Depart on runway heading or at 45 degree turn after reaching pattern altitude.
277
Ch. 6) What are the important transponder codes? (1200, 7500, 7600, 7700)
1200- VFR Operations
7500 - Hijack (we're all gonna die)
7600 - Comms failure (Comms needs a fix)
7700 - Emergency (goin' to heaven)
278
Ch. 6) When conducting flight operations into a Towered airport, when do you make initial contact?
15 miles out. Get weather ahead of initial call when possible.
279
Ch. 6) What comms procedures are recommended when departing a Class B-D airspace area?
Stay on Tower frequency until leave the airspace
280
Ch. 6) What is a NOTAM?
Notices to Airmen. Time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature or not known sufficiently in advance for charts. This could impact decision to fly.
Info includes:
- runway closures,
change of status of navaids
- other items essential to planned en route terminal or landing ops.
Access notams via FSS (1800wxbrief) or online via FAA website.
281
Ch. 6) What are the different types of NOTAMS?
Domestic, International, Military, Flight Data Center
282
Ch. 6) What is a temporary flight restriction?
A TFR is issued via NOTAMS and restricts planes from flying in certain areas on a temporary basis. Might be issued because of a hazardous condition, special event, or general warning.
283
Ch. 6) When are flight plans required?
They are not. (Just a very good practice!)
Exceptions are in ADIZ
284
Ch. 6) What is wake turbulance?
Felt as plane moves through the atmosphere. results from Vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet last, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash - applies to both ground and air.
285
Ch. 6) Describe Vorticies and mitigation tactics:
Heavy, Clean, Slow planes produce greatest vorticies.
Operationally mitigate impact by:
1) Land BEYOND a larger aircraft. Stay at or above the larger plane's final approach path. Note the touchdown point and land beyond it.
2) Depart BEFORE large aircraft: Note the larger planes takeoff point and take off prior to that. Climb above the larger plane's climb path until turning clear of the larger plane's wake.
3) En Route VFR: avoid flight below and behind a large plane's path. If a large plane is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking) adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.
286
Ch. 6) What are runway landing illusions?
1) Narrow Runway = gives appearance of longer runway
2) Upsloping Runway = appearance of plane being at higher altitude
3) No terrain = accidental lower approach
4) Rain or haze = appearance of greater distance to runway
287
Ch. 6) Where can available landing distance (ALD) data be found?
1) the special notices section of the Chart Supplement US
| 2) US Terminal Procedures Publications
288
Ch. 6) What are recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations?
Taxi: Scan area for traffic
Climbs and Descents; gently bank side to side to allow for continuous scanning
Cruise: Continuous scanning
Pattern: avoid descending and entering at the same time.
Maneuvers: clearing turns
289
Ch. 6) Where should you look for Drones?
Not typically flows in controlled airspace. Under 400 AGL.
290
Ch. 6) What are three major areas that contribute to runway incursions/accidents?
Communications misunderstanding
(lack of) Airport Knowledge
(inadequate Cockpit procedures/situational awareness)
291
Ch. 6) What information should pre-flighting include?
1) Understand airport signs and diagram/taxiways
2) Review NOTAMS and ATIS
3) Conduct as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxiing
292
Ch. 6) What is an airport Hot Spot?
Complex or confusing taxiways, runways or intersections.
These are depicted on airport diagrams with "HS#"
293
Ch. 6) What are Progressive Taxi Instructions?
If a pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or is confused for any reason, request a Progressive Taxi, which will include step-by-step routing directions
294
Ch. 6) When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information?
1) Runway assignment
2) Clearance to enter specific runway
3) Any hold short instructions
295
Ch. 6) What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations?
1) have airport diagram available
2) Monitor ATC's instructions to other planes for the bigger picture
3) Focus attention outside the cockpit
4) Check left and right before crossing any hold short. (verbalize "clear left, clear right")
5) Be alert for any aircraft with similar tail number
296
Ch. 6) What are lighting best practices for safe airport operations?
1) beacon, nav, and anti-collision lights on
2) during taxi, Taxi light
3) right before takeoff, Taxi = off; Landing = On
4) Some people turn all their lights on when crossing a runway
297
Ch. 6) During calm conditions at an untowered airport, what are potential hazards?
