Chem-Phys Flashcards

1
Q

Do cell membranes made with phosphatidyl-choline/-ethanolamine require a counter ion? why or why not?

A

No. they are charge balanced b/c (+) charge of choline/ethanolamine group offsets (-) charge of phosphate grp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“Difference between isomers…

  1. structural
  2. geometrical
  3. conformational
  4. optical”
A
  1. structural: different connectivity
  2. geometrical: cis vs. trans.
  3. conformational: interchangable structures by rotation abount a bond
  4. optical: enantiomers—»same connectivity, different spatial orientation about chiral center”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

treatment of Oleic acid with D2/Pd would yield a compound with how many chiral centers?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what factors increase membrane rigidity?

A

1) inc. degree of saturation
2) inc. # of carbons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which of the following alcohols are oxidized by Na2Cr2O7?

  • phenols
  • methyl/1º alcohols
  • 2º alcohols
  • 3º alcohols
A

methyl, primary, & secondary alcohols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can you quickly identify whether a change in oxidation state is an oxidation or reduction? (i.e. S–S —» S–C)

A

If an atom is bound to a more electronegative atom —» oxidation

If an atom is bound to a less electronegative atom —» Reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the difference in structure of an enamine vs. imine

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What forms when an aldehyde is treated with a grinard reagent?

A

a 2º alcohol is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pinacol Rearrangement

A

Pinacol Rearrangement: converts a vicinal diol (OH groups on neighboring carbons) into a ketone via an alkyl shift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

of the 4 types of compounds, which are/are not reduced by NaBH4?

  • phenol
  • 3º alc
  • ketone
  • ester
A
  • phenol —» no
  • 3º alc —» no
  • ketone —» yes
  • ester —» no
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

if a food molecule (i.e. carb, fat, protein, etc.) isn’t metabolized by the digestive system, how many dietary calories are contributed to the consumer?

A

0 Cal are contributed to the consumer b/c anything that isn’t metabolized cannot provide any energy & ∴ no calories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why is a solution of NaNO2(aq) basic?v

A

NO2- reacts w/H2O to form OH- ions, thereby inc. pH of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if there are 60 million nuclei of a radioactive atom (half-life of 430 years), how many years would it take before there are 3.75E^6 nuclei remaining?

A
  • 1 half-life = [(# nuclei) / 2]
  • (3.75E6)/(60E^6) = 1/16 = [4 half-lifes]
  • 4(430) = 1720
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 2 different units for electric field?

A
  1. Newton/Coulomb (N/C)
  2. Volt/Meter (V/m)

– 1(V) = 1 (J/C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what type of interference occurs when two waves are out of phase by 180º?

A

Destructive Interference: occurs when two waves that meet when they are half a wave difference out of phase (180º)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does the period of a waveform change as you move up through the 1st, 2nd, & 3rd harmonic? what about wavelength? frequency?

A
  • the period (T) DEC. as you move up a harmonic level (i.e. 1st—»2nd)
  • the wavelength DEC. as harmonic level increases
  • if 1st harmonic = [100 Hz], 2nd = [200 Hz], 3rd = [300 Hz], etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the only effect that the photon frequency has on ejected electrons?

A
  • photon frequency only affects the ejected e-‘s KE —» ∴ inc. in frequency = inc. in KE = inc. speed of ejected e-
  • photon energy = cathode work function + KEelectron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if someone drinks an extremely hypertonic/hypersaline solution, why would this person be at risk of death?

A

ingested salt would be absorbed into the blood, creating a hypertonic environment outside the cells of the body—»causes water to flow out of the cell causing it to shrivel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does adding salt to water affect it’s boiling point & vapor pressure?

A

1) adding salt inc. BP of water
2) adding salt dec. VP of water—»∴ as solute inc., the rate of water molecules breaking the liquid surface dec.

•BP—»the temperature at which VP of solution = VP of the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what allows H2O to exhibit the unique property where it’s solid state (ice) is less dense then the liquid (water)

A

• the bent structure of H20 (bond angle ~104.45º) & the high degree of hydrogen bonding yields a hexagonal crystalline structure w/alot of space between molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

1) Β- Decay
2) What is the product of I-131 B- decay?

A

1) conversion of neutron to proton & loss of 1e-

• element undergoing B-decay will convert to an element w/1 additional H+

2) Xe-131

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 4 main types of radioactive decay?

A

1) α-Decay: emission of alpha particle (2 protons & 2 neutrons [2+])
2) B- / B+ Decay:

  • B- = neutron converted to H+ and B- particle (e-) ejected
  • B+ = H+ converted to neutron and B+ particle (positron) emitted

3) Gamma Decay: emission of gamma ray (high energy photon) and release of ionizing radiation
4) Electron Capture: nucleus “grabs” an e- —» converts H+ to a neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

if a child and an adult are exposed to the same contamination levels of I-131, would the child, compared with the adult, recieve a higher, lower, or equal relative dose?

A
  • B/c children weigh less, the same quantity of external I-131 results in a higher concentration of the isotope in the body
  • higher concentration = inc. likelyhood of DNA damage & cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If 2-methylundecanal and 2-methylundecanoic acid are separated by distillation, which compound would be found in the collecting flask and which would be found in the initial boiling flask?

A

• distillation separates compounds based on difference in BP w/the lower BP molecule evaporating off first ∴ …

-Collection Flask = 2-methylundecanal

-Boiling Flask = 2-methylundecanoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the formula for the velocity of an object dropped from a given hieght (h)?

A

v = √2gh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is one way to quickly identify whether or not a carbon is a stereogenic center?

A

for a carbon to be a tetrahedral stereocenter, it must be bonded to 4 different substituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

if a runner undergoes a turning acceleration to make a turn, how would you determine the magnitude of force experienced by the foot due to the ground?

A
  • Fnet = √(Fnormal^2) + (Fturn^2)
  • Fturn is ⊥ to Fnormal ∴ resultant = Fnet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For a polyprotic acid, what are the requirements for a H+ to produce a visible inflection point?

A
  • a H+ will only produce a visible inflection point if the H is relatively strong (low pKa)
  • pka1 vs. pka2 must differ by at least a factor of 10^4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

1) what is the equation for the moles of acid of a monoprotic acid at the equivalence point?
2) If you are given the titration curve for captopril w/NaOH & the concentration of NaOH, how would you determine the mols of captopril in the original analyte solution

A

1) Mb x Vb = Ma x Va = moles acid
2) determine volume of NaOH at the inflection pt of the titration curve (middle of steep portions) and use the concentration to determine the number of moles of NaOH at the inflection point. Mol OH = Mol Captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Newton’s Laws

A

1) Newton’s 1st Law: states thaat within a reference frame, an object remains at rest or at a constant velocity unless an external force acts upon it

• Fnet = 0 ; at equillibrium

2) Newton’s 2nd Law: Fnet = ma

3) Newton’s 3rd Law: when body A exerts a force on body B, body B exerts and equal and opposite force on body A

• Fa on b = -Fb on a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How would you determine whether a data point with error bars is significant?

A

if error bars overlap between data points that are being compared, then the difference between those pts. is NOT SIGNIFICANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Within the ETC, are e- passed from species w/less positive to more positive reduction potential or vice versa?

