ChemPath Flashcards

(141 cards)

1
Q

What are atherosclerotic plaques made up of?

A

necrotic core of cholesterol crystals
surrounded by foam cells
topped with a fibrous cap

  • Foam cells = macrophages full of cholesterol ester
  • Cholesterol crystals = macrophages dying, releasing enzymes which hydrolyse the cholesterol esters  free cholesterol  crystalise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

• Lipoproteins in order of density:

A

Chylomicron < FFA < VLDL < IDL < LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

main carrier of cholesterol in the fasted state

main carrier of TG in the fasted state

HDL carries cholesterol from

A

LDL
carries cholesterol from liver to periphery / bad cholesterol

VLDL

HLD - the periphery to the liver / good cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Transporter of cholesterol

across intestinal border
back into the lumen of the intestine

A

NPC1L1

ABCG5
ABCG8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

enzyme involved in hydrolysis of cholesterol to bile acids

A

7a hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

enzyme involved in cholesterol esterification

A

ACAT (cholesterol acetyltransferase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does VLDL consist of

A

cholesterol ester
apoB
TG

transfer protein MTP is very important in this packaging process]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

function of CEPT (cholesteryl ester transfer protein)

A
  • Mediates movement of cholesterol ester from HDL  VLDL/LDL
  • Mediates movement of TG from VLDL/LDL  HDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which protein mediates movement of free cholesterol from peripheral cells to HDL?

A

ABCA1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Biggest to smallest lipoproteins

A

chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Triglyceride transport + metabolism

A

• Main source of exogenous triglycerides: small intestine (diet) [from intestine to liver to plasma and then back again]

o Fatty foods get hydrolysed in the small intestine broken down to fatty acids  resynthesized into TG  transported via chylomicrons to the plasma

o Chylomicrons are hydrolysed by the LPL (lipoprotein lipase, present in capillaries, particularly in relation to muscles)  free fatty acids

o Free fatty acids are partly taken up by the liver + also partly taken up by adipose tissue

o Liver resynthesises the free fatty acids into triglycerides + exports them as VLDL

o VLDL is acted upon by LPL and hydrolysed to free fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is phytosterolaemia

A

AR

high plant sterols in plasma

Due to
ABCG5
ABCG8 mutations

Normally the main function of these enzymes is to prevent the absorption of plant sterols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is familial hyperalpha liporoteinaemia

A

Inherited increases in HDL

Associated with longeivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mode of inheritance of familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

AD
50% expression in heterozygous
100% expression in homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the function of the PCSK9 mutation in familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

 PCSK9 – least common cause of familial hypercholesterolaemia, gain of function mutation

  • Chaperone protein – Function is to bind to LDL receptor on the surface of the liver and promote its degradation
  • gain of function mutations of PCSK9  increased rate of degradation of LDL receptors
  • Loss of function mutations of PCSK associated with low LDL levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the 3 types of primary hypertriglyceridemia/ hyperlipidaemia

A

• Familial type I
LPL (lipoprotein lipase) or apoC II deficiency
o ApoC II = activates LPL
o LPL = degrades chylomicrons => less breakdown of chylomicrons
o Eruptive xanthomas on the skin
o High chylomicrons

  • Familial type IV:  synthesis of TG, majority VLDLs
  • Familial type V: apoA V deficiency (more severe form of Familial type IV), majority VLDLs + some chylomicrons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Simple test to differentiate between type I and type IV hyperlipidaemia

A

Fridge test

after blood left overnight in fridge

type I –> chylomicrons will flow to the top and form a cream

Type IV –> cream doesnt float to the top (just the plasma) as VLDL particles dont float just by letting it stand overnight

((Type I - high chylomicrons, Type IV - high VLDLs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presentation of familial combined hyperlipidaemia

A

o In a family  some people with high cholesterol + some people with high triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Presentation of Familial dysβlipoproteinaemia (type III hyperlipoproteinemia)