Planes could be landing from either direction on a runway
298
Ch. 6) When taxiing at a non-towered airport, what are several precautionary measures pilots should take?
Listen to CTAF, scan runways and departure paths, Self Announce your position and intentions.
Remember that not all aircraft are radio equipped.
299
Ch. 6) ATC instructed you to hold short of a runway for crossing traffic. What is considered a reasonable amount of time to wait for additional advisement before calling?
if you've been holding for more than 90 seconds or see/hear of a conflict, contact ATC.
300
Ch. 6) What type of airport security procedures can prevent unauthorized access to plane?
1) limit access to ramp
2) Standard procedures for securing plane
3) Securing keys at all times
4) Auxiliary security (like propellor locks, throttle locks, locking tie-down)
301
Ch. 6) Give example of suspicious activity:
1) pilots appearing to be under the control of others
2) unfamiliar people loitering for extended periods.
3) Planes with unusual modifications (like modified N-numbers)
302
Ch. 6) How do you report suspicious activity?
Altert FBO manager
Contact local law enforcement
Contact 866-GA-Secure to document the event.
- GA Secure is run by TSA and is monitored 24/7
303
Ch. 7) What are two light-sensing parts of Retina in the eye?
Rods: Peripheral vision. Without daylight, most vision is conducted with Rods.
Cones: Color, detail. and distant objects
304
ch.7 ) How long for eyes to adapt for night vision?
Rods: 30 min
Cones: 5-10 minutes.
305
Ch. 7) Name some Nighttime illusions related to ground lighting conditions
1) mistaking stationary lights for stars or other planes
2) 'black hole approach' when landing over water or non-lighted terrain.
3) Confusing Approach and Runway lights. Runways are white, taxiways are blue. Approach lights are red and white.
306
Ch. 7) What is somatogravic illusion in night flight?
Rapid acceleration during takeoff might make it feel like plane is in a nose-up attitude. (Pilots mistakenly will try to dive or nose-down when this illusion happens)
307
Ch. 7) What factors can impact eye condition?
Vitamins, physical condition, fatigue, colds, alcohol, medicine
308
Ch. 7) What can pilots do to increase effectiveness of night vision?
1) Give eyes time to adapt
2) Oxygen supplement can be helpful as low as 5,000
3) Blink eyes if they become blurred
4) Concentrate on seeing objects.
309
Ch. 7) What equipment/items is should pilots have for night flight?
1) reliable flashlight.
2) Red LED Flashlight for chart reading
3) Headlight
4) Aeronautical charts
5) batteries
310
Ch. 7) Explain position lights for night flight:
1) Left wing = Red
2) Right wing = Green
If see red and green lights, it means plane is flying towards or away from you.
Required from Sunset to Sunrise.
311
Ch. 7) What are the three definitions of night?
1) End of Evening Civil Twilight to the beginning of Morning Civil Twilight. Published in Air Almanac.
- Use to log flight time
2) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
- use to determine currency
3) Sunset to Sunrise: use to determine when required to have position lights on
312
Ch. 7) What are Runway End Identifier Lights?
REILs identify the approach end of a particular runway. These are synchronized flashing lights on each side of the runway threshold.
313
Ch. 7) Describe runway lighting:
Runways are white, except Instrument runways also have the last 2000 feet in yellow.
End of runway has row of red lights. Green to show threshold to landing aircraft. Thee come in High, Medium and Low intensity.
Runway Centerline Lighting System (RCLS) is installed on some precision approach runways to help when landing in poor conditions.
314
Ch. 7) What are touchdown zone lights (TDZL)?
Two rows (one on either side of the Center Line) which are steady-burning white lights that extend to the midpoint of the runway or 3000 feet (whichever is less)
315
Ch. 7) Describe taxiway lighting:
1) Taxiway edges are blue
2) Taxiway center is green
3) Runway guard lights: Installed at taxiway/runway intersections = flashing yellow lights
316
Ch. 7) Types of rotating beacons:
White, green, and yellow mix of combinations indicate different types of airports (e.g. Land, Water, Military, Heliport)
317
Ch. 7) How does a pilot determine the status of a light system at a particular airport?
