Ground School Qs Flashcards
(383 cards)
1
Q
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A
An increase in ambient temperature.
Hot air = thin air = what planes experience at higher elevation. On a hot day, the air becomes “thinner” or lighter and its density is equivalent to a higher altitude in the standard atmosphere, thus the term “high-density altitude”.
2
Q
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
A
High temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
High = worse performance. An increase in Air temp or humidity or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly Decrease both POWER output and PROP efficiency.
3
Q
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
A
It reduces climb performance.
High = worse performance. An increase in Air temp or humidity or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly Decrease both POWER output and PROP efficiency.
4
Q
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
A
It decreases performance.
High = worse performance. An increase in Air temp or humidity or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly Decrease both POWER output and PROP efficiency.
5
Q
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
A
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
The prop produces thrust in proportion to the mass of air being accelerated through the rotating blades. If the air is less dense, propeller efficiency is decreased.
6
Q
At what angle do lines of longitude cross the equator?
A
Lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles.
Meridians of longitude encircle the earth from pole to pole and all meridians cross the eqquator at right angles.
7
Q
When converting from True Course to Magnetic Heading, a pilot should do what with Variation and Wind Correction Angles?
A
Add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
When converting a TC to a TH, subtract a left wind correction angle or add a right wind correction angle. When converting from a true heading to a a magnetic heading, add westerly variation or subtract easterly variation.
8
Q
What is the minimum pilot certification required for operation within Class B airspace?
A
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
It is generally true that no person may operate a civil aircraft within Class B airspace unless the pilot in command holds at least a PPL or a student pilot has the proper logbook endoresements. However, there are some Class B airports which never permit students, even if they have the proper endorsements.
9
Q
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
A
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC, a transponder with applicable altitude reporting equipment, and an encoding altimeter.
10
Q
A Blue Segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace?
A
Class D.
A blue segmented circle depicts Class D Airspace, which means a control tower is in operation.
11
Q
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A
when the associated control tower is in operation.
Class D airspace means a control tower is in operation. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace.
12
Q
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
The dimensions of class D airspace are AS NEEDED for each individual circumstance. The airspace may include extensions as necessary for IFR arrival and departure paths.
13
Q
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
Class D airspace means a control tower is in operation. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace (if the weather observer is present or the weather system is automated) or Class G airspace (at the airports where the tower controllers are also the weather observers).
14
Q
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
A
Primary airport’s Control Tower.
Radio communications must be established and maintained with the primary control tower even when operating to and from a non-tower airport located within the lateral limits of Class D airspace. On takeoff, from a satellite airport, communications must be established as soon as practicable after takeoff
15
Q
Two way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A
Class C.
Two way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the lass C airspace prior to entry and thereafter as instructed by ATC.
16
Q
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
A
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
Radio contact is required to operate in Class C airspace, but permission is not required.
17
Q
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
A
4,000 Feet AGL
Class C airspace consists of two circles, both centered on the primary Class C airspace airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 NM. The shelf area usually extends from the surface of the Class C airspace up to 4000 ft above the airport.
The airspace area between the 5 and 10nm rings usually begins at 1200 AGL and also extends to 4000 ft AGL.
18
Q
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
A
20 NM
19
Q
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
A
An aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability
Aircraft operating in Class C airspace must have a Mode C transponder.
20
Q
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
For aircraft departing a satellite airport, two way radio communication must be established as soon as practicable and thereafter maintained with ATX while within the area.
21
Q
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A
Two way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
22
Q
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least:
A
1,000 feet and 3 miles of visibility.
No person may operate an aircraft under VFR within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1000 feet. The flight visbility and cloud clearance for VFR operations in Class D airspace is 3SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal from all clouds.
23
Q
Unless otherwise authorized, where are two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landings or takeoff
A
At all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
No person may operate an aircraft to, from, or on airport having a control tower operated by the US unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircfraft and the control tower.
24
Q
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from (what altitude?)
A
1,200 feet above surface up to an including 17,999 feet MSL
Federal airways are part of the Class B, C, D, or E airspace. They are eight miles wide, four miles either side of the centerline. They usually begin at 1200 AGL and continue up to buy not including 18000 MSL, or FL180.
25
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1,200 ft AGL but does not include (what altitude?)
18,000 MSL
Class E extends upward to but not including 18000 MSL.
26
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
With the controlling agency's authorization.
