MICRO Quality Control/ Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Describe 5 mechanisms of action for common antibiotics

A
  1. Beta-lactam inhibits transpeptidation (CELL WALL SYNTHESIS)
  2. Targeted ribosomal subunits = inhibits PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
  3. Drugs bind enzymes responsible for DNA/RNA SYNTHESIS
  4. Sulfa- trimeth- inhibits folic acid METABOLIC PATHWAY
  5. Polymixins = detergents disrupt CELL MEMBRANE INTEGRITY
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2
Q

Antimicrobial groups that inhibit cell wall synthesis (3)

A
  • Glycopeptides
  • Beta lactams
  • Cephalosporins
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3
Q

Antimicrobial groups that inhibit protein synthesis (6)

A
  • Aminoglyocsides
  • Tetracycline
  • MLSO (Macrolides, Lincosamides, Streptogramins, Oxazolidinones)
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4
Q

List antimicrobial groups that inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis (2)

A
  • Quinolones
  • Fluoroquinolones
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5
Q

Antimicrobial group that inhibits metabolic pathways (1)

A

Sulfonamides

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6
Q

List antimicrobial groups that disrupt cell membrane integrity (2)

A
  • Polymixins
  • Colistins
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7
Q

Cause and Corrective Action: colonies within ZOI

A

Cause:
- mutant, resistant
- mixed culture

Correction:
- re-test with next generation antibiotics
- isolate pure colonies and re-test

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8
Q

Cause and Corrective Action: overlapping ZOI

A

Cause:
- discs too close

Correction:
- use <5 discs/ plate
- spread discs further apart

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9
Q

Cause and Corrective Action: QC zones too small

A

Cause:
- inoculum too heavy
- agar too thick

Correction:
- re-test 0.5 McFarland standard
- ensure 3-5mm depth

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10
Q

Cause and Corrective Action: hazy zones with SXT disc

A

Cause:
- thymidine inhibits mechanism of action

Correction:
- read at 80%

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11
Q

Cause and Corrective Action: QC zones too large

A

Cause:
- inoculum too light
- agar too thin
- nutritionally poor medium
- slow growing organism

Correction:
- re-test 0.5 McFarland standard
- ensure 3-5mm depth
- ensure MIC procedure is used (Mueller-Hinton agar)

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12
Q

Describe the principle of automated methods for antimicrobial therapy

A
  • automated inoculation into 64-well, closed cards containing specified [antibiotics]
  • cards are incubated and temp-regulated
  • optical reading measures T, including the growth control well
  • algorithms are used to interpret and assign MIC values
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13
Q

Explain oxacillin disk testing for Streptococcus pneumoniae

A
  • sterile sites are tested for penicillin resistance
  • R ≤19 mm
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14
Q

Discuss the principle of the beta-lactamase test

A
  • when β-lactamase is produced by an organism, the β-lactam ring is hydrolyzed = forms penicilloic acid
  • cleavage = INACTIVATION of antibiotic
  • decreased pH turns bromcresol purple TO YELLOW
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15
Q

Screening media, follow up testing and significance for MRSA

A

MRSA; methicillin resistant S. aureus
- MecA = penicillin binding protein is altered

Detection:
- chromagar
- cefoxitin

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16
Q

Screening media, follow up testing and significance for VRE

A

VRE; vancomycin resistant enterococci
- VanA/B/E = altered binding site

Detection:
- sens
- VRE chromagar

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17
Q

Describe testing and significance of ESBLs

A

ESBL; extended spectrum beta-lactamase

Detection:
- If cephalosporin is R = do ESBL disc test
- any specimen R to 3rd gen require further testing

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18
Q

Describe the theory and application of the D-test

A
  • If Erythromycin = R, and Clindamycin is S, perform D-test
  • when 2 discs are together, Clindamycin may actually be R
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19
Q

What is Quality Assurance ?

A
  • monitors ongoing QUALITY OF TOTAL TESTING PROCESS (effectiveness of policies and procedures)
  • identify/ correct issues to assure accurate, reliable and prompt results
  • ASSESSES COMPETENCY of staff (pre-, analytical, post-)
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20
Q

What is Quality Control ?

A
  • PROCEDURES that monitor the quality of a testing method to assure accuracy/ reliability of results
  • QC differs from QA in that it is specific to evaluating ANALYTICAL ASPECT of testing
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21
Q

Describe mechanical component of a QC Program

A
  • temp checks of equipment
  • routine cleaning/ defrost of fridges
  • check anaerobic and CO2 conditions
  • check airflow of BSC
  • maintenance
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22
Q

When should incubators and fridges be cleaned inside ?

A

every 3 months

23
Q

When should freezers be defrosted ?

A

every 6 months

24
Q

When should biological spore strips be performed on autoclaves ?