A
  • within the ETC, e- are passed from species w/less positive reduction potential to those w/more positive reduction potential
  • O2 = final e- acceptor—»∴ possess most postive standard reduction potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

standard reduction potential (Eº)

A
  • tendency for a species to spontaneously become reduced
  • defined relative to standard hydrogen electrode (2H+(aq) + 2e-(aq) —» H2(g))
  • Units: volts
  • (+) Eº —» stubstance ‘wants’ to be reduced
  • (–) Eº —» substance not prone to reduction
  • Eº Cell = Eºcathode + Eºanode [total standard potential generated by a galvanic cell]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

For a redox reaction, where are specieces reduced vs. oxidized?

A

1) Cathode (+) —» electrode where reduction occurs

2) Anode (–) —» electrode where oxidation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If you’re given the energy released by NADH thru the ETC (at 50% efficiency), how would you determine if energy produced by the rxn would be sufficient for the generation of 3 ATP molecules.

  • energy released by NADH = -52.5 kcal/mol
A
  • at 50% efficiency, only 26 kcal/mol could be used to produce ATP
  • 3 ATP —» 1 ATP (7.3 kcal/mol) x 3 = 22 kcal/mol ∴ enough energy would be produced to generate 3 ATP from the e-pair from NADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Refractive index

A
  • refractive index (n) helps reference how a waves speed will change within different mediums releative to it’s speed in a vaccum
  • n = c/v

(v=velocity through medium, c=speed of light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Snell’s Law

A
  • relates how the propagation speed of a wave changes from one medium to another —» relates the refractive index to how much the light bends upon entering the new mediuim
  • n1sin(Ø1) = n2sin(Ø2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the hybridization of XeF4?

A

sp3d2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the relationship between ∆Hf & the rxn rate?

A
  • ∆Hf (heat of formation) = energy required for the formation of a molecule
  • lower ∆Hf = quicker rxn rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is relative stabilization energy (RSE)? how does RSE relate to the stabilizing effects of a molecule?

A

RSE —» (–) RSE = greater stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hess’ Law

A

∆Hrxn = ∑∆Hf [products] - ∑∆Hf [reactants]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the difference between enthalpy vs. entropy?

A

Enthalpy = heat energy in a system

Entropy = energy in a closed system that is unavailable to do work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the relationship between electronegativity (w/respect to the substituent) and its stabilizing effects on a carbocatrion?

A
  • carbocations are unstable b/c of high concentration of positive charge ∴ substituents that contribute e- density to the carbocation will charge balance the carbocation
  • EWGs pull e- densityt away from carbocation, further decreasing its stability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

1) Gibbs Free Energy Equation
2) is it possible for an endothermic rxn to proceed spontaneously?

A

1) ∆G = ∆H - T∆S
2) YES. If ∆S is a large, (+) number, then it could make the overall ∆G of a rxn (–)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

spontaneity relationship table for ∆H, ∆S, and

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the power of a study refer to?

A

Power: refers to the ability of a study design to detect a real statistically significant effect, and it is primarily affected by the size of the study and the size of the effect - larger sample = more power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Capacitor

A

Capacitance (C): C = εA/d

  • A: area of plates
  • d: distance btwn plates

• Medical applications of capacitors (i.e. defibrillators to store charge and electrical PE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

? atm = ? mmHg = ? Pa

A

1 atm = 760 mmHg = 10^5 Pa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Homotropic regulation (HR)

A

HR: when a molecule serves as a substrate for it’s target enzyme, as well as a regulatory molecule of the enzyme’s activity

  • O2 = homotropic allosteric modulator of Hb
  • HR is what causes Hb graph to have sigmoidal shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

why is hydrostatic pressure (Hp) for liquids linear, but not for gases?

A
  • Hp for liquids remains linear b/c the density of the fluid doesnt change at different depths
  • the density of gases vary depending on the forces applied to them—»gases are compressible while liquids are not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

deposition

A
  • phase change from gas to solid
  • exothermic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

if an indicator dyte is needed for a titration of acetic acid w/NaOH, what should the pH of the indicator be?

A
  • b/c acetic acid = weak acid, and NaOH = strong base, the pH at the titration endpoint would be expected to be greater than 7
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

equation to calculate unknown concentration or volume for a titration

A

NaVa = NbVb

  • N: normality (mol/L)—»molarity must be converted to normality for polyprotic acids/polyvalent bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If a person is excercising against a 50-W load for 5 min, what is the total work performed by the muscle?

A
  • P=Wt
  • W = P/t = (50J/s)/(300s) = 150 kJ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. what equation allows you to determine the percent remaining for a decaying isotope if the number of half lives is given? 2. if you are told that a sample of 2000g must be replaced when the mass decays to 250, given the info from question (1) how would you detemine the number of half lives to reach that point?
A
  1. (0.5^n) = % remaining [n: # 1/2 lives]
  2. 250/2000 = 1/8 (1/8) = (1/2)^n
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Formula for Mechanical Advantage of an inclined plane

A

MA = hypotenuse/height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If each coupling step for a 10AA peptide produced a 95% yield, what would be the final yield for the peptide?

A

(0.95)^9 = 0.63 ≈ 60%

**only raised to a power of 9 b/c the cycle would only be run 9 times for a 10 AA peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

the flow rate of a heart valve is 4E^-4 (m^3/s). what speed would result within a blood vessel w/a cross sectional area of 5E^-6 (m^2)?

A

**UNITS**

  • Q = Av
    • v = Q/A
    • (4E^-4) / (5E^-6) = 8E^-2 (m/s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex

A
  1. Converts pyruvate—»acetyl CoA -generates 1 NADH
  2. complex of 3 enxymes
    a) pyruvate dehydrogenase
    b) dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
    c) dihydrolipyl dehydrogenase
  3. Requires 5 coenzymes:
    a) TPP b) FAD c) NAD d) CoA e) lipolate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Surfactant

A
  1. amphipathic molecules (hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail)
  2. surfactant adsorbs to air-water-alveoli interface—»reducing surface tension and total force resisting expansion

• elastic recoil force of the airway and surface tension of water lining the airway oppose expansion of alveoli—»surfactant reduces the force needed to expand alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Inspiration

A
  1. contraction of diaphram & external intercostal muscles—»results in dec. in intrapleural pressure (neg. presure)
  2. Neg. presure (rel. to Patm at entry to airway) causes airflow through respiratory tract to end at alveoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the equation for the gibbs free energy change of a phase change from liquid to solid?

A

∆G = G(l) - G(s)

∆G = ∆H -T∆S

  • ∆H = enthalpy of formation
  • ∆S = entropy of formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Quantum Numbers/Electron Configuration

A
  1. principle quantum number (n): energy level of the e- •higher n = higher energy
  2. Angular (azimuthal) momentum # (l): subshell of n •l = n–1 • s=0, p=1, d=2, f=3
  3. Magnetic quantom # (ml): •ml = (-l), 0, (+l)
  4. Spin quantum number (ms): spin orientation •ms = +/- 1/2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

equation to calculate the energy of an electron’s n level

A

En = -Rh/(n^2) Rh

(Rydberg Constant) = different for each element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is range in wavelength for the visible spectrum of electromagnetic signals? what color does each end correspond to?

A
  1. Range = [400nm - 700nm]
  • 400nm = purple (high energy)
  • 700nm = red (low energy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

if isotpe X & Y both undergo B- decay, what is the expected ratio of total atomic mass of material X vs. material Y?