RESTRICTED areas *can be penetrated* but only with the permission of the controlling agency. No person may operate an aircraft within a restrictred area contrary to the restrictions imposed unless they have the permission of the using or controlling agency as appropriate.
27
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has:
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Authorization must be received prior to entering any restricted areas.
28
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution when flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. *No clearance is necessary to enter a MOA*.
29
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an Alert Area rests with
All Pilots.
All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with FAA regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.
30
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than:
2,000 feet AGL.
All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2000 AGL above National Parks, Monuments, Seashores, Lakeshores, Rec areas and scenic riverways administered by National Park Service, US Fish and Wildlife Service and US Forest Service.
31
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
Class A.
No person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is operated under IFR at a specific flight level assigned by ATC.
32
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
During Climbs and Descents in flight conditions which permit Visual detection of other air traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks, left and right at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about them.
33
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an Omnireceiver Check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the OBS and the TO/FROM indicator should read:
0 degrees (aka 360 degrees) FROM, and 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT.
34
If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight (what happens?)
The pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
The GPS reciever verifies the integruity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation through RAIM to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. At least 1 satellite, in addition to those required for navigation (4), must be in view for the reciever to perfomr. Thus RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in view.
35
How many Global Position System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (Latitude, longitude, and altitude) and Time solution?
4 satellites.
The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites to yield a 3D position
36
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
"Four thousand five hundred"
37
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is:
"One Zero Thousand, Five hundred"
38
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection
Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection.
39
As a standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of:
10 miles.
Pilots should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing.
40
The absence of sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates:
The Ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and the visibility is 5 miles or more.
The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility on ATIS indicates a ceiling of 5,000 feet or above and visibility of 5 miles or more.
41
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continous broadcast of recorded information concerning:
*noncontrol* information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information
42
What is the UNICOM frequency normally assigned to helicopters / heliports?
123.05 and 123.075 MHz
43
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
When advised by the tower to do so.
A pilot who has just landed should not change from tower to ground frequency until advised to do so by the controller.
44
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed to taxi to:
To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
When ATC clears an aircraft to taxi to an assigned takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions *does not authorize* the aircraft to "cross". A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway.
45
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
is cleared to land.
46
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
Exercise Extreme Caution
47
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot for taxi?
Flashing green
48
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be:
steady red.
Steady red in flight means the pilot should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
49
Flashing white light signal from the control tower to a Taxiing aircraft is an indication to
return to the *starting point* on the airport.
50
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
Do not land.
51
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
When a transmitter, receiver, or both have become inoperative, an aircraft should observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern and look for a light signal from the tower. when landing at a controlled airport.
52
Why should you file a vfr flight plan with the FAA?
To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency.
Filing a flight plan is not required by regulations; however, it is a good practice, since the information contained in the flight plan can be used in search and rescue in the event of an emergency.
53
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircrafts's (what kind of course?)
Ground Track.
Azimuth information given by ATC is based on the ground track (actual flight path) of an aircraft as it is observed. The pilot must apply a correction to the reported azimuth using a drift-correction angle in order to maintain the track.
54
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides:
Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
Provides this for all IFR aircraft.
55
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as:
Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) to VFR aircraft. Radar facilities are not responsib=le for weather information and the service is not mandatory.
56
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Ground control, initial contact.
Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight.
57
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of Class B primary airport), and Class C.
4096-code = Mode C transponder.
58
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in which airspace?
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B Primary airport.
Encoding transponders are required within all Class B airspace and within 30 miles, even if you are below a Class B airspace layer.
59
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feed MSL unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
1200.
Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode 3/A, Code 1200, regardless of altitude.
60
When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200) what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?
Mode A
When operating on the VFR code 1200, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility.
61
If ATC advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to (what) code?
1200
Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode 3/A, Code 1200, regardless of altitude.
62
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 MSL must be equipped with
An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
63
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, 7700
Avoid selecting 7500 (hijack), 7600 (lost communications), 7700 (emergency)
64
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on (which frequency)?
406 MHz audio tone
65
When must batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50% of their useful life has expired, whichever comes first.
66
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an ELT required to be replaced?
When 50% of their useful life expires.
ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50% of their useful life has expired, whichever comes first.
67
When may an ELT be tested?
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
An ELT test should be conducted only during the first 5 minutes after any hour and then only for three audible sweeps.
68
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before and after engine shutdown.
Immediately after hard landings and before parking, check radio frequency 121.5 MHz.
69
The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle:
Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
70
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of:
Attack.
The angle of attack is the acute angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.
