Haem 7 + 8 - Blood transfusion Flashcards

1
Q

what kind of antibodies are

anti-B, anti-A ab
Anti-D ab

A

anti-B, anti-A ab - IgM

Anti-D ab - IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kind of reaction do anti-D antibodies produce when they cross the placenta?

A

Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Group and screen vs full Xmatch

A

Group and screen – check ABO group and plasma antibodies in patient

Full crossmatch – checks patient’s blood against donor blood specifically
o If no antibodies present in the patient’s blood, a crossmatch is not needed
o if antibodies are present, always crossmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is the grouping of the RBC done?

A

both of the below are done and included in a “Group and Screen”:

o (1) Forward group – Use known anti-A, anti-B and anti-D reagents against the patient’s RBCs

o (2) Reverse group – known A and B groups red blood cells are mixed with the patient’s plasma (IgM antibodies)
 This group acts as an internal control – if it does not match, this is an anomalous result
 New-borns often have a weak reverse group as their antibodies have not developed fully yet

o Column agglutination technology
o Positive result = agglutination at the TOP
o Negative result = red cells stay suspended at the BOTTOM of the vial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Immune antibodies vs naturally occurring antibodies

A

o Immune antibodies are IgG
 Cause a delayed transfusion reaction
 Extravascular haemolysis

o Naturally occurring antibodies are IgM
 Cause an immediate intravascular haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you screen a patient’s plasma for antibodies against RBC

A

• Antibody screen on patient’s plasma
o (1) use 2 or 3 reagent RBCs containing all important RBC antigens between them
o (2) incubate patient’s plasma and screening cells using the Indirect Antiglobulin Technique (IAT)

Indirect Antiglobulin Technique (IAT)
 Patient serum containing specific antibody added to reagent RBCs
 IgG antibody can attack to RBC antigens
 Add Anti-Human Globulin (AHG) to promote agglutination between the IgG antibodies on the different RBC
 If +ve, reaction creates bridges between RBCs coated in IgG antibodies  visible clumps
 Takes 30 mins incubation at 37oC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two types of serological crossmatch and how are they carried?

A

• Serological crossmatching checks the blood against the donor’s blood specifically

o Full Crossmatch (uses IAT (Indirect antiglobulin technique)):
 Patient’s plasma is incubated with donor red cells at 37oC for 30-40 mins
 Detects antibody-antigen reaction that destroys the RBCs leading to extravascular haemolysis
 IgG antibodies bind to RBCs but do not crosslinking  add antiglobulin reagent to cause cross-linking
 Agglutination/haemolysis = incompatible

o Immediate Spin [emergency scenario only]:
 Saline, room temperature
 Incubate patient’s plasma and donor red cells for 5 minutes only and spin
 Will only detect ABO incompatibility
 IgM anti-A and/or anti-B bind to RBCs, fix complement and lyse the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the 3 pillars of patient blood management

A
•	Optimise haemopoiesis
o	Identify anaemia pre-surgery + treat
	IV/ PO iron – 1mg IV 
	B12 replacement – 1mg IM hydroxocobalamin 
	Folate replacement – 5mg PO
	EPO SC – preparation dependent 
o	Targets
	Ferritin 100ug/L
	TSATs 25-30%
	B12 >350 ng/L
	Serum folate >5 ug/L
•	Minimise blood loss and bleeding
o	Stop anticoagulation/antiplatelet agents
o	Tranexamic acid – 1mg PO/IV
o	Blood sparing techniques
o	Call salvage
o	Prevent wastage 

• Harness and optimise physiological tolerance of anaemia
o Optimise cardiac output
o Restrictive transfusion threshold for patients who are fit and healthy (Hb <80g/L)

• (avoid hypothermia, DIC/coagulopathy, electrolyte imbalance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which blood components need to be matched for both ABO + D?

Which blood components need to be matched only for ABO?

A

ABO + D
RBC
Plt

Only ABO
FFP
Cryoprecipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Storage of

RBC
Plt
FFP
Cryoprecipitate

A

RBC
4C for 35 days
if outside of fridge for >30min goes to the bin – worried about bacterial contamination
Complete transfusion should take place within 4h of leaving the fridge

Plt
20C (room temperature) for 7 days
Screened for bacteria before release
Transfuse over 20 mins

FFP
Frozen (-25C)
Once thawed can be kept at 4C for 24 hours

Cryoprecipitate
Frozen
Once thawed has to be kept at room temperature and use within 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should happen if a patient develops temperature during a plt transfusion?