  • half life X = 5 years
  • half life Y = 1 year
A
  1. Ratio = 1:1

•the atomic mass of an atom doesnt change when B- decay takes place b/c the transition from neutron to proton has a negligible change in atomic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If an electron were ejected from an sp, sp2, or sp3 porbital, which of these would emit electromagnetic radiation w/the shortest wavelength?

A

sp orbital—»shorter wavelength emissions correspond to higher energy electromagnetic emmissions ∴ b/c it would require the most energy to eject an electron from an sp orbital, it would have the shortest wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hertz

A

Hz, Frequency s^-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Newton

A

N, Force, kg m/s^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Pascal

A

Pa, Pressure, N/m^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Joule

A

J, Work/Energy, Nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Newton-meter

A

Nm, Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Watt

A

W, Power, J/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Coulomb

A

C, Charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Volt

A

V, Electric potential, J/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Farad

A

F, Capacitance, C/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Ohm

A

(Omega), Resistance, V/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Weber

A

You don’t need this, seriously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tesla

A

T, Magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Y32 is a genetically encoded fluorescent biosensor, and the spectral ratio of peaks of excitation spectrum are a direct representation of ATP-ADP ratio. If its proposed that differences in ATP-ADP ratios are due to variations in Y32 expression, would the student be correct?

A
  • NO—» Y32 fluorescent intensity ratio of peaks is a reflection of its ATP-ADP ratio
  • use of ratio = intrinsic normalization—»∴ doesnt matter how many biomolecules are in the sample, the ratio provides normalization that makes the values reliable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Whats the most likely cause of a shift in the emission spectra of a fluorescent molecule where wavelength increases?

A

an inc. in wavelength corresponds to a dec. in energy —» loss of energy occurs when e- returns to ground state b/c it was excited w/the same amount of energy that would have produced the first emission spectrum .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

if a fluorescent molecule is pH-sensitive, why might this cause problems when using it to monitor changes in the energy balance of a cell?

A

pH will change over time in a cell, and changes to emission spectrum might be reflection of the change in pH and not whatever it is supposed to be indicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

If log(MW) = n, what is the molecular weight of that molecule equal to?

A

MW = 10^n [Da]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

If the pKa of a weak acid = 3.5, what would be the most accurate guess for the pH of a [.1M] solution? -1.0, 2.3, 3.5, or 4.1?

A
  • 2.3
  • if it were a strong acid then pH = 1
  • if [HA] = [A-] then pH = pKa = 3.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Calculating Galvonic cell potential

A
  1. galvanic cell = spontaneous rxn 2. cell potentials (Eº) always > 0 [i.e.(+)] 3. if given the reduction potential for both components of the galvonic cell—»reverse the sign of the less positive reduction potential (i.e. oxidation potential) •then simply add the ox/red potentials directly —» Eº = Eºr + Eºo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Ohm’s Law

A

V = IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Capacitance equation & Units

A
  • C = Q/V = κε0A/d
    • k = dialectric constant
      • [κ ∝ C] —» Qκ = 4Q0 when dialectric constant is added to a capacitor
    • ε0 = constant (not needed for MCAT)
    • A = area of the plates
    • d = distance between plates
  • Capacitantce must always be (+)
  • Unit: farads (F)
    • q: coulomb (C)
    • V: volt (V)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Phosphorus Acid Molecular Formula

A

H3PO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Difference between ‘-ous’ acids vs. ‘-ic’ acids?

A
  1. “-ous”: acids have 1 fewer O atam than “-ic” counterpart acid
  2. Ex: Phosphorous Acid (H3PO3) vs. Phosphoric Acid (H3PO4)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Ksp

A
  1. Ksp (solubility product) = [A-]^2[B^2+]
  • (A-) & (B2+) = two ions of aq ionic compound
  • ion concentration raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient
  1. High Ksp=more soluble | Low Ksp = less soluble
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

If a mechanical leg mimics a spring’s compression, and it absorbs 125J of KE after compressing 10cm, whats the spring constant?

A
  1. leg absorbing KE and converts to elastic potential enerfy
  2. KE = 1/2kx^2 • k = 2KE/x^2 | k = 25,000 N/m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the relationship of volume and temperature for an ideal gas? (P is kept constant)

A
  1. direct relationship (when pressure is constant)
  2. V1/T1 = V2/T2

• T must be in Kelvin (K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the units required for temperature whenever dealing with an ideal gas?

A

Kelvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

On what basis does gas-liquid chromatograph separate compounds?

A

Vaporizes the compounds. The first peaks exhibit the lowest molecular weight and intermolecular forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the thin lens formula?

A

The strength of the eye lens is given as the inverse of the focal length of the eye lens. 1/O + 1/I = S . O stands for the distance someone can see objects. I is the lens to retina distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How do you calculate the index of refraction?

A

It is equal to the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum / the speed of light in the medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is intensity of radiation proportional to?

A

The number of photons emitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the difference between threonine and serine?

A

Threonine has a secondary alcohol while serine has a primary alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the hybridization of an octahedral compound?

A

sp3d2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What bond does glycogen synthase catalyze?

A

The a-1,4-glycosidic linkage of an individual glucose molecule to the main chain of glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How can you use the thin lens equation to find the height of an image?

A

1/o + 1/i = 1/f . You can calculate the distance (i) of an image if you know F and O. The height of an image is the ratio of i/o

o: object distance
i: image distance
f: focal length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is +∆S?

A

An increase in entropy and more disorder as if 2 reactants became 3 products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What will occur if a homogenous catalyst cannot be separated from the products at the end of a reaction?

A

The reaction will still occur, but the products will be contaminated with the catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Name the strong acids:

A

HCl, HNO3, HI, HClO4, HClO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Name the strong bases:

A

KOH, NaOH, Ba(OH)2, CsOH, Sr(OH)2, Ca(OH)2, LiOH, RbOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Express the amount of light energy that is converted to other forms between the flouescence excitation and emission events in J/photon:

A

E=hc/(1/ye-1/yf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How do you calculate Kcat?

A

Kcat = Vmax/[E]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Absorption of UV light by organic molecules always results in what process?

A

Excitation of bound electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the half life of radioactive material?

A

The time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which phosphate is used by kinases in phosphoryl transfer?

A

gamma-Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How is cooperativity expressed in a graph?

A

A sigmoidal curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What phenomenon causes static air to be drawn into the mask when oxygen flows?

A

Venturi effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Why do G-C residues have higher boiling points than A-T residues?

A

G-C bonds exhibit a higher π-stacking strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the difference between phospholipids and storage lipids?

A

Phospholipids consist of a glycerol molecule with two fatty acid tails, and a phosphate group modified by an alcohol. Storage lipids have three fatty acid tails ester linked to a single glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are Lewis bases?

A

Lone pair donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is a coordinate covalent bond?

A

A lewis acid-base interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What will HCl react with first: ammonia or water?

A

NH3 because it is a much stronger base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the coordination number?

A

The number of molecules that coordinate covalent bond to a central metal cation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is henderson hasselbach formula for acids and what is 10^-1?

A

pH=pKa+log[base/acid] ; 10^-1=.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the solubility product constant expression for CaCO3? What is the concentration of a saturated solution of CaCO3 if the Ksp=4.9*10^-9?

A

Ksp=[Ca][CO3] ; if the Ksp is 4.9*10^-9 then [Ca] is the sqrt of that: 7*10^-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the difference in sound intensities between 20 and 40dB?

A

A difference of 20dB is 2 factors of 10 so 100 times more intense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How is energy converted in a battery that has a resistor?