A

o ApoE2 polymorphism – presence of ApoE 2/2 in homozygous form

o Diagnostic sign = yellow palmar crease, eruptive xanthomas on elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Tangier disease

A

o Enlarged orange tonsils in children, peripheral neuropathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
o Low HDL
o  risk of CVD
o HDL deficiency caused by ABC AI mutations (mediating the movement of cholesterol from peripheral cells onto HDL)  prevention of release of cholesterol + lipids  accumulation in certain organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ab lipoproteinaemia mutation

A

o Low levels of cholesterol (particularly VLDL, LDL)
o Recessive: therefore parents will have normal lipid levels
o AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOA of

statin
fibrates (e.g. gemfibrozil)
ezetimibe
cholestyramine

A

• Statins (e.g. atorvastatin)
o HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
o Reduces intrinsic synthesis of cholesterol in liver

  • Fibrates (e.g. gemfibrozil)  raise HDL, very good at reducing triglycerides
  • Ezetimibe  reduces LDL levels  absorption blocker  blocks NPC1L1 which mediates the transport of cholesterol across the intestine
  • Cholestyramine  binds bile acids  bile acids can’t be reabsorbed  no negative feedback to the liver  liver makes more bile-acids  cholesterol drops (bile acids are made from cholesterol)  catabolism of cholesterol in the liver stimulated  reduction in LDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Novel forms of LDL-lowering therapy

A

• Microsomal Triglyceride Transfer protein (MTP) inhibitor
o Inhibition of MTP) blockage of release of VLDL from the liver  reduced LDL levels
o Deficiency of MTP gives rise to αβ-lipoproteinemia
o Lomitapide – replicates αβ-lipoproteinemia

• Anti-PCSK9 monoclonal antibody
o Evolocumab

• Anti-sense apoB oligonucleotide
o Mipomersen
o Prevents the synthesis of apoB
o Reduces synthesis of LDL, lipoprotein a

• Apolipoprotein A-I/A-1 mimetic infusion therapy
o HDL based therapy

• CETP inhibitory
o HDL-based therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which procedures reduce the HbA1c the most?