A

?bacterial contamination of platelets

stop the platelets
take blood cultures

send platelets back to the lab for microbiological testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most likely cause if a patient reacts when FFP/cryoprecipitate is being transfused?

A

• A reaction with plasma is more likely to be allergic as plasma is frozen and so is unlikely to be contaminated by microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RBC transfusion

What should happen before?
How often should Hb levels be checked?
By how much g/l does 1 unit of RBC raise Hb?

A

• Treat iron/folate/b12 deficiency first unless active bleeding

• Check Hb
o Pre-transfusion
o After every 1-2 units

• 1 unit RBC = Hb increment of 10g/L in a 70-80 kg patent (if the patient is not haemolysing)
o Only transfuse one unit at a time unless active bleeding
o Can be transfused “stat” but routinely would be 2-3h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hb targets in RBC transfusion depended patients

A

 70 g/l if asymptomatic, 80 g/l if symptomatic

o Higher threshold of up to 90-100 g/l for patients with CHD

o Transfusion to >100g/L rarely required unless
 Symptomatic (IHD, SOB, ECG changes)
 Severe cardiac/respiratory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Triggers for the following RBC transfusion indicators

Major blood loss
Pre-op, Critical care
Post chemo

A

Major blood loss
>30% of blood volume lost

Pre-op, Critical care
<70 or 80 g/l depending on co-morbidities

Post chemo
<80 g/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Plt transfusion

By how much does 1 unit of plt raise plt count?

A

• 1 unit of platelets in an adult treatment dose  usually raises platelet count by 30-40 x 109/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Plt transfusion contraindications

A
o	HITT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia with thrombosis) – patients who have had a clot on UFH
o	TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Triggers for the following plt transfusion indicators

Massive transfusion
Prevent bleeding (surgery)
Prevent bleeding (post-chemo)
Platelet dysfunction or immune cause
Reduced platelet production (e.g. leukaemia

Platelet dysfunction can be caused by drugs (e.g. aspirin, clopidogrel)
)

A

Massive transfusion
Aim plt >75 x 10^9/L

Prevent bleeding (surgery)
<50 x 10^9/L
<100 x 10^9/L - if critical site - eye, CNS, polytrauma

Prevent bleeding (post-chemo)
<10 x 10^9/L
<20 x 10^9/L if sepsis

Platelet dysfunction or immune cause
Reduced platelet production (e.g. leukaemia
Only if active bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FFP

What should happen before?
When should FFP be transfused?
Adult dose
when and how do you assess the effectiveness of the transfusion?

A
  • consider using vitamin K first if appropriate
  • Do not use unless patient is bleeding or undergoing a procedure e.g. surgery

Adult dose - 15-20 ml/kg

• Reassess after administration by measuring coagulation parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does FFP consist of?

A

Contains all the clotting factors

21
Q

FFP indications

A

Massive transfusion
Aim to maintain PT and APTT ratio at <1.5
Early infusion of FFP is recommended to treat coagulopathy

Liver disease
PT ratio >1.5

Replacement of a single coagulation factor deficiency e.g. factor V

DIC
In the presence of bleeding, abnormal coagulation results, or if the patient needs a procedure

TTP – thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

22
Q

Treatment of choice for reversal of warfarin

A

PCC (F 2, 7, 9, 10)

Prothrombin complex concentrate

23
Q

What is cryoprecipitate

Adult dose
children dose
transfusion indications

A
Fibrinogen + 
Fibronectin 
F8, F13, VWF
plt microparticles
IgA Albumin

essentially raising fibrinogen by 1g/L

  • Adult dose – 15-20ml/kg – 2 pools (10 donors)
  • Children dose – 5-10 mls/kg
- Bleeding associated with hypofibrinogenemia 
Fibrinogen <1g/litre
Seen in
Liver disease
DIC
  • Dysfibrinogenemia
24
Q