Chart Supplements US and NOTAMS. Show lighting systems, light intensities, and radio controlled light system frequencies.
318
Ch. 7) How does a pilot activate a radio controlled runway light system?
1) Key microphone 7 times to turn lights on
| 2) Can adjust brightness by keying mic 7, 5, or 3 times within 5 seconds
319
Ch. 7) If engine failure during a night flight, what procedures should be followed?
Same as Day:
1) Maintain control + Glide Speed
2) Try to determine cause of engine failure:
- Check position of magnetoes, fuel selectors, or primer.
3) Squak 7700 on Transponder and 121.5 to Declare.
For landing look for:
1) Lighted areas: like an interstate
2) Unlighted could be a field. But disadvantage is that you cannot see until your landing light
Complete pre-landing checklist
controlled crash will always be more survivable than an uncontrolled crash
320
Ch. 7) What procedure should be followed during the approach and landing phase of a night flight?
Fly airplane towards airport beacon until runway lights are identified,
use a powered approach (but not excessive speed)
Landing lights switched on upon entering airspace
321
Ch. 8) What is Hypoxia?
State of Oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of brain and organs. Usually begins at 12,000 ft - 15,000 ft.
4 forms:
1) Hypoxic: Interrupts flow of O2 into lungs. Encountered at altitude
2) Hypemic: Interrupts ability for blood to carry O2.
3) Stagnant: Interference with normal circulation. Caused when G-forces induce heart failure or shock
4) Histoxic: interference in normal utilization of O2. Alcohol, narcotics induced.
322
Ch. 8) What factors can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia?
Carbon monoxide, small amounts of alcohol, low dose medicine. Extreme heat / cold; fever; anxiety.
323
Ch. 8) How can hypoxia be avoided?
Supplemental O2 above 10,000 ft.
324
Ch. 8) What is hyperventilation?
abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs. This results in a significant decrease in the CO2 content in the blood.
Felt effects are: Light Headed, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, coolness. Ultimately can become unconscious.
Reverse effects by breathing normally & they will subside within minutes.
325
Ch. 8) What is carbon monoxide posinioning?
It is colorless, odorless, testeless gas.
Reduces ability for blood to carry oxygen.
326
Ch. 8) How does Carbon Monoxide posioning occur and what symptoms should a pilot be alert for?
Plane heaters work by bringing in air flowing over the manifold, which could have exhaust fumes that include Carbon Monoxide.
If this occurs, immediately turn off heat and open vents. If symptoms continue after landing, seek medical care.
327
Ch. 8) What causes motion sickness?
Continued stimulation of the inner ear, which controls sense of balance.
symptoms include: loss of appetite, saliva, nausea, headaches, disorientation, vomiting.
When this happens, open up air vents, loosen clothings, use supplemental O2, choose a point outside the plane to focus. Terminate flight and land ASAP.
328
Ch. 8) What is ear block?
Changing pressure in the eustachian tube.
If equalization can't be created, ear block can produce severe pain and potentially hearing loss.
Try to equalize by: Swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles around throat. Try to blow out nose, but close nostrils to pop ears (Valsalva maneuver). Don't fly with a cold
329
Ch. 8) Alcohol limits
.04 % and 8 hours.
Safer is 12 hours "bottle to throttle"
330
Ch. 8) What are conditions for drugs and medicine?
Regulations prohibit pilots from performing if faculties are in any way impacted counter to safety.
331
Ch. 8) If flying someone who has just been scuba diving, be aware:
Of excess nitrogen. Decompression sickness can be very serious from the low altitude.
Wait 12-24 hours to fly up to 8000 ft.
wait 24 hours for over 8000 feet.
332
Ch. 8) Can you fly under over the counter medicine for things like allergies?
The safest rule is to take no medicine while flying.
333
Ch. 8) Define the term Single-Pilot resource management (SRM)?
The art and science of managing everything available for a pilot to ensure a successful outcome of the flight. Gathering information, analyzing it, making decisions.
Such as Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), Risk Management (RM), Task Management (TM), Automation Management (AM), Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT), and situational awareness (SA)
334
Ch. 8) What is a practical application to practice Single Pilot Resource management?