A

Biliopancreatic division > gastric bypass > medical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Bariatric surgery
o Gastric banding o Roux-en-y gastric bypass – distal part of the jejunum has been anastomosed to the reduced size of the stomach – part 1 is not absorbing anything because the bile acids and pancreatic enzymes that mediate absorption are coming in lower down o Biliopancreatic diversion – reduced size of stomach, a lot of jejunum is no longer in circuit (no food goes through that part), only terminal ileum (3) is absorbing – this is where the bile acids + pancreatic enzymes come in
26
What can you add in the medications of patients to bring their BP down to normal?
Thiazide diuretic
27
• First line management of hyperlipidaemia
• First line management of hyperlipidaemia is always conservative o Dietary modification (although dietary intake of cholesterol correlates poorly with actual TG levels) o Exercise
28
• Statin-intolerant patients mx
``` o Ezetimibe ( absorption – block NPC1L1) o Evolocumab (PCSK9 monoclonal antibody) – inhibits the action of PCSK9 o Plasma exchange ```
29
How does the PCSK9 antibody work
o PCSK9 binds LDLR + promotes its degradation o PCSK9 binds to LDLR on hepatocytes + encourages endocytosis + lysosomal degradation of the LDLR  less LDL taken up in the liver o Inhibiting PCSK9  more LDLRs on hepatocytes  take up LDL  lower levels of LDL in the plasma  reduce risk of atherosclerosis o Gain-function mutations  reduce LDL-R on liver  increased plasma LDL o Loss-function mutations  increase LDL-R on liver  decreased plasma LDL o You want to inhibit PCSK9
30
What did the DCCT study show?
DCCT - T1DM, good control improves outcome
31
What did the UKPDS study show?
UKDPS - new T2DM put into good control low mortality in both groups for 15 years but then good control improved outcome = the legacy effect
32
What did the accord study show?
o Sudden aggressive glucose control can increase mortality  arrhythmia, tachycardia, sudden onset VF (?hypoglycaemia properly)  death
33
MOA of SGLT2 inhibitors and give examples
* SGLT2 – makes you resorb glucose * Block the Na+/glucose co-transporter in the kidneys  pee out more glucose * Osmotic diuresis  Reduce glucose re-uptake in kidneys + lower BP * Increased risk of DKA (while taking it or shortly after stopping it), UTIs * Show reduction in mortality after only 4 years * Empagliflozin * Canagliflozin * Dapagliflozin
34
Empagliflozin - summary of actions
o Summary: bring down HbA1c, protect kidneys/renal failure, treat HF
35
GLP-1 analogues
o Exenatide - increased hypothalamic satiety o Liraglutide - can also reduce weight, hospitalisations for HF, CV deaths, MIs, strokes • GLP-1 secreted from gut L-cells + signals pancreas to make insulin o Direct effect on appetite + gastric emptying
36
DDP4 inhibitors
DDP4 break down GLP-1 DDP4 inhibitors = gliptins
37
T2DM mx Only continue GLP-1 mimetic therapy if the person has a beneficial metabolic response:
o A reduction of HbA1c by at least 11 mmol/mol [1.0%] and | o A weight loss of at least 3% of initial body weight in 6 months
38
• Which one is better? o Metformin + DPP4 inhibitor o Metformin + SGLT2 inhibitor o Metformin + GLP-1-R agonist
o Metformin + SGLT2 inhibitor o Metformin + GLP-1-R agonist associated with better outcomes
39
Acarbose MOA
Acarbose MOA • Inhibits α-glucosidase at the bowel wall  prevention of glucose absorption • Undigested sugar  flatulence
40
Sulphonylureas MOA
• Inhibit ATP sensitive K+ channels on beta cells  depolarisation of cell  Ca2+ entry  insulin release • Risk of hypoglycaemia • E.g. gliclazide, glibenclamide o Gliclazide can lead to weight gain
41
With pioglitazone, there is increased risk of
HF, bladder cancer bone fracture ``` • Do not offer pioglitazone if pt have any of the following o HF or hx of HF o Hepatic impairment o DKA o Current or hx of bladder cancer o Uninvestigated macroscopic haematuria ```
42
How does ADH work?