71
The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle between
the chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind.
72
How does aviation relate to Bernoulli's Principle?
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
Bernoulli's Principle states in part that the pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas*) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. In other words, high-speed flow is associated with low pressure, and low-speed flow with high pressure.
73
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are?
Lift, Weight, Thrust, and Drag.
These are the four basic aerodynamic forces
74
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
To control the Yaw.
Yaw is a side to side movement of the nose of the aircraft. Rudders control the Tail's elevator.
75
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
Lift equals weight; thrust equals drag.
Lift and thrust are considered positive forces, while weight and drag are considered negative forces and the sum of the opposing forces is zero. That is, lift=weight and thrust = drag.
76
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
During unaccelerated flight
In a steady state the opposing forces are in equilibrium.
77
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
require less effort to control.
A stable airplane will tend to return to the original condition of flight if disturbed by a force such as turbulent air. This means that a stable airplane is easy to fly.
78
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG (center of gravity) with respect to the center of lift.
CG aft (behind) center will cause pitch-up movement during flight. CG forward will pitch down when power is reduced. This will increase the airspeed and downward force on the elevators. This increased downward force on the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable the plane.
79
What causes an airplane to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
CG forward will pitch down when power is reduced. This will increase the airspeed and downward force on the elevators. This increased downward force on the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable the plane.
80
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be?
Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the airplane's ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail heavy loading also produces very light stick forces, making it easy for the pilot to overstress the airplane.
81
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be:
Less stable at all speeds.
Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the airplane's ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail heavy loading also produces very light stick forces, making it easy for the pilot to overstress the airplane.
82
Changes in the center of Pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's:
aerodynamic balance and controllability.
The center of pressure of an asymmetrical airfoil moves forward as the angle of attack is increased, and abackward as the angle of attack is decreased. This backward and forward movement of the point at which lift acts, affects the aerodynamic balance and the controllability of the aircraft.
83
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends on the:
Speed of the airplane.
At slow speeds, the maximum available lifting force of the wing is only slightly greater than the amount necessary to support the weight of the airplane. however, at high speeds, the capacity of the elevator controls or strong gust, may increase the load factor beyond safe limits.
84
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
Turns.
A change in speed during straight flight will not produce any appreciable change in load, but when a change is made in the airplane's flight path (turn), an additional load is imposed upon the airplane structure. This is particularly true if a change in direction (turn) is made at high speeds with rapid, forceful control movements.
85
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift.
As the airplane is banked, lift acts horizontally as well as vertically and the airplane is pulled around the turn.
86
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to:
Stall at a higher airspeed.
Stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor. Thus with a load factor of 4, an aircraft will stall at a speed which is double the normal stall speed.
87
Which four flight fundamentals are involved in maneuvering an aircraft?
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
88
If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster:
groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
A downwind (tailwind) landing, using the same airspeed as is used on a normal upwind landing, will result in a higher approach ground speed, ground roll longer.
89
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because of variations in glide speed:
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot.
A constant gliding speed should be maintained because variations of gliding speed nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and the landing spot.
90
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
remain the same regardless of altitude.
The same indicated airspeed should be maintained during the landing approach regardless of the elevation or the density altitude at the airport of landing.
91
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
Stalled.
A slin results when a sufficient degree of rolling or yawing control input is imposed on an airplane when in the stalled condition.
92
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is(are) stalled?
Both wings are stalled.
One wing is less stalled than the other but both are stalled in a spin.
93
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
Remain the same regardless of gross weight.
The indicated airspeed at which stall occurs will be determined by weight and load factor, but the stall angle of attack is the same.
94
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
Flaps increase drag, allowing the pilot to make steeper approaches without increasing airspeed.
95
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
Flaps increase drag, allowing the pilot to make steeper approaches without increasing airspeed.
96
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
Due to reduced drag in ground effect, the airplane may seem capable of takeoff well below the recommended speed. It is important that no attempt be made to force the airplane to become airborne with a deficiency of speed. The recommended takeoff speed is necessary to provide adequate initial climb performance.
97
What is ground effect?
The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
98
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at:
Less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
When the wing is at a height equal to 1/4 its span, the reduction in induced drag is 23.5% and when the wing is at a height equal to 1/10 it's span, the reduction in induced drag is 47.6%.
99
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of the flare may cause considerable floating.
The reduction of the wing-tip vortices, due to ground effect, alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced angle of attack, and induced drag causing floating.