A

Chemical to electrical to thermal energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the bond formed by protein secondary structure?

A

Hydrogen bonds between the backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the magnification formula and what would the di be for an object 20cm to the left of a lens?

A

M = -di/do . to the left of the lens the image has a negative value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Where does a real image form?

A

To the opposite side of the lens as the object

129
Q

Why is the change in frequency & wavelength so much greater for sound waves vs. radio waves?

A
  1. [∆f/f = -v/c]
  2. sound waves travel slower (lower v) than radio waves

– ∆f inversly dependent on the speed of the wave in the medium it propogates

– ∴ since the v of sound < v of radio —» the same relative velocity will produce shifts in frequency and wavelength that are much greater for sound than radio waves

130
Q

Equation for electric field (E) that relates V, I, R, & L

A

E = (V – IR) / L

131
Q

if the # of incident photons changes on the cathode (w/energies above the value of the work function) what quantity would also increase?

A

incident photons affects only the # of e- ejected (NOT THEIR ENERGIES) —» inc. the # of incident photons = inc. # e- ejected

132
Q

If given a list of different compounds, how could you predicte which of these compounds would appear as the first peak for mass spectroscopy?

A

molecules with the lowest molecular weight and weakest intermolecular forces of attraction will migrate the fastest and become the first peak

133
Q

If given a list of different compounds, how could you predicte which of these compounds would appear as the first peak for mass spectroscopy?

A

molecules with the lowest molecular weight and weakest intermolecular forces of attraction will migrate the fastest and become the first peak

134
Q

What are the properties of an ideal gas?

A
  1. individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible 2. One mole of gas occupies a volume of 22.4L at 0ºC at 1atm
135
Q

What is the change in oxidation state as NH3—»NH4+?

A

No change to oxidation state—»acid/base rxns dont affect oxidation # of an atom

136
Q

__ eV = __ J ?

A

1eV = 1.6E-19 J

137
Q

Can 3º alcohols be oxidized into a ketone? why/why not?

A

oxidation of a 3º alc is unlikely b/c it involves breaking a C-C bond (very difficult)

138
Q

Amine

A

N(R)3 —» R = C or H

139
Q

What is the equation for potential energy of a capacitor?

A

U = (1/2)CV2

C = Capacitance

V = Voltage

140
Q

Suppore a railcar passes by a horn emitting a sound w/frequency f. If f’ is the frequency heard by the person on the cart, what is the relationship between f & f’ before and after passing the horn?

A

f’ > f before passing the horn, f’ < f after passing it

141
Q

Units of Power

A

SI UNIT: Watts

1W = J/s = V•Amp

142
Q

Power Equation

A

1. P = W/t

  • W = work
  • t = time

2. P = VI

  • V = voltage
  • I = current

3. P = Fv

  • F = force (N)
  • v = velocity (m/s)
143
Q

What experimental data is used to determine the thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds?

A
  1. Heats of Combustion—»the energy released when something is burned. When you have more -CH2 groups, then there is more energy released when burning it
  2. Only in isomers does the branching effect play a significant role.
  3. More ring strain = higher heat of combustion
144
Q
A
145
Q
A
146
Q

Activation Energy Formula

A

AE = [the energy of the activated complex] – [the energy of the reactants]

147
Q

D-Block Elements and Filling e- Orbitals

A
148
Q

Experimental Conditions Needed for Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

A
  1. initial velocity is measured under steady-state conditions
  2. the concentration of enzyme is lower than that of substrate
  3. solution pH remains constant at all substrate concentrations
149
Q

Hydroxamic Acid Structure

A
150
Q

pK

A

the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5

151
Q
A
152
Q
A

C: Na2CO3 is a bronsted base

153
Q

Carbomate Amide Grp

A
154
Q

Ping Pong (double-displacement) Binding

(no tertiary complex)

A
155
Q

Random Order Substrate Binding

A
156
Q

Ordered Substrate Binding

A
157
Q

What is the acceptable range for a certain buffer with a given pKa value?

A

±1 pH value

158
Q

Phosphorylation of AA w/ATP (mechanism)

A
159
Q

Phosphoric Acid vs. Inorganic Phosphate (Pi) vs. Inorganic Pyrophosphate (PPi)

A
160
Q

Structure of ATP

A
161
Q

Kcat

A
  1. Vmax/(Etotal)
  2. turnover number (s^-1)
162
Q

kcat/Km

A

Measure of enzyme’s catalytic efficiency

163
Q

Michaelis–Menten Graph
A) Vmax B) Km C) [V] vs. [S]

A
164
Q

Vmax1. represents the maximum rate achieved by the system (at saturating substrate concentrations)
2. Units: mol/s

A
  1. represents the maximum rate achieved by the system (at saturating substrate concentrations)
  2. Units: mol/s
165
Q

Refraction & Snell’s Law

A
166
Q

polarization

A
167
Q

diffraction

A
168
Q

Current (I) —» Units & Equation1. I = flow of charge/unit time
• I = [charge(q)]/[time(t)]
2. Unit: Ampere [C/s]

A
  1. I = flow of charge/unit time
    • I = [charge(q)]/[time(t)]
  2. Unit: Ampere [C/s]
169
Q

Capacitor

A
170
Q

Action Potential

A
171
Q

Graded Potentials

A
  1. Graded potentials are brought about by external stimuli (in sensory neurons) or by neurotransmitters released in synapses, where they cause graded potentials in the post-synaptic cell.
  2. occur in the cell body and dendrites (not axon)
  3. no refractory period
  4. summed over time (temporal summation) and accross space (spatial summation)
  5. no refractory periods
  6. ion channels responsible for graded potentials may be ligand-gated (i.e. NTs), mechanosensitive, or temperature sensitive
172
Q

Action potentials vs. graded potentials

A
173
Q

What is the relationship between absorbance and concentration

A
  1. absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
  2. any absorbance greater than 1 —» then the proportionality starts to change
174
Q
A
175
Q

Base Catalyzed Ester Hydrolysis (Saponification)

A
176
Q

Acid Catalyzed Hydration

A
177
Q

Phosphotase

A
178
Q

3 Layers of the Skin

A
  1. Epidermis: outermost layer of skin—»provides waterproof barrier and skin tone
  2. Dermis: connective tissue, hair follicles, and sweat glands
  3. Hypodermis: subcutaneous tissue made of fat and connective tissue
179
Q

Epidermis

A
  1. composed of keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium—»lacks vasculature
  2. Layers:
    1. stratum corneum: dead cells filled with keratin
    2. Stratum lucidum: thin layer of cells is found only in the thick skin of the palms, soles, and digits
    3. Stratum granulosum: Lamellar granules
    4. stratum spinosum:
      1. join the cells via a structure called a desmosome.
      2. contians keratinocytes & langerhan cells
    5. stratum basale:
      1. deepest epidermal layer and attaches the epidermis to the basal lamina
      2. Merkel cells—»functions as a receptor for stimulating sensory nerves for touch
      3. Melanocyte—»produce pigment melanin
180
Q

Dermis

A
  1. Papillary Layer: made of loose, areolar connective tissue, which means the collagen and elastin fibers of this layer form a loose mesh
    1. contains fibroblasts, fat cells, small blood vessels, lymphatic capillaries, phagocytes, and Meissner corpuscles
  2. Reticular Layer: composed of dense, irregular connective tissue
    1. well vascularized
    2. elastin fibers provide elasticity to skin, collagen fibers provide tensile strength
181
Q

Hypodermis

A
  1. subcutaneous layer that serves to connect the skin to the underlying fascia (fibrous tissue) of the bones and muscles
  2. well-vascularized, loose, areolar connective tissue and adipose tissue, which functions as a mode of fat storage and provides insulation
182
Q
A

Imine—» nitrogen atom connected to a carbon atom w/a double bond

183
Q
A
184
Q

Michaelis-Menten equation

A
185
Q

Lac Operon

A
  1. inducible system: repressor is bound in the abscence of lactose
    1. w/lactose—»allolactose bind repressor and transcription can occur
186
Q

Furanose vs. Pyranose ring structure

A
187
Q

Mutarotation of Glucose

A
188
Q

Anomeric Carbon

A
189
Q

If lactate dehydrogenase was removed from this reaction, what would happen to the free energy value shown for the formation of L-Lactate?