o Synthesised in hypothalamus o Secreted by posterior pituitary o Acts on V2 receptors in collecting duct (distal tubules) in the kidney o Water retention through insertion of AQA2 (aquaporin 2)
43
Causes of high normal low serum osmolarity in hyponatraemia
o High serum osmolality – glucose/mannitol infusion  Osmotically active solutes draw water from cells into the plasma  dilution of sodium  This is a true hyponatraemia o Normal serum osmolality – spurious, drip arm sample, pseudohyponatremia (hyperlipidaemia/paraproteinemia e.g. MM) o Low serum osmolality – true hyponatraemia
44
Stimuli for ADH secretion
o Raised serum osmolality – hypothalamic osmoreceptors  ADH release + thirst o Low BP/volume – baroreceptors in carotids, atria, aorta  ADH release
45
ADH vs Aldosterone
ADH only resorbs water not sodium  Hyponatraemia Aldosterone reabsorbs both salt/Na and water
46
Most reliable indicator of hypovolaemia
o Low urine Na+ (<20) [most reliable indicator of hypovolaemia]  RAAS  hypovolaemic  low BP  aldosterone release  Na+/water retention  low urine Na+  If you suspect hyponatremia check urine Na+ immediately before other interventions  If a patient is on diuretics you can’t determine urine sodium  it will be high because of the diuretics
47
Cause of hyponatraemia in a hypovolaemic patient  Urine Na+ <20  Urine Na+ >20
 Urine Na+ <20 – non-renal • D+V, excess sweating, third space loss (Ascites, burns)  Urine Na+ >20 – cause is renal • Diuretics/Addison’s disease(low aldosterone)/salt losing nephropathies (kidney failing to reabsorb sodium so water is lost as well)
48
Euvolaemic hyponatraemia plasma osmolarity urine osmolarity urine sodium causes
low plasma osmolarity high urine osmolarity high urine sodium (>100) Hypothyroidism - TFTs Adrenal insufficiency - short synACTHen test SIADH - low plasma osmolarity, high urine osmolarity
49
Hypervolaemic hyponatraemia  Urine Na+ <20  Urine Na+ >20
 Urine Na+ <20 – non-renal cause • CF, cirrhosis, inappropriate IVF, TURP  Urine Na+ >20 – renal cause • Renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, AKI, CKD
50
Causes of hyponatraemia in a hypervolaemic patient
HF Cirrhosis Renal failure
51
Volume status Plasma osmolality urine osmolarity in SIADH
Euvolemic low plasma osmolality high urine osmolarity
52
SIADH mx
• Fluid restriction + treat the cause • Demeclocycline  induces nephrogenic diabetes insipidus o Decreased responsiveness of collecting tubule cells to ADH o Monitor U+Es  risk of nephrotoxicity • Tolvaptan – V2 receptor antagonist
53
Risk of increasing Na + too quickly
central pontine myelinolysis o Serum sodium must not increase >8-10mmol/L in the first 24h o If the sodium has done up too quickly you need to bring it down again  dextrose and desmopressin o Quadriplegia, dysarthria, seizures, coma, death o Pseudobulbar palsy, paraparesis, locked in syndrome
54
Causes of high sodium
* Medical high intake – hypertonic saline, sodium bicarbonate * Dietary high intake – salty infant formula, high dietary salt * Conn’s syndrome – high aldosterone : renin ratio * Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia – high aldosterone : renin ratio * Renal artery stenosis – low GFR from RAS  low BP at JGA   renin  high aldosterone * Cushing’s syndrome – overactivation of mineralocorticoid receptor by cortisol  aldosterone-like effects
55
What kind of hypernatraemia does diabetes insipidus cause?
Hypovolaemic hypernatraemia Patient is clinically euvolemic
56
What investigations would you order in a patient with suspected diabetes insipidus?