A

every month

25
__ indicators monitor temp and pressure of autoclaves
CHEMICAL indicators monitor temp and pressure of autoclaves
26
Biological controls for these conditions: anaerobic, CO2, and microaerophilic
Anaerobic: Clostridium haemolyticum CO2: Neisseria gonorrhoeae Microaerophilic: Campylobacter jejuni
27
How is media sterility tested ?
If <100 plates, incubate all plates at 35°C for 24h, and subsequently at RT for 24h If >100, test random 2-5% of plates
28
How is performance testing done on media ? Give examples
- assesses nutrient quality and reliability of selective agents Eg. CHOC = N. gonorrhoeae MAC = dry pk E. coli, no spr Proteus, ng S. aureus NOTE: use ATCC strains
29
Role of internal proficiency testing
- check for errors in equipment/ material use - checks sensitivity of methods and ability of staff to ID pathogens; (unknown organism introduced into workflow, accompanied by a req)
30
How is external proficiency testing done ?
- samples are received at predetermined times from external associations - specimens labelled as "QC" are processed normally and results are evaluated by the pathologist and supervisor
31
Which of the following antimicrobials inhibit bacterial cells by inhibition of protein synthesis? Select all that apply: a. Chloramphenicol b. Tobramycin c. Clindamycin d. Tetracycline
Which of the following antimicrobials inhibit bacterial cells by inhibition of protein synthesis? a. Chloramphenicol b. Tobramycin c. Clindamycin d. Tetracycline
32
QC bugs for Oxidase
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (+) / Escherichia coli (-)
33
QC bugs for PYR
Enterococcus faecalis (+) / Streptococcus bovis (-)
34
QC bugs for germ tube test
Candida albicans (+) / Candida tropicalis (-)
35
QC bugs for ALA
Haemophilus parainfluenzae (+) /Haemophilus influenzae (-)
36
QC bugs for Butyrate esterase
Moraxella catarrhalis (+) / Neisseria lactamica (-)
37
QC bugs for Slide Coag
Staphylococcus aureus (+) / Staphylococcus epidermidis (-)
38
QC bugs for Spot Indole
Escherichia coli (+) / Proteus mirabilis (-)
39
QC bugs for Catalase
Staphylococcus aureus (+) / Streptococcus pyogenes (-)
40
QC bugs for TSB broth at 42°C
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (+)/ Pseudomonas fluorescens (-)
41
QC bugs for DNAse
(+): S. aureus Serratia M. catarrhalis Steno (-): other Staph other Enterobacteriaceae Other Moraxella sp. Other NFB
42
QC bugs for ONPG
Shigella sonnei (+)/ other Shigella sp. (-)
43
QC bugs for HEK
Salmonella (pos; blk)/ E. coli (neg; ylo or ng)
44
QC bugs for SS
Shigella sp (pos; clr, wh)/ E. coli (neg; NO GROWTH)
45
The following results are recorded for Staphylococcus aureus: Erythromycin = R Clindamycin = S Which of the following tests is required? a. B lactamase test b. ESBL test c. D-test d. No further testing, report as tested
c. D-test
46
Which of the following antimicrobials would test sensitive for an organism producing β-lactamase? a. Ampicillin b. Oxacillin c. Penicillin d. Amoxicillin
b. Oxacillin
47
Which of the following organisms is associated with pseudomembranous colitis following treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics? a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae b. Clostridioides difficile c. E. coli O157:H7 d. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Clostridioides difficile
48
Which of the following terms is used to describe the situation when one antibiotic diminishes the effect of another? a. Antagonism b. Synergism c. Cascading d. A narrow spectrum antibiotic
a. Antagonism
49
What is the standard pH and agar depth for a Mueller Hinton plate? a. pH 7.0-7.2 / 1-2mm b. pH 7.0-7.2 / 4-5mm c. pH 7.2-7.4 / 1-2mm d. pH 7.2-7.4 / 4-5mm
d. pH 7.2-7.4 / 4-5mm - agar is more alkaline to counteract acids produced by organisms = toxic
50
Which of the following statements about the Kirby Bauer method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is / are correct? a. Agar concentration in the medium can vary b. Testing must be performed from non-selective media c. Non-standardized turbid inoculum is required d. Zone sizes are measured to determine susceptibility
b. Testing must be performed from non-selective media d. Zone sizes are measured to determine susceptibility
51
Which of the following additives are used in identification of ESBL production? a. Clavulanic acid b. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid c. Boric acid d. Sulphanilic acid
a. Clavulanic acid
52
Which of the following antimicrobials is the best option for an Escherichia coli urinary tract infection? a. Vancomycin b. Linezolid c. Nitrofurantoin d. None of the above
c. Nitrofurantoin
53
Significance of SPICE group
Serratia Providenicia Indole pos Proteus Citrobacter Enterobacteraciaes - quickly develops resistance to antibiotics
54
QC bugs for Thayer-Martin agar
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis (+)/ other Neisseria sp. (-)