Indications for

CMV negative blood -
Irradiated blood
Washed red cells and platelets

A

CMV negative blood - only required for intra-uterine /neonatal transfusions and
for elective transfusion in pregnant women (baby in-utero is exposed to maternal
transfusion)

• Irradiated blood - highly immunosuppressed patients, who cannot
destroy incoming donor lymphocytes: which can cause (fatal) transfusion
associated graft versus host disease (TA-GvHD)

• given to patients who have severe allergic
reactions to some donors’ plasma proteins

25
Q

A- RBC can be given to

A

A-
A+
AB-
AB+

26
Q

Major haemorrhage mx

A
  • 1g tranexamic acid (except in GI bleeds – no benefit)
  • O -ve blood

• Use plasma products first/early
o Best use of blood : FFP is 1:1
o Early use of cryoprecipitate + platelets is recommended to prevent coagulopathy

  • Send x2 transfusion samples ASAP so group specific blood can be issued
  • Consider use of fibrinogen concentrate 50mg/kg if >4 units of blood transfused
27
Q

Commonest blood type

A

O+

28
Q

Indications for O+ emergency transfusion

A

emergency for females >50 years of age and for most males >18 years of age

29
Q

Indications for O- emergency transfusion

A
  • Given to patients of childbearing potential

* Given to patients who can only have O- blood

30
Q

How often do you monitor a patient during a transfusion for an acute transfusion reaction?

A

 Baseline temperature, pulse, RR, BP before transfusion
 Repeat after 15 mins (most reactions start within 15 mins)
 Repeat hourly
 Repeat at the end of the transfusion

0m  15m  1hr  1hr…  end

31
Q

Describe Febrile Non-Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction (FNHTR)

A

Mild/Moderate
• Occurs during/soon after transfusion (blood or platelets)
• Rise in temperature by around 1 degree, chills and rigors
• No circulatory collpase
• Common before blood was leucodepleted (now rarer)

• Tx:
o Transfusion stopped or slowed
o Treat with paracetamol

  • Caused by the release of cytokines from white cells during storage
  • Prevented by leukodepletion
32
Q

Mx of Allergic Transfusion Reaction

What is it caused by?

A

o Transfusion usually stopped or slowed
o IV antihistamines
o In future transfusions, give prophylactic anti-histamines

• Caused by allergy to donor plasma proteins

33
Q

ABO Incompatibility / Wrong Blood

Mx
Ig__ mediated
What kind of haemolysis

main sx

A

o Stop transfusion – check patient/component
o Bloods
o Discuss with haematology doctor ASAP

IgM mediated
INTRVASCUAR haemolysis

o General: restless, chest/loin pain, fever, vomiting, flushing, collapse, haemoglobinuria (later)
o Monitoring: Low BP, high HR, high Temperature (>2oC)

34
Q

How does a transfusion reaction to bacterial contamination present?

Order of likelihood of contamination

A

• Presents similarly to ABO mismatch
o General: restless, fever, vomiting, flushing, collapse
o Monitoring: Low BP, high HR, high Temperature (>2oC)

•	Order of likelihood of contamination:
o	Platelets (stored at room temperature) > RBCs > frozen components
35
Q

What blood products should patients with IgA deficiency be given?

A

 In these patients you need to give them washed products or IgA deficient products

36
Q

Respiratory complications of transfusion - most common to least common

A

all of them are acute

Transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) > Transfusion associated dyspnoea (TAD) > Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)

37
Q

How does TACO present, in which patients and what can you do to prevent it?

A

• Majority present within 6 hours of transfusion
• Pulmonary oedema/fluid overload
o Clinical features – SOB, low SaO2, high HR, high BP
o High JVP, high PCWP (pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
o CXR – fluid overload/cardiac failure

• Often caused by lack of attention to fluid balance – especially in
o Cardiac failure, renal impairment, hypoalbuminaemia, liver disease, those on fluid replacement very small/young/old

• Tx
o Assess patient – look at their fluid balance
o You need them to be neutral balance if you are going to transfuse them
o Might need to give them some diuretics to create that space

38
Q

How does TRALI present and why does it happen?