What investigations would you order in a patient with suspected diabetes insipidus? ``` Serum glucose (exclude diabetes mellitus) Serum potassium (exclude hypokalaemia) Serum calcium (exclude hypercalcaemia) ``` can cause resistance to ADH, effectively causing a “nephrogenic” diabetes insipidus which can easily be treated by correcting these biochemical abnormalities Plasma & urine osmolality - High plasma osmolality - Low urine osmolality (vs psychogenic polydipsia where plasma osmolality would be low) Water deprivation test o 8h deprivation test o Normal  urine concentration increases >600 mOsmol/kg o Primary polydipsia  urine concentrates >400-600 mOsmol/kg o Cranial DI  urine concentrates only after administration of desmopressin o Nephrogenic DI  urine does not concentrate even after administration of desmopressin
57
Mx of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Thiazide diuretics
58
Complication of rapid correction of hypernatraeia
cerebral oedema
59
Mx of hypernatremia hypovolemia
hypernatremia- 5% dextrose hypovolemia - 0.9% saline serum Na + measurements every 4-6h
60
What are the effects of diabetes mellitus on serum sodium?
Variable Hyperglycaemia draws water out of the cells leading to hyponatraemia Osmotic diuresis in uncontrolled diabetes leads to loss of water and hypernatraemia
61
How do we calculate corrected serum calcium and why is it useful?
corrected ca = Serum Ca + 0.02 x (40- serum albumin (g/l)) example: ○ Albumin = 30, total Ca = 2.2 mM ○ corrected ca = 2.2 + 0.2 x 10 = 2.4 mM ○ Corrected ca shows if the problem is albumin ○ If albumin is 40 (normal value), then the total serum calcium = corrected calcium ○ Therefore if corrected calcium is different than total serum calcium, the problem is the albumin and that the ionised calcium will also be normal
62
PTH absorbs Ca from 3 sources
○ Bone ○ Gut - absorption (indirect – PTH activates 1α hydroxylate in the kidney 🡪 production of calcitriol (1,25 OH vitamin D) 🡪 calcitriol promotes Ca absorption through the gut) ○ Kidney - reabsorption + activation of 1α hydroxylase
63
PTH effect on kidney
○ Increased Ca2+ resorption ○ Increased phosphate excretion ○ Stimulation of synthesis of 1α hydroxylase
64
1,25 hydroxycholecacliferol effect on small intestine kidneys bone
● Small intestine ○ Ca absorption ○ Phosphate absorption ● Kidneys ○ Increases Ca absorption ● Bone - minor effect, stimulates osteoblasts (critical for bone formation)
65
Vitamin D3 inactive, stored, measured form physiologically active form
inactive, stored, measured form ● 25 (OH) D3 physiologically active form ● 1,25 (OH)2 D3
66
Precursor of cholecalciferol
UBV: 7-dehydrocholesterol → cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) therefore vitamin D3 is synthesised in the skin
67
Rate limiting step of vit D3 activation
1a hydroxylase activated by PTH
68
seasonal hypercalcaemia
feature of sarcoid - sarcoid tissue can sometimes express 1a hydroxylase ● in sunlight → more vitamin D activation → Calcium goes up
69
PTH in pregnancy
Low ● Placenta + Breast milk make PTHrP → baby steals calcium from mother to build his skeleton
70
What is FHH/FBH
● Familial hypocalciuric/benign hypercalcaemia (FHH/FBH) ○ CaSR mutation - sensors do not recognize the high calcium ○ High calcium ○ High set point for PTH release suppression → mild hypercalcaemia ○ Reduced urine Ca2+ ○ DDx: Primary HPT
71
Commonest cause of hypercalcaemia
Primary hyperparathyroidism parathyroid adenoma> parathyroid hyperplasia > parathyroid carcinoma high Ca High urinary Ca High/N PTH Low PO43-
72
Ca and phosphate in secondary hyperparathyroidism
Low/N ca | High PO43-
73
DEXA scan values
○ Measures bone density ○ Hip (NOF etc) + Lumbar spine ○ T-score - SD from mean of young healthy population (useful to determine # risk) ○ Z-score - SD from mean of aged-matched control (useful to identify accelerated bone loss in younger patients) ○ Osteoporosis = T-score T > -2.5 (between -1 and -2.5) osteopenia is the stage before osteoporosis)
74
Osteoporosis mx
``` Tx Lifestyle ● weight-bearing exericse ● stop smoking ● reduce EtOH ``` Drugs ● Vitamin D/Ca ● Alendronate (bisphosphonate) ○ Decrease bone resorption ○ osteonecrosis of the jaw ● Teriparatide ○ PTH derivative ○ Anabolic ● Strontium ○ anti-resorptive ○ Anabolic ● Oestrogens ○ HRT ● Raloxifene ○ SERMs ○ (oestrogen like drugs) ● Denosumab ○ Biologic anti-RANK-L antibody