A
  • it would not change
  • enzymes inc. the rate of a rxn, but dont change the thermodynamic properties—» ∴ enzymes dont change the free energy of a rxn
190
Q

Volume Flow Rate Equation

A
  • Q = V/t = Ad/t = Av
    • Q = volume flow rate
    • A = cross-sectional area
    • v = speed of fluid
191
Q

when an object is [closer/farther] to a convex lens than the focal point, the lens will create a virtual image

A

closer to the lens than the focal pt = virtual image

192
Q

Magnification formula for lens

193
Q

Equation for lens strength

A
  • P = 1/f
    • ​P = lens strength
    • f = focal point (MUST BE IN METERS)
    • Unit = Diopeter (m-1)

https://www.khanacademy.org/test-prep/mcat/physical-sciences-practice/physical-sciences-practice-tut/e/thin-lens-quiz-passage-1

194
Q

how would you describe the objective and eyepiece images from this compound microscope setup?

195
Q

Optical properties of the eyes

identify labels & address how image is formed by eye.

A
196
Q

What is the image size of a 6-foot tall man (1.8 m) who is standing at a distance approximately 10 feet away (3.0 m) on the human retina?

197
Q

Accommodation is the process of adjusting the focal length to view objects at varying distances. What is the range in power of the eye in diopters when viewing from the closest (d = 25 cm) to the farthest possible distance from the eye?

A
  • 1/f = 1/i + 1/o, so P = 1/i + 1/o.
    • P at closest distance: P = 1/.25 + 1/0.02 = 4 + 50 = 54
    • P at farthest distance: P = 1/∞ + 1/0.02 = 0 + 50 = 50
  • Range in Power of the Eye = [54 - 50] = 4 Diopeters

https://www.khanacademy.org/test-prep/mcat/physical-sciences-practice/physical-sciences-practice-tut/e/analysis-of-image-production-by-the-human-eye

198
Q

Ray diagram for a telescope

A
199
Q

chromatic abberation

A
  • Shorter wavelengths experience a greater index of refraction, so blue converges closer to the lens than red.
    • The refractive index tends to decrease with increasing wavelength and subsequently increase with frequency.
    • Blue experiences a greater index of refraction and travels more slowly in the material, & red experiences the lowest index of refraction and travels more quickly.
      • Since blue experiences the greater refractive index, blue will converge closer to the lens than red will
200
Q

Dispersion

A
  • the change of index of refraction with wavelength
    *
201
Q

Emmetropia vs. myopia vs. hyperopia

A
  1. emmetropia: eye w/no refractive errors
  2. Myopia: nearsightedness—»focus nearby obj. but not distant obj.
  3. Hyperopia: farsightedness—»focus on distant obj. but not nearby obj.
202
Q
  1. what causes myopia?
  2. which of these 4 changes would contribute to myopia?
    1. inc. in eye’s axial length
    2. inc. in refractive index of lens
    3. inc. in diameter of pupil
    4. inc. in curvature of cornea
A
  1. myopia results when the focal length of eye is less than the axial length
    1. ∴ anything that shortens focal length or lengthens axial length = myopia
  2. inc. in diameter of pupil—»only inc. amt of light entering eye, doesnt affect axial or focal length
    1. inc. curvature of cornea or inc. refractive index = shortened focal length
203
Q

what lens corrects for hyperopia?

A
  • hyperopia: focal length of eye is greater than axial length
  • converging lens—» refract light before it enters eye and allows light to converge at the retina
204
Q

The optical power of the average human eye is 60 Diopters. Approximately, what is the height of the inverted image produced on the retina of a 1 meter tall child standing 10 meters away from a human eye?

A
  • P = [1/do] + [1/di]
    • 1/di = 599/10
  • m = -di/do
    • m = [–(10/599)/10] = -1/599
  • -di/do = hi/ho = -1/599
    • hi = -1/599 ≈ -1/600
    • [(-) means that img. is inverted]

https://www.khanacademy.org/test-prep/mcat/physical-sciences-practice/physical-sciences-practice-tut/e/the-refraction-of-light-through-the-human-eye

205
Q

Doppler Effect

If an object is moving away from a reciever will __________ in pitch, while objects moving towards a receiver will __________ in pich.

A

If an object is moving away from a reciever will decrease in pitch, while objects moving towards a receiver will increase in pitch.

206
Q

if the speed of an ultrasound docked on a car is constant, how does the frequency and volume change as the US approaches a person?

A
  • speed is constant ∴ the Doppler shift is constant and the frequency remains constant
  • intensity of signal inc. as US approaches person ∴ volume inc.
207
Q

Intensity Formula & Units (E&M)

A
  1. I = P/A
    1. P = Power (W)
    2. A = Cross Sectional Area (m2) = 4πr2
  2. I ∝ 1/r2
208
Q

Doppler Equation

A
209
Q

Concave mirrors

  1. For a real object very far away from the mirror, the _____ image is formed at the ______.
  2. For a real object close to the mirror but outside of the center of curvature, the _______ image is formed __________ The image is ________ and [larger/smaller] than the object.
A
210
Q

Concave mirrors

  1. For a real object at f, ________ image is formed. The reflected rays are _________ and _______ _________.
  2. For a real object between f and the mirror, a ______ image is formed _____________. The image is ________ and [bigger / smaller / same size] than/as the object.
A
211
Q

Concave mirrors

  1. For a real object at C, the ________ image is formed at ___. The image is _______ and [bigger / smaller / same size] as the object.
  2. For a real object between C and f, a ______ image is formed _____________. The image is ________ and [bigger / smaller / same size] than/as the object.
A
212
Q

Convex Mirror Diagram

A
  • convex mirrors always produce virtual & right side up images
  • images outside of f & C will focus parallell light rays to the prinicipal axis—»all rays converge at f
213
Q

If a titration curve shows 2 equivalence points, the acid titrated is most likely…?

A

Diprotic

214
Q

As one moves across the periodic table from right to left, atomic radius ­­______ and electronegativity ______.

A
  • atomic radius = inc. (down and left along periodic table)
  • electronegativity = dec. (down and left along the periodic table)
215
Q

Which atom has the smallest radius?

  1. K+
  2. Ar
  3. Cl-
A

K+ —» contains most [H+] atoms = stronger attractive force and ∴ smallest radius

216
Q

Which groups of atoms on the periodic table must be stored in an inert gas in order to prevent dangerous exothermic reactions with the atmosphere?