100
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay ABOVE final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
101
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
Outward, upward, and around each wing tip.
102
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vorticies because this turbulence tends to:
sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating turbulence.
103
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is:
Developing lift.
Vortices are generated from the moment an aircraft leaves the ground, since trail vortices are a byproduct of wing lift.
104
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is:
Heavy, clean, slow.
Clean = no flaps.
105
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:
sink below the aircraft, generating turbulence.
Tests have shown that vortices from large aircraft sink at a rake of 400-500 feet/minute. They tend to level off at a distance about 900 feet below the path of the generating aircraft.
106
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a:
Light quartering tailwind.
A tailwind condition can move the vortices of a preceding aircraft forward in the touchdown zone. A light quartering tailwind requires maximum caution. Pilots should be alert to large aircraft upwind from their approach and takeoff flight paths.
107
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying:
Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
108
When departing behind a heady aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft:
above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
Rotate prior to the large plane's rotation point. Climb above it. Request permission to deviate upwind of the large aircraft's climb path until turning clear of the aircraft's wake.
109
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot:
be at the controls in the cockpit.
Hazards involved in hand starting - need a competent pilot at the controls in the cockpit and that all communications and procedures be agreed upon and rehearsed beforehand.
110
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
After recommended power setting, check oil pressure to make sure it's functioning properly.
111
What is one purpose for using reciprocating engines?
They are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.
112
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for:
Improved engine performance.
The dual ignition system has two magnetos (left and right) to supply the electrical current to two spark plugs for each combustion chamber. This provides both a redundancy of ignition and an improvement of engine performance.
113
An electrical system failure (battery, alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would:
Experience avionics equipment failure.
114
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine:
cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
If the ground wire between a magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the primary current cannot be directed to ground, and the engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch OFF.
115
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the:
The difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
In a carb system, outside air flows into the carb and through a venturi (narrow throat in carb). When air flows rapidly through venturi, low pressure is created and allows the fuel to flow through the main fuel jet and into the airstream where it mixes with flowing air.
116
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
Leaning the mixture control prevents this by decreasing the rate of fuel discharge to compensate for the decrease in air density.
117
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
The Fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
The air density increases in the descent, but the amount of fuel drawn into the carburetor remains the same. To re-establish a balanced fuel/air mixture in a descent, the mixture control must be adjusted toward "RICH"
118
During the run-up at high elevation, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carb heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
When carb heat is applied, the air/fuel mixture of an engine will be enriched because any given volume of hot air is less dense than cold air of the same volume. This condition would be aggravated at high altitude, where because of decreased air density, the mixture is already richer than at sea level.
119
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carb ice would most likely be:
Loss of RPM.
120
On aircraft with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump. used?
In the event that the engine-driven fuel pump fails.
The Aux pump provides added reliability to the fuel system, and it salso used as an aid in engine starting. The electric aux pump is controlled by a switch in the cockpit.
121
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause:
detonation.
Using fuel of a lower rating is harmful under any circumstances because it may cause loss of power, excessive heat, burned spark plugs, burned and sticky valves, high oil consumption, and detonation.
122
Detonation may occur at high power settings when:
The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
Detonation or knock is a sudden explosion or shock to a small area of the piston top, rather than the normal smooth burn in the combustion chamber.
123
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when:
The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
Detonation is a sudden explosion or instantaneous combustion of the fuel/air mixture in the cylinders, producing extreme heat and severe structural stresses on the engine.
124
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:
pre-ignition.
125
What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft when the recommended octane is not available?
The next higher octane aviation gas.
If the proper grade of fuel is not available, it is possible but not desirable to use the next higher aviation-grade as a substitute.
126
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good practice because this will
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Filling the tanks will prevent moisture condensation within the tank, since no air space will be left inside.
127
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the:
Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps
In order to completely purge all of the liquid water from the fuel system, the fuel strainer drain and the sumps in all of the tanks must be drained.
128
The presence of Carb Ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch prop can be verified by applying carb heat and noting:
a Decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
129
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carb ice?
Temperature between 20 and 50 degrees Ferinehight, and high humidity.
130
The possibility of carb ice exists even when the ambient air temp is as:
High as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.
131
Applying carb heat will:
enrich the fuel/air mixture.
132
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carb heat is applied?
The mixture becomes richer.
133
Generally speaking, the use of carb heat tends to:
decrease engine performance.
Carb heat reduces the output of the engine and also increases the operating temperature.