75
Osteomalacia in adults findings
Low [Ca] Low [PO43-] High [ALP] ``` Mature skeleton Looser’s zones Codfish vertebrae Bending deformities Osteopenia ```
76
Osteomalacia in adults findings
``` Low [25-OH cholecalciferol] Low [Ca] Low [PO43-] High [ALP] High [PTH] High urine phosphate ``` Bowed legs (rickets) Costochondral swelling (rickety rosary) Widened epiphyses at the wrists Myopathy
77
Pagets disease findings
Normal [Ca] Normal [PO43-] High [ALP] ``` Focal pain Warmth - increased vascularisation Bone Deformity great thickening of the bones of the skull with demineralisation Fracture (spontaneous) Arthritis Cardiac failure Spinal cord compression (blindness, deafness) ```
78
Pagets disease ix and management
Nuclear med scan scan Bisphosphonates for pain
79
``` Which has the lowest calcium? Primary hyperparathyroidism Secondary hyperparathyroidism Osteoporosis Pagets disease of the bone Breast cancer ```
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
80
renal osteodystrophy findings
Low [Ca2+] High [PO43-] High [ALP] Consequence of CKD Due to secondary hyperparathyroidism + aluminium retention from dialysis fluid ``` Increased bone resorption (osteitis fibrosa cystica) Osteomalacia Osteoporosis Osteosclerosis Growth retardation ``` Subperiosteal bone erosions Brown tumours Sclerosis – axial skeleton/vertebral end plates giving a rugger jersey spine Soft tissue calcification (arteries/cartilage)
81
Hypercalcaemia of malignancy biochemistry
High [Ca] High [PO43-] High [ALP] Low [PTH] - appropriate
82
What causes osteitis fibrosa cystica?
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
83
What kind of hyperparathyroidism is parathyroid bone disease renal bone disease
Parathyroid bone disease – primary PTH | Renal bone disease – secondary PTH
84
What is a risk of CKD causing secondary hyperparathyroidism?
can progress to tertiary hyperparathyroidism where there is autonomous PTH secretion despite normal Ca levels  Initial chronic low plasma [Ca], parathyroid gland stimulated for a long time  PTH becomes autonomous, stops responding to –ve feedback (similar primary hyperparathyroidism)
85
Calcium in osteoporosis will be
Normal
86
Which is the most abundant intracellular ion
K+
87
Angiotensinogen (in the liver) --> angiotensin I
``` by renin (from JGA) in the liver ```
88
Angiotensin I --> Angiotensin II
``` by ACE (from lungs) in the lungs ``` stimulates release of aldosterone from adrenal glands
89
Triggers for renin release
Low BP | Low Na+ in the macula densa by JGA
90
Triggers for aldosterone release
Angiotensin II | High K+
91
Where does aldosterone act?
on the cortical collecting tubule cells
92
How does aldosterone work
Increases number of Na channels on luminal membrane Increases sodium resorption This makes the lumen electronegative + creates an electrical gradient K+ is secreted into the lumen
93
Na + K channel names
ENaC (Epithelial sodium channels) - Na resorption ROMK (renal outer medullary potassium) - K excretion
94
How does aldosterone increase the number of Na channels on luminal membrane
Though Nedd4* Binds on the MR receptor upregulated sgk-1 Nedd 4 phosphorylation + inhibition --> decreased degradation of sodium channels *Nedd4 usually degrades Na channels
95
How does acidosis affect K+ levels?
Causes hyperkalaemia
96
Medications that cause hyperkalaemia
ACEi ARBs Spironolactone NSAIDs (block renin)
97
In general, what causes hyperkalaemia
Anything that opposes the action of aldosterone Reduced GFR Reduced renin (T4TA (diabetic nephropathy), NSAIDs) ACEi ARB Addison's disease Aldosterone antagonists e.g. K+ sparring diuretics K+ release from cells - rhabdomyolysis, acidosis, insulin shortage in DKA
98
Hyperkalaemia mx
10ml 10% calcium gluconate 50ml 50% dextrose + 10 IU insulin Nebulised salbutamol Treat underlying cause
99
How do diuretics affect potassium?