A
  • alkali metals & alkaline earth metals
    • alkali metals = most volatile b/c small 1st ionization energy
217
Q

isoelectric species

A
  • isoelectric species have same # of electrons
  • ex: Cl- & Ca2+
218
Q
  1. how to calculate gram equivalent weight?
  2. gram equivalent weight of phosphoric acid?
A
  1. Gram Equivalent Weight (for acid) = mass/acidic proton
  2. H3PO4 = 98 g/mol
  • 98g/mol ≈ 100g/mol –» 100g/mol / 3[H+] = 33g
  • Gram equivalent weight H3PO4 = 33g
219
Q

What is the approximate angle between adjacent bonding electrons in XeF4?

A

90°

220
Q

Ideal Gas Behavior

A
  1. low mass
  2. weak intermolecular forces
    • EX: HCl & CH4
  3. Conditions:
    • Low pressure and high temperature
221
Q

C2H6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

If 4 moles of ethane gas is placed in a sealed chamber with 10 moles of oxygen gas, which species is the limiting reagent?

A
  1. first step is to balance the equation:
    • 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O
  2. next find —» ratio of moles:coefficient for 2 reactants
    • Ethane’s ratio = 4:2
    • Oxygen’s ratio = 10/7 —» smaller ratio ∴ O2 is the limiting reagent
222
Q

A solution of acetic acid has a pH of 6.2. What is the approximate molar concentration of protons in the solution?

A) 8 x 10-8 M

B) 8 x 10-7 M

C) 8 x 10-6 M

D) 8 x 10-5 M

A

B) 8 x 10-7 M

  • pH of 6 corresponds to an H+ concentration of 10-6 M
  • pH of 6.2 is slightly less acidic —» 8 x 10-7 is slightly less than 10-6.
223
Q

Nitrate vs. Nitrite (structure)

A
224
Q

Difference between an exothermic rxn and a spontaneous rxn?

A
  • Spontaneous:
    • ​[–∆G] = spontaneous
    • proceeds w/out any additional energy needed
  • Exothermic:
    • ​[–∆H] = exothermic
    • net release of heat from system
225
Q

In the formation of water from oxygen and hydrogen gas, consider the following bond enthalpies:

H-H 436 kJ/mol

O=O 499 kJ/mol

O-H 463 kJ/mol

This reaction can be classified as:

A
  1. rxn must be determined and balanced
    • 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
  2. ΔHrxn = Σ[ΔHreactants] – Σ[ΔHproducts]
    • ΔHrxn = [2(436) + 499] – [4(463)] = -481 kJ/mol

Rxn = Exothermic

226
Q

Faraday’s Constant

A
  • Farday’s constant = charge of 1 mol of electrons
  • F = 9.65x104 Coulombs
227
Q

The reduction half-reaction for the silver cation is Ag+ + e- → Ag(s). This process is used to electroplate an object using silver from solution.

How long will it take to deposit 21.6 g of silver, given a current of 100 A?

A
  • 21.6g Ag = 0.2 mol Ag
  • 100 A = 100 C/s
    • C: coulomb
  • (0.2 mol)(9.65 x 104 C/mol) = 1.9 x 104 C
    • (1.9 x 104 C)/(100 C/s) = 190 seconds
228
Q

Galvonic & Electrolytic Cells

which is spontaneous vs. non-spontaneous?

A
  • Galvonic Cells—» spontaneous
    • e- move spontaneously from anode to the cathode
  • Electrolytic Cells—» non-spontaneous
229
Q

what is the purpose of a salt bridge in a galvonic cell?

A

serves to prevent the accumulation of (+) charge at the anode

230
Q

which group of the periodic table forms (-2) ions and covalent bonds?

A

Chalcogens —» column 16 of the periodic table elements

  • oxygen, sulfur, etc.
231
Q

Gas —» Solid

[Phase Change?]

A

Deposition

232
Q

How to calculate molar solubility when given Ksp?

EX: What is the molar solubility of an insoluble solid, AB, if the Ksp for AB is 8.3 x 10-11?

A
  • Ksp = [A+][B-]
    • Ksp = x2
    • 8.3 x 10-11 = x2
    • x ≈ 9 x 10-6 mol/L
233
Q

How to predict reaction direction when given the rxn quotient (Qc) and equillibrium constant (Keq)?

A
234
Q

What is absolute 0° in Kelvin and Celcius?

A
  • 0 Kelvin
  • -273 °C
235
Q

adiabatic expansion/compression

A
  • adiabatic curves —» no heat is exchanged, but work is done on or by the system
  • [Graph] —» Curve B is adiabatic EXPANSION b/c volume is inc.
236
Q

How does adding an enzyme affect the Keq of a rxn?

A

Enzymes only affect the rate of rxn ∴ enzymes dont affect Keq

237
Q

What will be the effect on the pH of 1 L of pure water at 298 K if heat is added to the system?

A
  • H20 —» H+ + OH- = ENDOTHERMIC process
  • adding heat = adding energy ∴ H2O will dissociate into H+ and OH- ions
    • pH of H2O would still be neutral, but pH & pOH both dec.
    • pH + pOH ≠ 14 —» pH + pOH = pKw​ (pH + pOH not always = 14)
      • inc. temp of H2O also inc. Kw ∴ pKw dec. allowing both pH and pOH to dec.
  • the pH will dec. when heat is added to the H2O
238
Q

Gabriel Synthesis

A
  • Nucleophile: nitrogen of a phthalimide molecule acts like a nucleophile
  • Electrophile: secondary carbon of an alkyl halide.
239
Q

Rxn w/COOH as reactant

A
240
Q

what is the reactant/product of an aldol condensation

A
241
Q

which of these molecules is the keto form and which is the enol form?

what molecule is more abuntant?

A
  • keto form is always more stable, and ∴ more abundant than the enol form
    • HOWEVER —» special exceptions to this rule (i.e. cases in which formation of the enol confers aromaticity on the molecule)
242
Q

Draw the structure of a hemi-ketal and hemi-acetal

A
243
Q

Are K2Cr2O7 & O3 strong or weak oxidizing agents?

They convert alcohols ——» [???]

A
  • strong oxidizing agents
  • alc —» COOH
244
Q

UV-Vis Spectroscopy

[LUMO & HOMO]

A
  • UV spectroscopy is most useful for studying compounds containing double bonds and/or heteroatoms with lone pairs that create conjugated systems.
  • LOMO: lowest unoccupied molecular orbital
    • the higher-energy position where an electron that has absorbed a photon of sufficient energy will be found
  • HOMO: highest occupied molecular orbital
    • lower-energy orbital
245
Q

Elemental nitrogen does not exhibit an IR spectrum because it…

A

is symmetrical

246
Q

What shifts would indicate the presence of a carboxylic acid proton in a 1H-NMR spectrum?

A

11.0 ppm

247
Q

Infared Radiation Frequency Range

A

[1012 – 1014] Hz

248
Q

Visible Light Frequency Range

A

1015 Hz

249
Q

UV Light Frequency Range

A

[1015 – 1016] Hz

250
Q

Gamma Ray Frequency Range

A

[1019 – 1020] Hz

251
Q

X-Ray Frequency Range

A

[1017 – 1018] Hz

252
Q

Radio Wave Frequency Range

A

108 Hz

253
Q

Microwave Frequency Range

A

[109 – 1011] Hz

254
Q

A two-pulley system allows a dockworker to apply a 1000 N force over a distance of 10 m, while lifting a crate by a vertical distance of 7.5 m. If the crate is raised at a constant speed and friction and resistance are negligible, what is the weight of the crate?