134
With regard to carb ice, float-type carb systems in comparison to fuel-injected systems are generally considered to be:
more susceptible to icing.
135
If a pilot suspects that the engine is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:
Lower the nose slightly and increase airspeed.
To prevent detonation, the pilot should use correct grade fuel, properly mix fuel/air, open throttle smoothly, and keep temp of engine within recommended operating limits. Lowering the nose will allow the aircraft to gain airspeed, which eventually lowers the engine temp.
136
Excessively high engine temps will:
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
137
If the engine oil temp and cylinder head temp gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with:
cause Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
Excessively high engine temp can result from insufficient cooling caused by too lean a mixture, to low a grade of fuel, low oil, or insufficient airflow over the engine.
138
Which would mostly likely cause the cylinder head temp and engine oil temp gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
139
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on:
The circulation of lubricating oil.
Oil used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine also cools the internal parts of the engine as it circulates.
140
An abnormally high engine oil temp indication may be caused by
the oil level being too low.
Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine, also helps reduce the engine temp by removing some of the heat from the cylinders. Therefore, if the oil level is too low the transfer of heat to less oil wouldcause the oil temp to rise.
141
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
142
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Enrich the fuel mixture.
143
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
144
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?
the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
On aircraft equipped with a constant-speed prop, the throttle controls the engine power output which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge. The prop control changes the pitch angle of the propeller and governs the RPM which is indicated on the tachometer.
145
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
A low blade angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desireable for takeoff. An intermediate position can be used for subsequent climb. Also, generally reduced engine noise, lower bibration, and greater fuel efficiency.
146
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to:
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
The engine power output which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge.
147
In what flight condition is torque effect in the greatest in a single engine airplane?
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
Takeoff or stall simulation, for example.
148
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the:
Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
The downward moving blade on the right side of the propeller has a higher angle of attack and greater action and reaction than the upward moving blade on the left. This results in a tendency for the airplane to yaw around the vertical axis to the left.
149
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at high angles of attack.
150
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
The Pilot in command.
151
How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
Most POH contain a section devoted to a systematic method of performing a preflight inspection that should be used by the pilot for guidance.
152
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
Owner or operator.
PIC: Condition for flight.
Owner: Overall airworthiness.
153
Which instruments will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
Airspeed.
154
Which instruments will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed all receive static input and would indicate inaccurately if the static sources became plugged.
Airspeed is the only instrument that relies on both Static and Pitot.
155
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed all receive static input and would indicate inaccurately if the static sources became plugged. Airspeed is the only instrument that relies on both Static and Pitot.
156
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
Airspeed indicator.
157
Which V-Speed represents Maneuvering speed?
Va
Cessna R model: Va = 99
158
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent:
Never Exceed Speed (Vne)
159
Which color identifies the power-pff stalling speed in a specified configuration?
Lower limit of the green arc. (Vs1)
160
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
Vx
Vx = best angle, it is the calibrated airspeed at which the aircraft will attain the highest altitude in a given horizontal distance.
161
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
Vy.
Vy = best rate. It is the calibrated airspeed at which the plan will obtain the max increase in altitude per unit of time (feet per minute) after takeoff.
162
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
Maneuvering speed (Va)
163
How is flap operating range displayed on airspeed indicator?
White arc
Typically starting at 100 down to 55
164
How is the maximum operating speed for the airplane in smooth air displayed?
The caution range is the yellow arc.
165
Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
Lower limit of the white arc. (Vso)
166
What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
Vno = top of green arc
167
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
Vfe
168
Which V-Speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
Vle
169
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
the elevation of the departure area
170
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
the current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
171
At what altitude should the altimeter be set to 29.92
18,000 MSL
172
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
true altitude at field elevation
The local altimeter setting corrects for the difference between existing pressure and standard atmospheric pressure.
173
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
On a warm day, the expanded air is lighter than on a cold day and consequently the pressure levels are raised.
174
What is true altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
175
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
In colder than standard air temperature.
176
What is absolute altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
177
What is density altitude?
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
178
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
179
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same at true altitude?
When at sea level under standard conditions.
Standard conditions are 29.92 MHz and 15 degrees C
180
What is the standard pressure lapse rate?
Standard pressure lapse rate is 1" Hg = 1000 feet in altitude.
So, if you wanted to know the indicated altitude difference between 29.50 and 30.00, that is .5" Hg which would be 500 feet.
181
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
Pressure altitude is equal to true altitude under standard atmospheric conditions.
182
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
Standard temperature.
