CHEM Molecular Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the principle of Qiagen Symphony

A
  • AUTOMATED nucleic acid EXTRACTION
  • chaotropic salt (Proteinase K) lyse cells = cellular components are released
  • MAGNETIC SILICA BEADS are used to ADSORB NUCLEIC ACIDS
  • a magnetic rod transfers beads to a series of reaction vessels; DNA is washed to remove contaminants
  • DNA eluted by a low salt buffer
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2
Q

Concentration of dsDNA when A(260) = 1.000

A

50 µg/mL

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3
Q

Concentration of ssDNA when A(260) = 1.000

A

33 µg/mL

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4
Q

Concentration of ssRNA when A(260) = 1.000

A

40 µg/mL

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5
Q

If a solution of dsDNA has an A(260) of 0.81, what is the concentration of dsDNA ?

A

(50 µg/mL / 1.000) = ( x / 0.810), so x = 40.5 µg/mL

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6
Q

List the reagents used in endpoint PCR

A
  • DNA polymerase
  • dNTPs
  • PCR buffer
  • Primers
  • MgCl2

NOTE: Master Mixes can include all reagents to reduce repetitive measurements

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7
Q

What is the function of Taq polymerase ?

A
  • used in endpoint PCR
  • replicates template DNA
  • recognizes 3’ end of primer
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8
Q

What can occur if [dNTPs] is not optimal ?

A

Taq polymerase can be inhibited

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9
Q

What is the function of PCR buffers ?

A
  • maintains optimal pH = 8.3 for Taq polymerase
  • provides cofactors (Mg2+) for enzymatic activity
  • provides salt for annealing/ hybridization
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10
Q

What can occur if [salt] is too high in endpoint PCR ?

A

Taq polymerase can be inhibited

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11
Q

Which formula is used to calculate the reagent amounts required for endpoint PCR ?

A

C1V1 = C2V2

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12
Q

What is endpoint-PCR ? ID the 3 thermocycles

A

Agarose gel electrophoresis used to amplify nucleic acids:
1. Denaturation (95°C)
2. Annealing/ hybridization (60°C)
3. Elongation (65°C)

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13
Q

Describe the unidirectional workflow requirements of a molecular lab

A
  • amplicons produced in the post-room cannot re-enter the pre-room
  • this also applies to PPE and equipment
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14
Q

How many primers are necessary for endpoint PCR ?

A
  • two primers that are complementary to opposite strands of DNA target sequence
  • must have similar melting temperature (Tm)
  • provides 3’ end for Taq polymerase
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15
Q

What is the function of Mg2+ in endpoint PCR ?

A

A required cofactor for Taq polymerase

NOTE: but if [Mg2+] is too high, DNA replication can be inhibited

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16
Q

Why is a master mix used in endpoint PCR ?

A

Reduces error introduced by repeated pipetting of small volumes

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17
Q

How is the master mix prepared in the “clean room” ? What is added outside of the clean room ?

A
  • all reagents EXCEPT the template is added into a single vessel in the clean room = master mix
  • DNA template is added outside the clean room
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18
Q

Denaturation step in the PCR thermocyler program

A

At 92 - 95°C:
- dsDNA breaks to form ssDNA
- 10 to 30 sec, but GC-rich targets can take longer
- hot start Taq DNA polymerase prevents non-specific DNA replication at lower temp. until desired denaturation temp. is reached

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19
Q

Annealing step in PCR thermocyler program

A

At 50 to 60°C:
- primers bind to complementary sequences on ssDNA template
- takes ~30 sec
- specific temp is determined by melting point (Tm) of primer and ionic concentration of rxn = (Tm - 5°C)
Tm = 4(G+C) + 2(A+T)

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20
Q

How is Tm of PCR primers calculated ?

A

Tm = 4(G+C) + 2(A+T)

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21
Q

Extension step in PCR thermocyler program

A

At 72°C:
- template DNA is doubled
- DNA polymerase adds free dNTDs to 3’-end of annealed primer = forms dsDNA

a). one min/ 1kb
b). 30 sec for targets < 1kb

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22
Q

What is RT-PCR ?

A
  • reverse transcription PCR uses an RNA template instead of DNA
  • RNA is converted to cDNA (complementary DNA) via reverse transcriptase = first strand synthesis
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23
Q

What is first strand synthesis ?

A

When RNA is converted to complementary DNA (cDNA) via reverse transcriptase in RT-PCR

24
Q

Can mRNA be used as the template in RT-PCR ?