A
  • Work = (1000N)(10m) = 10,000J
  • 10,000J = F(7.5m)
    • F = 1300N
255
Q

The portion of an object submerged in water is the same as it’s ______ _______?

A

Specific Gravity

256
Q

Equation relating the speed of flow and cross-sectional area in a pipe system.

A

A<span>1</span>V<span>1</span> = A2V2

257
Q

A toy boat constructed of balsa wood (c = 0.7 J/g °C) is set in 1 L of hot water (c = 4.2 J/g° C). If all the water is brought into thermal contact with 1 kg of balsa wood that is 30 degrees lower in temperature, how much will the temperature of the wood increase (°C)?

A
258
Q

The specific heat (c) of wood is much lower than that of water, ∴ the wood should experience a greater _________ in temperature.

A

Increase

259
Q

If a noise machine requires 100 W to produce a continuous 10-dB sound, how much power is needed to produce a continuous 80-dB sound?

A
  • 10 dB to 80 dB = Δ70 dB —» need to raise intensity by factor of 107
  • I0 = 102 W
    • (102)(107) = 109 W = 1000 MW.
260
Q

thin-film interference

A

EX: when light reflects off a bubble produces multiple colors

261
Q

What are the conditions that lead to total internal reflection?

A

Light must travel from a high index of refraction to a low index of refraction for total internal reflection to occur.

262
Q

For visible light, greater frequency / shorter wavelength = ______ refraction

A

MORE refraction

263
Q

white light separation as it passes through glass, which color of the visible light spectrum will experience the greatest deviaiton from the normal?

A

Violet—» higher f and shorter λ = greater refraction

264
Q

Power Equations

[in terms of V, I, & R]

A
  • P = VI = V2/R = I2R
  • how to minimize power loss…
    • Maximize voltage (V)
    • Minimize current (I)
    • Minimize resistance (R)
265
Q

Graff is selecting between two different pre-cut copper (ρ = 17.1 nΩ-m) wires. Wire A is 9 mm long, and has a cross-sectional area of 1 mm2. Wire B is 4.5 mm long, with a cross-sectional area of 2 mm2. How does the resistance of Wire B compare to Wire A?

A
  • R = ρL/A
  • Wire B has half the length and double the area, ∴ it will have ¼ the resistance
266
Q

Right Hand Rule

A
  • always remeber to flip the sign/direction when working with (–) charges
    • RHR based on (+) charges
267
Q

Gauge Pressure Formula

A
  • Pgauge = Ptotal - PATM
268
Q

the oscillation and wave propogation of sound waves are [// or ⊥]

A

Parallel [//] —» longitudinal wave

269
Q

B- Decay

A
270
Q

B+ Decay

A
271
Q

Types of Radioactive Decay

A
272
Q

1 atm = _______ Pa

A

1 atm = 101,000 Pa

273
Q

Convection vs. Conduction vs. Radiation

A
274
Q

Direction of Electric Current

A
  • Current = flow of positive charges
  • current flows from the negative terminal to the positive terminal and continues in that direction
    *
275
Q

If no other ions are involved, how would decreasing the concentration of sodium outside the cell affect the graph of action potential?

A
  • If the concentration of sodium is lower outside the cell, then the overall voltage will be decreased, because there is less of a difference in charge being separated across the membrane.
  • If the concentration of sodium outside the cell is lower than it was previously, and no other ions are involved then the current across the membrane will decrease, because this means the amount of charge is also less.
    • A decrease in current means the action potential will take a longer time.
276
Q

Noncompetitive Antagonist (what are the 2 examples?)

A
  1. allosteric binding of an inhibitor to an enzyme
  2. permanent active site binding.
277
Q

Methanol has a _______ boiling point and a ________ solubility in water than isopropyl alcohol.

A

lower, higher

278
Q

Tollen’s Test

A
  • Tollens’ test, also known as silver-mirror test, is a qualitative laboratory test used to distinguish between an aldehyde and a ketone
    • exploits the fact that aldehydes are readily oxidized (see oxidation), whereas ketones are not (no Ag in tube if reaccted w/ketone)
  • Rxn accompanied by the reduction of silver ions in Tollens’ reagent into metallic silver, which, if the test is carried out in a clean glass test tube, forms a mirror on the test tube
279
Q

what bonds does glycogen phosphorylase degrade?

A

catalyzes the hydrolysis of α-1,4-glycosidic linkage

280
Q

Glycogen

  • Linkages?
  • advantages to storing glycogen instead of straight chain glucose?
A
  • 1,4 & 1,6 linkages
  • advantages:
    • glycogen takes up less volume and preciptatle less easily than large unbranched polymers
    • doesnt inc. the osmolarity of the cell—»osmotic pressure inc. w/molarity
    • simultaneous sites for hydrolysis via branching
281
Q

An ideal simple machine, a machine that does not increase internal energy through friction, [does/doesn’t] change amount of work needed to move a load.

A

An ideal simple machine, a machine that does not increase internal energy through friction, does NOT change amount of work needed to move a load.

282
Q

Under icy conditions, which hill could a car park on without slipping?

A
  • mgsinØ – µsmgcosØ = 0
    • µs = tanØ
  • The only hill that has a coefficient of static friction that is larger than the required coefficient is Austin Dr
    • tan(24°) = 0.445 which is less than 0.46
283
Q

A car is driving too fast up the hill on Austin Drive under icy conditions. After a deer runs across the road the driver of the car slams on the brakes, and the car skids up the hill.

When the car is skidding up the hill the forces of gravity along the incline and the force of friction point in the _______ direction.

A
  • point in the same direction
    • mgsinØ + µkmgcosØ = ma
284
Q

According to the graph, at what time did the athlete’s feet lose contact with the ground?

A
  • at 1 second—» Vmax of a person will be attained right before the person leaves the ground.
    • acceleration after 1 second is -10m/s<span>2</span> ∴ the person is in the air during that time accelerating only due to gravity.
285
Q

According to the graph, during which time interval did the athlete’s knees experience the largest upwards force?

A
  • ∑F = ma
    • Fup – mg = ma
    • Fup = mg + ma —» knees will have the largest Fup when the acceleration has the largest positive value
  • acceleration has the largest positive value between 2.0 – 2.1 sec ∴ knees experience the largest Fup
286
Q

Which of the following correctly describe the difference between an inverted pendulum (as shown in in Figure 1) and a standard pendulum with identical length and mass?

  • I. An inverted pendulum has minimal kinetic energy when it reaches its equilibrium point
  • II. An inverted pendulum requires a non-gravitational restoring force to remain in equilibrium
  • III. An inverted pendulum reaches a higher maximum gravitational torque
A
  • I and II are accurate statements
    • The kinetic energy is minimal when an individual is standing (equilibrium)
    • Standing requires the influence of the ankles (an external force) to maintain the otherwise unstable equilibrium
287
Q

In Figure 2, which of the following determines the frequency of the decaying oscillations?

A

The acceleration due to gravity sets the frequency of a simple pendulum, and so it determines the response time to equilibrate an inverted pendulum.

288
Q

What is the force of gravity exerted on the box?

A

40 N

[The fact that there are strings does not affect the calculation for the force of gravity on the box]

289
Q

What is the magnitude of the Tension in String B?