183
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate:
Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
If a flight is made from a high pressure area to a lower pressure area without adjusting the altimeter, the actual altitude of the airplane will be lower than the indicated altitude, and when flying from a low-pressure area to a high-pressure area, the actual altitude of the airplane will be higher than the indicated altitude.
184
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
185
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Air temperature warmer than standard.
186
A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
The movement of the mini airplane on the instrument is proportional to the roll rate of the airplane. when the roll rate is reduced to zero (i.e. not turning/banking) the instrument provides and indication of the rate of turn.
187
To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
Because the heading indicator is run by a gyroscope instead of a magnetic source, precession will cause creep or drift from a heading to which it is set. It is important to check the indications frequently and reset the heading indicator to align it with the magnetic compass when required.
188
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
Magnetic disturbances produced by metals and electrical accessories in an aircraft disturb the compass card and produce an additional error, which is known as deviation.
189
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is:
Magnetic Variation.
The angular difference between magnetic north, the reference for the magnetic compass, and true north (north pole) is variation.
190
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by:
certain metals and electrical systems in the aircraft.
191
In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if:
an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
Error tendency is: Accelerate (shows) North, Decelerate (shows) South (ANDS)
192
In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when:
the aircraft is decelerating while on a west heading.
Error tendency is: Accelerate North, Decelerate South (ANDS)
193
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the northern hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
194
In the northern hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate:
correctly when on a north or south heading.
195
A magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if:
A right turn is entered from a north heading.
If on a northerly heading and a turn is made toward east or west, the initial indication of the compass lags or indicates a turn int he opposite direction.
196
A magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn towards the east if:
A left turn is entered from a north heading.
```
North = lags;
South = leads
```
197
During a flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
Only in straight and level unaccelerated flight
198
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
The mixture becomes richer as the airplane gains altitude, because the carburetor meters the same amount of fuel as at sea level. Leaning the mixture control prevents this by decreasing the rate of fuel discharge to compensate for the decrease in air density.
199
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Air temperature warmer than standard.
200
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
201
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
Anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crewmember.
202
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
203
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
During taxi, takeoff, and landing, each person on board the aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a safety belt and shoulder harness, properly secured if installed. However, a child under two years of age may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or a berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.
204
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
205
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
206
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
207
Most midair collision accidents occur during
clear days.
208
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the
longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
209
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
standing lenticular clouds.
210
A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
25 knots.
An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as a temperature inversion. A pilot can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if the pilot knows the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more.
211
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
Lightning
212
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
Evaporation and sublimation.
213
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Continuous updraft.
The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft. Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloudbase is the signal that a downdraft has developed also and a cell has entered the mature stage.
214
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to
Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA).
The GFA is intended to provide the necessary aviation weather information to give users a complete picture of the weather that may impact flight in the continental U.S. (CONUS).
215
When telephoning Flight Service for a preflight weather information, pilots should state
whether they intend to fly VFR only.
216
Which inflight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
SIGMET
A SIGMET advises of weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft other than convective activity. Some items included are severe icing, and severe or extreme turbulence. SIG = Significant.
217
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
4,000 feet AGL.
Class C airspace consists of two circles, both centered on the primary/Class C airspace airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 NM. The shelf area usually has a radius of 10 NM. The airspace of the surface area usually extends from the surface of the Class C airspace airport up to 4,000 feet above that airport. The airspace area between the 5 and 10 NM rings usually begins at a height of 1,200 feet AGL and extends to the same altitude cap as the inner circle. These dimensions may be varied to meet individual situations.
218
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Class D.
219
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
220
If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight,
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
221
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
1200.
Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode 3/A, code 1200, regardless of altitude.
222
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
After one-half the battery's useful life.
223
How does aviation relates to Bernoulli's principle?
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
224
The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle between the
chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
225
In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
226
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
121.5 MHz.
227
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
228
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
more susceptible to icing.
229
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
loss of RPM.
230
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
Never-exceed speed.
231
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
232
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
Pilot in command.
233
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
234
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
20 NM.
235
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
in conditions of reduced visibility.
236
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
237
The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is
FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.
238
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
239
A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by
slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
240
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
241
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.
242
What should a pilot do when operating VFR in Class D airspace and the aircraft’s radios fail during flight?
Land if visual contact with the tower is maintained.
243
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is
1 mile.
244
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of
the pilot in command.
245
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
Class C.
246
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
247
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
1,000 feet.
3 sm, 5-1-2
248
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
return to the starting point on the airport.