Cause hypokalaemia o Triple or co-transporter is blocked  less Na+ absorbed in the ascending LoH  more goes to the distal nephron/DCT  Loop diuretics (furosemide)  block triple transporter Na+/K+/Cl- in the AL of the LoH • Bartter syndrome is a mutation in this channel  Thiazide diuretics (Bendroflumethiazide)  block co-transporter Na+/Cl- in the DCT • Gitelman syndrome is a mutation in this channel o More Na+ reaches + is absorbed in the DCT  more electronegative nephron o loss of K+ down the electrochemical gradient through ROMK channels in the cortical collecting tubule cells
100
2 diuretics that cause hypokalaemia
``` Thiazide diuretics (block Na/Cl co transporter) Loop diuretics (block Na/K/Cl transporter) ```
101
Which electrolyte abnormality can cause hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
102
Hypokalaemia + acid-base balance
• Hypokalaemia causes metabolic alkalosis o Hypokalaemia  shift of H+ into cells in exchange for K+ (H+/K+ anti-transporter)  metabolic alkalosis • Metabolic alkalosis causes hypokalaemia o Alkalosis  shift of K+ into cells in exchange for H+ (H+/K+ anti-transporter)  hypokalaemia
103
What can cause nephrogenic DI?
Hypokalaemia | Hypercalcaemia
104
Hypokalaemia mx
[K+] = 3.0-3.5 mmol/L  Oral KCl  2 SandK tablets, TDS, 48h  Recheck K+ o [K+] = <3.0mmol/L  IV KCl  Max rate – 10mmol/h • If rate >20mmol/h  irritate peripheral veins, risk of arrhythmia
105
renal tubular acidosis and potassium
T4 - hyperkalaemia T1, T2 - hypokalaemia
106
Hyponatraemia mx
* Hypovolemic hyponatremia  volume replacement with 0.9% saline + treat cause * Euvolemic hyponatremia  fluid restrict (500-750ml/day + Abx infusions) + treat underlying cause * Hypervolemic hyponatremia  fluid restrict (500-750ml/day + Abx infusions) + treat underlying cause, consider adding loop diuretic or spironolactone * Severe hyponatremia (lowGCS, seizures)  seek extra help + hypertonic 3% saline
107
Causes of hyperkalaemia
Renal impairment > drugs > Addison’s > release from cells
108
• Persistent HTN despite maximal HTN control ix
aldosterone: renin ratio (? Conn’s)
109
Hyponatraemia + hypokalaemia | Hyperkalaemia + hypernatremia
Hyponatraemia + hypokalaemia – furosemide | Hyperkalaemia + hypernatremia – DKA (insulin deficiency  hyperkalaemia, loss of water  hypernatremia)
110
Which hormones are released by TRH stimulation
TSH Prolactin Since TRH stimulates prolactin release: Primary Hypothyroidism  Hyperprolactinaemia
111
Prolactin 6000 600-6000
6000 prolactinoma 600-6000 non functioning pituitary adenoma
112
What is the combined pituitary function test and what is it being used for
Insulin + TRH + GnRH/LHRH used to ix anterior pituitary function + to see if the pituitary gland responds adequately to metabolic stress indications hypopituitarism prolactinoma Insulin Increase in GHRH --> Increase in GH Increase in CRT --> increase in ACTH --> increase in cortisol TRH Increase in TSH + T4 (hyperthyroidism - TSH remains suppressed, hypothyroidism - exaggerated response) Increase in prolactin GnRH Increase in LH + FSH
113
How low should the glucose go in CPFT?
Ensure adequate hypoglycaemia (<2.2 mM) if severe hypoglycaemia (<1.5mm) patient will get aggressive --> 50ml 20% glucose
114
What do you measure during CPFT
Glucose Cortisol GH TSH T4 Prolactin LH FSH every 30 mins Response everything >10 cortisol >550
115
Hormone replacement order of urgency
Hydrocortisone Thyroxine Oestrogen GH + give cabergoline or bromocriptine --> reduce prolactin
116
Acromegaly tests
IGF-1 Produced in the liver in response to GH OGTT GH should fall with glucose administration GH not used as pulsatile
117
Acromegaly mx
1. Transphenoidal surgery 2. Radiotherapy 3. Cabergoline 4. Somatostatin analogue (octreotide) cabergoline bc GH often co-secreted with prolactin
118
What can cause nephrogenic DI
Lithium Hypercalcaemia Renal failure
119
Osmolality equation
2(Na+K) + U + glucose mosm/kg Normal osmolality = 275-295 mosm/kg
120
Anion gap equation
Na+ K - Cl - HCO3 Normal anion gap = 16-20