A

• Looks at bit like ARDS (more common in FFP or platelet transfusion)
• Presents during/within 6 hours of transfusion
• No clinical fluid overload
• Symptoms and signs
o Clinical features – SoB, low O2 sats., high HR, high BP, fever
o CXR – bilateral pulmonary infiltrates during/within 6 hours of transfusion (not due to circulatory overload and other causes)
o Absence of heart failure

• Mechanism
o Anti-WBC antibodies in donor blood (HLA or neutrophil antibodies)
o These interact with WBCs in the patient
o Aggregates of WBCs stick to pulmonary capillaries  release neutrophil proteolytic enzymes and toxic O2 metabolites  lung damage

• Prevention
o Use male donors for plasma and platelets  no pregnancy or previous transfusions (you can’t donate if you’ve had previous transfusions), so no HLA/human neutrophil antibodies

39
Q

How can CMV be removed from WBC?

Who gets CMV -ve blood?

A

 Leucodepletion/irradiation removes CMV in WBCs (‘washing’ done for IgA deficient patients)

 CMV -ve products are only given to pregnant women and neonates

40
Q

Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction

When
presents with
What kind of haemolysis
iG__ mediated

Reason
What do you need to do before the next transfusion?

A
  • Occurs within a week
  • Presents with jaundice, dark urine
  • EXRAVASCULAR haemolysis
  • IgG mediated
  • Alloimmunisation = 1-3% of all patients transfused will develop an antibody against a RBC antigen that they lack
  • Further transfusions with RBCs expressing same antigens  antibodies will lyse RBCs  extravascular haemolysis

• Repeat the group and screen and look for new antibodies that may have been made against the transfused red cells

41
Q

What kind of antibodies are

Anti-A
Anti-B 
Anti-Rh
anti-Duffy
anti-Kidd
A

Anti-A, Anti-B = IgM antibodies

Anti-Rh, anti-Duffy, anti-Kidd = IgG antibodies

42
Q

Pathophysiology behind GVHD in blood transfusion

presentation

prevention

A

• Pathophysiology
o Donor’s blood will contain some lymphocytes that are able to divide
o Normally, the patient’s immune system will recognise these donor lymphocytes as foreign and destroy them
o In susceptible patients (very immunosuppressed), these lymphocytes are not destroyed
o Lymphocytes recognise patient’s tissue HLA antigens as foreign and attack (attack gut, liver, skin and bone marrow)

•	Clinical features
o	Diarrhoea 			
o	Liver failure 		
o	Skin desquamation 			
o	Bone marrow failure 		
o	Death  

• Prevention
o Irradiate blood components for very immunocompromised patients and patients who get have HLA-matched components

43
Q

Post transfusion purpura

when does it happen
why
who does it affect
mx

A
  • 7-10 days after transfusion of blood or platelets
  • Due to very low platelets (<20 x 109/L)  Can cause life-threatening bleeding
  • Affects HPA-1a (Human Platelet Antigen) negative patients with anti-HPA 1a antibodies - HPA 1a -ve patients previously immunised via pregnancy or transfusion
  • Exact mechanism is unknown

• Tx:
o IVIG infusion

44
Q

How is the fetus monitored for anaemia during pregnancy?

A

MCA doppler US

45
Q

How does anti-D work?

A

 The RhD +ve cells of the foetus will get coated by the exogenous anti-D immunoglobulin

 They will then be removed by the mother’s reticuloendothelial system (spleen) before they can sensitise the mother to produce anti-D antibodies

 For this to be effective, the anti-D injection must be given within 72 hours of the sensitising event

46
Q

When do you do a Kleihauer test?

A

if >20w gestation and at delivery

to determine if more anti-D is needed than the standard dose if the foetal bleed is large [determines for how many ml of blood we need to give anti-D]

47
Q

What is RAADP?

A

o Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis (RAADP)
 ~1% of pregnancies have no obvious sensitising events yet RhD negative mothers become sensitised
 To prevent this, routine anti-D prophylaxis can be given:
• 1 large dose (1,500IU) at 28w
• 2 smaller doses (500, 500 IU) at 28w and 34w

48
Q

How many units are needed to prevent sensitisation from 1 ml of FMH?

A

125 IU

for other quantities of FMH multiply appropriately