249
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
90 days
250
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
local law enforcement officer.
251
When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state
whether the flight is VFR or IFR.
252
The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with
the start of precipitation.
253
You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should
identify yourself as a pilot.
254
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
friction between the wind and the surface.
255
When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it
produces stratus type clouds.
256
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
257
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
258
Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
259
What are the required inspections?
AVIATE
```
Annual - 12 months
VOR - 1 month
100 Hour - 100 hours for hire
Altimeter - 24 months
Transponder - 24 months
ELT - 12 months
Static - 24 months
```
260
In regard to privileges and limitations (flying around with friends), a private pilot may:
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
261
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
This can be done if the sponsor of the airlift notifies the FAA General Aviation District Office having jurisdiction over the area concerned, at least 7 days before the flight, and furnishes any essential information that the office requests.
262
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are the categories of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
Category: Airplane / Rotorcraft
Class: Single Engine, Multi-Engine, Sea, Land
Type: Cessna 172
263
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?
Single Engine, Multi-Engine, Sea, Land
Category: Airplane / Rotorcraft
Class: Single Engine, Multi-Engine, Sea, Land
Type: Cessna 172
264
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
265
Describe the medical expiration dates
3rd class:
- under 40: 5 years (60 months)
- Over 40: 2 years (24 months)
2nd class:
1 year (12 months) commercial, then:
- under 40: 4 years (48 months)
- over 40: 1 year (12 months)
1st class:
Airline Transport: 6-12 months
266
To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding:
48 months.
Basic med requires you to complete the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist (CMEC) every 24 months (2 years) while a physical exam by a physician must be completed every 48 months (4 years).
267
For private pilot operations under Basic Med, the pilot in command is allowed to fly with no more than how many passengers?
5 passengers.
As PIC during private pilot operations under BasicMed, the aircraft is restricted to fly with no more than 5 passengers and authorized to carry no more than 6 total occupants.
268
What document(s) must be in your personal possession in the aircraft while operating as PIC of aircraft?
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
No person can act as PIC unless possessing a Current pilot certificate an photo ID, and a medical certificate.
269
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
Anytime when acting as PIC or as required crewmember
270
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
Local Law Enforcement Officer.
Each person who holds a pilot or medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the FAA Administrator, an NTSB rep, or any federal-state-or local law enforcement officer.
271
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding:
24 calendar months (2 years).
272
If not current on night requirements, the latest time passengers may be carried is:
less than 1 hour after sunset. (59 minutes)
No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning One Hour After Sunset and ending One Hour Before Sunrise. Unless within the preceding 90 days he/she has made at least three takeoffs and landings (fulll stop) during that period in the category and class of aircraft to be used.
273
To act as Pilot in command carrying passengers, the pilot must have made 3 takeoff/3 landings in same category/class (and type as required) within the preceding:
90 days (3 months).
274
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have reviews how often?
Biennial flight review
every 24 months
275
Take offs and landing requirements for a tail wing differ because?
Daytime landings must be to full stop
276
Three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during which time?
From 1 hour after sunset. to1 hour before sunrise
277
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
278
Before a person holding a PPL may act as a pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have:
Received group and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
279
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft TOWING a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of:
100 hours of PIC time in the aircraft category, class, and type if required that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
280
To act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months:
at least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
281
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
PIC
282
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the PIC may
deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency.
No report of such deviation is required unless the FAA requests one.
283
When must a pilot who deviates from a requlation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?
Upon Request.
284
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
PIC
285
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
For a flight not in the vicinity, waether, alternative airports, ; all flights: runway lengths, takeoff and landing distance.
286
Preflight action as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport shall include:
an alternative course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
287
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR in an airplane? (day and night)
Day: Enough to fly to destination + 30 min.
Night: Enough to fly to destination + 45 min.
288
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:
Takeoffs and landings
289
With respect to passengers, what is the obligation of PIC?
PIC must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing
290
With certain exceptions, safety beslts are required to be secured about passengers during
taxi, takeoff, landings
291
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
8 hours.
292
Under what oondition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drigs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
293
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of an aircraft with what Blood Alcohol level?
.04 percent by weight
294
If you have a DUI violation, when do you have to notify FAA?
Within 60 days
295
Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
An aircraft in distress.
296
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge. but not head-on?
The aircraft on the left shall give way
297
Which aircraft has the right of way among Glider, Airship, Aircraft refueling other aircraft?
Glider.
298
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
Airship.