121
* Marker of glucose control over last 3 weeks – | * Marker of glucose over the last 3 months
* Marker of glucose control over last 3 weeks – fructosamine (esp. useful in pregnant women) * Marker of glucose over the last 3 months – HbA1c
122
Osmolar gap
Measured osmolarity - calculated osmolarity
123
DKA vs HHS (hyperglycaemia hyperosmolar state) pH osmolarity
DKA ph <7.3 HHS ph >7.3 osmolarity HHS > DKA
124
What can metformin overdose lead to
Lactic acidosis Metabolic acidosis * The metabolic pathway by which lactate is produced by anaerobic glycolysis in the muscles * Lactate moves to the liver to be converted to glucose * Glucose returns to the muscle to be metabolised to lactate • Metformin o Inhibits lactate conversion to glucose in the liver o Can cause lactic acidosis because it inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis
125
Causes of high anion gap
Methanol Ethanol Lactate Ketones Metformin excess/ OD Normal anion gap = 16-20
126
Diabetes drugs that cause hypoglycaemia
Sulfonylureas - gliclazide, glibenclamide | Insulin
127
Diabetes drugs that cause weight gain
Sulfonylureas - gliclazide, glibenclamide Thiazolidinedione/Glitazones (pioglitazone) Insulin
128
Diabetes drugs that cause weight loss
SGLT2 inhibitor - empagliflozin GLP-1 agonist - exenatide, liraglutide
129
Diabetes drugs that dont change the weight
DDP4 inhibitor - gliptins (sitaglipin, vildagliptin) | Metformin (biguanide)
130
Blood drainage from the adrenal gland
o Left  drains to left renal vein | o Right  drains to IVC
131
What is Schmidt's syndrome?
Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome type II Addison's disease + Hypothyroidism
132
Commonest cause of Addison's disease in the UK Worldwide
UK - Autoimmune Worldwide - TB
133
What kind of tumour is phaeochromocytoma?
Adrenal medullary tumour Secretes adrenaline
134
Where are the tumours in Conn's syndrome and Cushing's syndrome found?
Conn's - tumour in granulosa secreting aldosterone Cushing's - tumour in fasciculata secreting cortisol
135
Why does cortisol act like aldosterone at high concentrations?
* At high concentrations, cortisol activates the mineralocorticoid receptors * 11b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase usually degrades cortisol to stop this happening but at a high concentration the enzyme is overwhelmed  HTN
136
Two commonest causes of Cushing's syndrome
Iatrogenic (1) Pituitary tumour (2) = Cushing's disease then adrenal adenoma (zona fasciculata) (3) then ectopic ACTH (4)
137
Next steps after a positive low dose dexamethasone test
IPSS (inferior petrosal sinus sampling) with CRH stimulation  IPSS has made he HDDST redundant and it is therefore no longer performed IPSS  Distinguishing from ectopic ACTH  Catheterise the pituitary veins  Measure prolactin to prove you’re in the pituitary  Measure ACTH every week  ACTH levels are sampled every week from the veins that drain the pituitary gland  These levels are then compared with the ACTH levels in the peripheral blood to determine whether a pituitary tumour as opposed to an ectopic source of ACTH is responsible for ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome
138
If the high dose dexamethasone suppression test was still being carried out what would it show
 If cortisol was suppressed with a higher dose of dexamethasone, then the cause of Cushing’s syndrome was pituitary dependent Cushing’s disease
139
OGTT – used to investigate 2 conditions 
DM (2 samples), acromegaly (5 samples, GH is suppressed by glucose)
140
Ectopic ACTH managment
Ketoconazole --> inhibits 17a hydroxylase activity => reduces cortisol production Metyrapone --> inhibits 11b hydroxylase Mifepristone --> glucocorticoid receptor antagonist
141
What is Nelson's syndrome?
 Hypopituitarism + pigmentation after an adrenalectomy Removal of adrenal leads to pituitary enlargement (stalk becomes compressed --> hypopituitarism) + increased ACTH release (pigmentation)