A

yes, RNA sub-fractions like mRNA can be used instead of total RNA

25
What is reverse transcriptase ?
- an RNA-dependant DNA polymerase used in RT-PCR NOTE: normally isolated from Avian Myeloblastosis Virus (AMV) or Maloney Murine Leukemia Virus (MMLV)* *MMLV is better for RT-PCR bc it has lower endogenous RNAse activity
26
What do RT buffers contain ?
Reverse transcription buffers: - **REDUCING AGENTS** to inhibit RNA template from forming secondary structures with itself - cofactors for enzyme activity **(Mg2+)** - **salts** that aid in hybridization of primer to template cDNA
27
Differentiate one-step vs two-step RT-PCR
One-step: - **cDNA and PCR products** are **synthesized in the same reaction** vessel - uses target (gene)-specific primers - faster bc less pipetting steps - lower possibility of contamination bc reaction vessel is never opened Two-step: - **cDNA is synthesized in one tube** and transferred to a **second reaction vessel for PCR** - advantageous when there are multiple (gene) targets - allows **storage of cDNA for later use**
28
The size of the pores in agarose __ as the concentration of agarose __
The size of the pores in agarose DECREASES as the concentration of agarose INCREASES
29
Which is more expensive: TAE or TBE ? Why ?
Tris-borate-EDTA (TBE) is more expensive bc it has a higher buffer capacity TAE =Tris-acetate-EDTA
30
Why is loading dye added in DNA gel electrophoresis ?
- adds color to DNA samples to facilitate loading process - dyes migrate towards anode at predictable rates = monitors sufficient migration - increases density of DNA/ensures sample sinks down into well
31
Describe the dye used for visualization in DNA gel electrophoresis
- ETHIDIUM BROMIDE is an intercalating dye - binds between complementary bp of dsDNA - fluorochrome is excited by UV light and observed as red light
32
Why are DNA ladders used ?
- used as a reference to calculate sample molecular weights - monitors progress of electrophoresis run - estimates concentration of sample
33
In DNA gel electrophoresis, DNA samples migrate from __ to __.
In DNA gel electrophoresis, DNA samples migrate from CATHODE (black) to ANODE (red).
34
Describe DNA capillary gel electrophoresis
- nucleic acid sample is **FLUORESCENTALLY-labelled** - uses long silica tube reinforced with polyimide coating - thin walls efficiently dissipates heat = allows **HIGH VOLTAGE = FASTER** - **small sample volumes** of sample inserted **via electrokinetic injection** - DNA migrates in flowable polymer based on mass:charge **from cathode TO ANODE** - fluorescent label is excited by a laser = emitted light is detected
35
Describe Sanger Sequencing
- "DNA termination sequencing" - random incorporation of fluorescently-labeled ddNTPs - ddnNTPs lack 3’ hydroxyl (OH) group = DNA replication terminates - DNA strands of various lengths are formed (each with a terminal ddNTP) - capillary electrophoresis will detect the emitted light from fluorophores attached to terminal ddNTPs - each signal is assigned a base code (GCAT) = visualized as an electropherogram
36
Describe quantitative PCR
- "Real-time PCR" - **NO electrophoresis** to detect amplification products - qPCR products are **fluorescently-labeled** (SYBR green) = “real-time” detection - **intercalation of SYBR green dyes in dsDNA = signal** intensity increases with accumulation of products
37
Pros and Cons of using SYBR green in qPCR ?
Pros: - faster testing - SYBER green is less expensive than target-specific probes Con: SYBER green lacks specificity; binds non-specifically to dsDNA = false positive signal
38
Identify 2 most common qPCR probe techniques
1. Hydrolysis probes (5’ nuclease) 2. Dual hybridization probes
39
Describe qPCR hydrolysis probes
- “Taqman” is a 5’-nuclease - probes are complimentary to target - modified with a 5’-fluorophore and 3’-quencher (complex does not fluoresce) - during EXTENSION phase of qPCR = Taq DNA polymerase 5’-3’ exonuclease activity CLEAVES PROBE = FLUORESCENT SIGNAL - detectable fluorescent signal is proportional to amount of PCR product
40
Describe qPCR dual hybridization probes. When is a signal detected ?
- PCR with fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) - uses 2 labeled probes that bind PCR product when in close proximity = ENERGY TRANSFER from donor fluorophore to acceptor fluorophore - during HYBRIDIZATION phase of qPCR = FLUORESCENCE detected = is proportional to PCR product - FRET uses 2 primers and 2 probes
41
Analysis of qPCR requires plotting __ against __.
Analysis of qPCR requires plotting FLUORESCENT SIGNAL INTENSITY against CYCLE NUMBER.
42
T or F: the signal detected during the initial 3-15 cycles of PCR is background noise
TRUE; the signal detected during the initial 3-15 cycles of PCR is background noise
43
What do values above the threshold represent in a qPCR analysis plot ?
A true amplification product signal
44
Identify the 4 controls required in a PCR run
1. Positive control = POSITIVE 2. Negative control = NEGATIVE 3. No-template control = NEGATIVE 4. Internal positive control = POSITIVE
45
What does a positive control in PCR do ?
Validates that PCR conditions were sufficient to amplify and detect the target = POSITIVE amplification of target
46
What does a negative control do ?
Nucleic acid sample does NOT contain target = NEGATIVE for target but amplification of DNA works
47
What does a no-template control do ?
The NTC contains all reagents EXCEPT for a DNA template = should be NEGATIVE; detection of PCR products indicates contamination
48
What does an internal positive control do ?
- tests presence of PCR inhibitors - is simultaneously extracted and amplified with DNA template = POSITIVE
49
What additional control is required for reverse transcription PCR ?
- RTase is NOT ADDED = NEGATIVE - RNA cannot be transcribed to cDNA - presence of PCR product indicates contamination
50
What A(260/280) is considered “pure” for DNA ?
~1.8
51
What A(260/280) ratio is considered “pure” for RNA ?
~2.0
52
What A(260/230) ratio is considered “pure” for both DNA and RNA ?
Approximately 2.0 - 2.2
53
Why may A(260/280) be low ?
- residual phenol or other reagents from extraction - protein contamination
54
T or F: High A(260/280) ratios are indicative of purity problem
FALSE; high A(260/280) ratios are NOT INDICATIVE OF PURITY PROBLEMS - can indicate issue with spectrophotometer
55
Why may A(260/280) be high ?
- not associated with contamination; MORESO PROCEDURAL ERRORS - using an inappropriate blanking solution ie. not similar ionic strength as sample solution
56
What is a chaotropic agent ? Give an example.
- molecules that distrupt hydrogen bonding between water molecules (intramolecular bonds that fold proteins together) = DENATURANT Eg. GUANIDINE
57
What substance is most commonly used in enzymatic digestion (DNA extraction)?
Proteinase K; cleaves adjacent carboxylic groups