299
When does aircraft towing aircraft have Right of Way?
An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right of way over all other Engine Driven aircraft.
300
When to or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to :
the aircraft at the lower altitude.
301
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right.
302
An approved chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding:
180 days
303
With certain exceptions when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down by 30 degrees or more. or 60 degree bank
304
When ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot may deviate unless"
an emergency.
305
When would a pilot be required. to submit a detailed report of an emergency deviation?
Within 48 hours, IF REQUESTED by ATC
306
ATC clearance provides
Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
307
While on VFR cross country, and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
121.5 MHz
308
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
309
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft
310
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other-than-congested areas?
An altitude of 500 AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
311
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is?
2000 feet.
3 SM, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 ft horizontal
312
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
3 miles
3 SM, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 ft horizontal
313
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flight ABOVE 10,000 MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL in controlled airspace is?
5 miles
314
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 ft MSL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is:
1 mile
315
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
316
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 AGL, but less than 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is:
3 miles
317
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 AGL, but less than 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is:
1 mile
318
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 AGL but less than 10,000 MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
500 ft
319
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:
ground visibility at the at airport is at least 3 miles
320
The basic VFR minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles of visibility
321
Special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when visibility is:
at least 1 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
322
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the:
airplane is equipped for instrument flight
323
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to recieve a Special VFR departure clearance in Class D?
Air Traffic Control Tower
324
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1000 feet.
5,500 feet.
East: Odd + 500
West: Even + 500
325
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall Maintain an while on a:
Magnetic Course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
326
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic
327
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotocraft, glider, balloon
Class: propulsion
Category: intended Use
328
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate:
over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
329
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Flight over a densely populated area.
330
No personmay operate an aircraft in formation flight:
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft
331
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
332
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
The pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.
The pilot in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station * or ATC facility.
333
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL.
250 knots.
334
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C airspace is:
200 knots.
335
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots
Class B - 250
Below C: 200
Under 10,000 but uncontrolled: 250
336
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
337
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experimental or Special light Sport Airworthiness certificate?
Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.
338
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and the Registration Certificate
339
How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
Are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed
340
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the:
owner or operator
341
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a flight inspection and a:
review of the maintenance records
342
The responsibility for ensuring that mainenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return or service les with the
Owner or operator
343
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by:
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records:
- description,
- date of completion,
- certificate number
344
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100 inspections.
345
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
24 calendar months
346
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number and kind of certificate held by the person the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
347
Which regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
14 CFR part 43
348
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service?
Private or Commercial pilot
349
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid
350
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
With passengers on board.
351
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
private pilot certificate
352
which records. or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Aircraft maintenance records
353
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives?
They are Mandatory.
354
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
355
who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives are comliated with?
Owner or operator
356
FAA Advisory Circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
357
FAA Advisory Circulars containing Subject Matter Specifically related to Airmen are Issued under which subject number?
60.
20 - Aircraft
60 Airmen
70 - Airspace
90 - Air Traffic and General Operating Rules
358
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
Immediately.
by the most expeditious means available when an aircraft accident occurs
359
which incident requires immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Flight Control System Malfunction or Failure
360
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
An in-flight fire.
361
Which incident requires immediate notification to NTSB field Office?
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
362
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage
363
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an ACCIDENT is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
10 days.
364
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB INCIDENT report within how many days?
when requested.
365
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
366
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is:
to enter 45 degrees a the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
367
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished in what manner?
The same as during the daytime.
368
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately (which direction & true vs magnetic)
090 degrees and 270 degrees Magnetic.
Runway numbers are the nearest one-tenth the Magnetic Azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from magnetic north.
369
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
The taxiway directional sign identifies the designations of the intersecting taxiway leading out of the intersection that a pilot would normally be expected to turn onto or hold short of
370
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates:
A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
371
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes LAHSO?
Special Notices Section of the Chart Supplement US (formerly the Airport / Facility Directory)
372
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance?
3 statute miles
373
What is the purpose of the runway/Runway hold position sign?
Denotes intersecting runways
374
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies direction to take off runways
375
What is the purpose of the No Entry sign?
Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering
376
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
that weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
377
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:
blue.
378
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click:
five times within five seconds.
379
A military airstation can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits:
two quick, white flashes between green flashes
380
How can a military airport be identified at night?
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
381
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron position should be used?
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
382
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the:
the longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion
axis exactly parallel to the direction in which the airplane is moving along the runway.
383
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