5 P Checklist. Useful preflight, pre-takeoff, midpoint, and decent/ traffic pattern. And in emergencies.
1) Plan - weather, route, ATC reroutes/delays, fuel
2) Plane - Mechanical status, database currency, backup systems
3) Pilot - Illness, Medicine, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Eating (I'm Safe)
4) Passengers - profiles (pilot/passenger), attitude, experience
5) Programming - GPS, re-routes or clearances, understanding what/why plane might be operating a certain way
335
Ch. 8) What is Aeronautical Decision Making?
Systematic approach to determine best course of action:
1) define problem
2) choose course of action
3) Implement decision
4) Evaluate outcome
336
Ch. 8) What is the DECIDE model of decision making?
Use DECIDE when problems are encountered.
```
Detect change
Estimate response
Choose desirable outcome
Identify actions to control change
Do action to make change
Evaluate effect of action
```
337
Ch. 8) What is 3P model?
Perceive, Process, Perform.
Do this continuously during flight.
338
Ch. 8) What are 5 hazardous traits/attitudes that can affect a pilot's ability to make sound decisions?
Anti-authority -> Correct by following rules
Impulsive -> Thinking through things
Invulnerability -> Correct by knowing no one is impervious
Macho -> Correct by flying safely
Resignation -> Correct by knowing as a pilot, you control the plane.
Recognizing a hazardous thought is the first step towards neutralizing them.
339
ACS: Power Loss in Powerplant due to: Engine Roughness or overheat
might be due to:
- Abnormal Combustion
- lower than recommended fuel grade
340
ACS: Power Loss in Powerplant due to: Carb or Induction Ice
To mitigate use:
- carb heat
- alternate air
341
ACS: Power Loss in Powerplant due to: Loss of Oil pressure
could be due to:
- low oil amount
- leak of oil
- gauge malfunction
- clogged oil line
- faulty oil pressure relief valve
342
ACS: Power Loss in Powerplant due to: Fuel Starvation
Pilot factors. These are the most common cause for fuel-related occurrences.
- Fuel Mismanagement. This occurs when the pilot forgets to switch fuel tanks when necessary, or switches to the wrong fuel tank, or just doesn’t monitor the fuel burn during a flight. Much of the time, the problem stems from a lack of understanding of the fuel system itself.
- Lack of familiarity with the aircraft, or lack of experience on the particular aircraft type.
- Distractions. There have been aircraft accidents in the past in which the pilots allowed a fuel starvation event to occur while preoccupied with something else, like fixing a landing gear problem or becoming disoriented. The adage applies here: Aviate, navigate, communicate — in that order. Troubleshooting or allowing yourself to get distracted by other people or events can lead to fixation on that particular problem or event and can cause the pilot to completely disregard other important aspects of the flight — like fuel management.
Mechanical Problem or Failure. Very rarely, there is actually a fuel leak or a problem with the fuel system that can cause fuel starvation. In these cases, early recognition is key to dealing with the problem. Monitoring the actual fuel burn and the status of the fuel system is essential. The most commonly occurring technical factors are:
- Component failure (most frequently a problem with the fuel lines, fuel gauges, filter or carburettor)
Malfunctioning fuel system (most frequently caused by a vapour block or a faulty fuel pump)
Design-associated factors (such as owner’s manual details, fuel system and engine control design) when combined with pilot factors (e.g. lack of familiarity with the aircraft) may sometimes lead to fuel-related events.
343
ACS: System and equipment malfunctions including: Electrical Malfunction
address by:
- Check circut breakers, then
- If problem persists, turn alternator/generator off
- conserve power by turning off unnecessary things (nav/com 2/ other lights)
344
Ammeter
Ammeters should indicate a zero charge in normal operations.
A discharging condition, indicated by a minus indication on these gauges, means that the battery is running down. The alternator is no longer charging it,
If the alternator produces too much voltage, and the alternator control unit or voltage regulator cannot stem the flow of electricity. The danger here is that the extra current will fry all the components currently in use and progress into a full-blown electrical fire.
345
Electrical fire
- Turn off the battery and alternator switches,
- turn off all radios and other electrical components,
- use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire,
- and land as soon as practicable.
346
ACS: System and equipment malfunctions including: Vacuum / pressure
Heading indicator & Attitude indicator impacted