A
  • ∑F = ma​
    • Ty – mg = 0
    • Ty = 40N ∴ …
  • Ty = Tsin(30°)
    • T = Ty / sin(30°)
    • T = 40N / sin(30°)
290
Q

The graph shown below is for a trial where the copper mass rides in the elevator from the bottom floor to the top floor. The elevator starts from rest, gets up to speed, travels upwards with constant speed, then slows down and stops at the top floor.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the elevator between times t = 2sec and t = 3sec?

A
  • ∑F = ma​
    • FSCALE ​– mg = ma
    • 400N – 300N = 30(a)
    • a = 3.3m/s2
291
Q

The graph shown below is for a trial where the copper mass rides in the elevator from the bottom floor to the top floor. The elevator starts from rest, gets up to speed, travels upwards with constant speed, then slows down and stops at the top floor.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the elevator between times t = 8 sec and t = 9 sec?

A
  • ∑F = ma​
    • FSCALE ​+ mg = ma
    • 250N – 300N = 30(a)
    • a = | -1.7 m/s2 | —» a = 1.7 m/s2
292
Q
A
  • Since the object is placed in front of the diverging lens, it has no effect on the image.
  • The object is placed within the focal length of the converging lens.
  • Since the object is placed inside the focal length of the converging lens, the image will be virtual and to the left of point D.
293
Q

What is the formula and units for the strength of a lens?

A
  • Lens Power (P): P = 1/f
    • ​f: focal length
  • Units: m-1 = Diopeter (D)
294
Q
A
295
Q
  1. What is the value of angle θ5?
  2. The student now wants to change the lab set up to observe a total internal reflection event. Which of the following would increase the likelihood of seeing a total internal reflection event?
    1. Increase Ø1
    2. Decrease Ø4
    3. Decrease Ø5
    4. Increase Ø3
  3. Which of the following expressions is equal to the critical angle required for observing a total internal reflection event using this prism surrounded by air?
A
  1. Remember to measure all angles from the normal line
  • The angle in the prism from the normal line = (90 - θ4)
  • n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2 ————»»» np(90°-Ø4) = sinØ5
    • Ø5 = sin-1[npsin(90-Ø4)]
  1. Total internal reflection only happens when light would refract into a faster material
    1. Decrease Ø4
  2. Total internal reflection first happens when the refracted angle is 90°
    • Use Snell’s Law with and set the refracted angle equal to 90∘∘
    • n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2 ————»»» npsin(ØC) = sin90°
      • ØC = sin-1(1/np)
296
Q

If one were to increase the temperature of the air in the tube, how would that affect the fundamental resonant frequency observed in the tube?

A
  • The speed of sound increases in hotter air
  • The fundamental wavelength would stay the same, since the length of the tube is not changing
  • Since f=v/λ and v increases and λ stays the same
    • The fundamental resonant frequency in the tube would increase, since the speed of sound would increase in hotter air
297
Q

Based on the capped tube model of the ear, which of the following features would one expect to observe at 120001200012000 Hz if the equal-loudness chart was extended to that point?

A
  • Capped tubes have multiple resonance frequencies.
  • On the graph, a resonance is responsible for the minimum in the 1000-5000 Hz region on each of the equal-loudness curves
  • The higher-order resonant frequencies are given by integer multiples of the fundamental frequency
    • Thus 4000×3Hz = 12000Hz should represent a resonant frequency for the tube
    • The capped tube model would predict an additional loudness-curve minimum at 12000 Hz.
298
Q

Which of the following expressions can be used to find the pH of a 0.15 M aqueous solution of sodium lactate at 25oostart superscript, o, end superscriptC?

A
299
Q

How will the equilibrium ratio of lactate to lactic acid ([C3H5O3-]/[HC3H5O3]) be affected by post-mortem pH changes?

A
300
Q

What are the equivalent units for mOsmol/kg:

  • mole per volume?
  • mass per volume?
  • equivalents per volume?
A
  1. n: number of dissociable particles per molecule
    • Ex: NaCl —» n=2
301
Q

Before performing the titration represented by the graph in Figure 1, a chemist will add a drop of another weak acid that has a pKa of around 8. What is the likely reason for the addition of this weak acid?

A
302
Q
  1. The speed of the water flowing out of the hole is given by which expression?
  2. If while the water was flowing someone were to place an airtight cover over the top of the container, what would they likely see and why?
  3. If the open top tank experiment were repeated, but a liquid of a larger density than water (but the same viscosity of water) were used, what would be seen to happen?
  4. If someone were to take the tank off of the table while the water is flowing out, and drop the entire tank allowing it to free fall downwards, what would be seen to happen to the water flowing out of the hole?
A
  1. √2gD
  2. The water would at first flow the same but soon stop flowing out of the tank since the dropping water level would create a partial vacuum above the water in the tank
  3. The density can be divided out of the equation:
  • ρgh1 + ½ ρv12 = ρgh2 + ½ρv22
  • the density does not matter, which means it would flow at the same rate as the water.
  • The weight is greater, but the inertia is also greater, and those effect cancel each other out.
  1. Since the freely falling water does not exert any force on the water below it, it is effectively weightless and the water would not flow out of the hole
303
Q

What would be the correct ranking of the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules of the gases based on how they are labeled?

A

KEKrypton​ > KEXenon > KEArgon > KEHelium

304
Q

Based on how the canisters are labeled, how would you rank the heat capacities of the gases at constant volume Cv?

A

Cv Argon > Cv Helium > Cv Xenon > Cv Krypton

305
Q
  1. Which area of the graph would be equal to the amount of work done to the system after systole?
  2. From step 4 to step 1, no work is being done either to or by the system. What type of thermodynamic process would this be?
A
  1. The area underneath curve 1-2 is representative of the work put into the system
  2. Because volume is being held constant as pressure changes, the process from 4 to 1 is an isochoric process (also known as a constant-volume process, an isovolumetric process, or an isometric process)
306
Q
  1. An ________ ___________ is a thermodynamic process that involves maintaining a constant entropy, that is, no heat is lost from the system during the process.
  2. Would the cardiac cycle be considered a/an ________ ___________?
A
  1. Adiabatic Process
  2. No —» Energy will be lost as heat during muscle contraction due to the metabolic processes involved in fueling cardiac tissue.
307
Q

Charles’s law

A
  • Volume —» metric units (i.e. cm3)
  • Temperature —» Kelvin (K)
308
Q

How can an experimentally observed volume of < 20π cm3 at -15oC be explained?

A

The gas condenses to liquid at a temperature slightly greater than -15°C.

309
Q
A
310
Q
A
311
Q

What causes duplex DNA with a certain (A + T):(G + C) ratio to melt at a higher temperature than comparable length duplex DNA with a greater (A + T):(G + C) ratio?

A

Increased π- stacking strength

312
Q

where does reduction nd oxidatino occur at the anode and cathode?

A

“Red Cat” = REDuction occurs at the CAThode and “An Ox” = OXidation occurs at the Anode

313
Q

what type of bond is this

A

coordinate covalent

314
Q
A
315
Q
A
316
Q

64 - 20

74 - 40

A

D. 100

317
Q

focal length = -50cm

A

Solution: The correct answer is D.

This is a Physics question that falls under the content category “How light and sound interact with matter.” The answer to this question is D because the lenses have a negative focal length which means they are diverging lenses. Such lenses form virtual and reduced images of objects situated at distances larger than the focal length. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because the question requires identifying the relationships among closely related concepts.

318
Q
A