Haem 7 + 8 - Blood transfusion Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

what kind of antibodies are

anti-B, anti-A ab
Anti-D ab

A

anti-B, anti-A ab - IgM

Anti-D ab - IgG

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2
Q

What kind of reaction do anti-D antibodies produce when they cross the placenta?

A

Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction

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3
Q

Group and screen vs full Xmatch

A

Group and screen – check ABO group and plasma antibodies in patient

Full crossmatch – checks patient’s blood against donor blood specifically
o If no antibodies present in the patient’s blood, a crossmatch is not needed
o if antibodies are present, always crossmatch

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4
Q

How is the grouping of the RBC done?

A

both of the below are done and included in a “Group and Screen”:

o (1) Forward group – Use known anti-A, anti-B and anti-D reagents against the patient’s RBCs

o (2) Reverse group – known A and B groups red blood cells are mixed with the patient’s plasma (IgM antibodies)
 This group acts as an internal control – if it does not match, this is an anomalous result
 New-borns often have a weak reverse group as their antibodies have not developed fully yet

o Column agglutination technology
o Positive result = agglutination at the TOP
o Negative result = red cells stay suspended at the BOTTOM of the vial

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5
Q

Immune antibodies vs naturally occurring antibodies

A

o Immune antibodies are IgG
 Cause a delayed transfusion reaction
 Extravascular haemolysis

o Naturally occurring antibodies are IgM
 Cause an immediate intravascular haemolysis

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6
Q

How do you screen a patient’s plasma for antibodies against RBC

A

• Antibody screen on patient’s plasma
o (1) use 2 or 3 reagent RBCs containing all important RBC antigens between them
o (2) incubate patient’s plasma and screening cells using the Indirect Antiglobulin Technique (IAT)

Indirect Antiglobulin Technique (IAT)
 Patient serum containing specific antibody added to reagent RBCs
 IgG antibody can attack to RBC antigens
 Add Anti-Human Globulin (AHG) to promote agglutination between the IgG antibodies on the different RBC
 If +ve, reaction creates bridges between RBCs coated in IgG antibodies  visible clumps
 Takes 30 mins incubation at 37oC

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7
Q

What are the two types of serological crossmatch and how are they carried?

A

• Serological crossmatching checks the blood against the donor’s blood specifically

o Full Crossmatch (uses IAT (Indirect antiglobulin technique)):
 Patient’s plasma is incubated with donor red cells at 37oC for 30-40 mins
 Detects antibody-antigen reaction that destroys the RBCs leading to extravascular haemolysis
 IgG antibodies bind to RBCs but do not crosslinking  add antiglobulin reagent to cause cross-linking
 Agglutination/haemolysis = incompatible

o Immediate Spin [emergency scenario only]:
 Saline, room temperature
 Incubate patient’s plasma and donor red cells for 5 minutes only and spin
 Will only detect ABO incompatibility
 IgM anti-A and/or anti-B bind to RBCs, fix complement and lyse the cell

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8
Q

the 3 pillars of patient blood management

A
•	Optimise haemopoiesis
o	Identify anaemia pre-surgery + treat
	IV/ PO iron – 1mg IV 
	B12 replacement – 1mg IM hydroxocobalamin 
	Folate replacement – 5mg PO
	EPO SC – preparation dependent 
o	Targets
	Ferritin 100ug/L
	TSATs 25-30%
	B12 >350 ng/L
	Serum folate >5 ug/L
•	Minimise blood loss and bleeding
o	Stop anticoagulation/antiplatelet agents
o	Tranexamic acid – 1mg PO/IV
o	Blood sparing techniques
o	Call salvage
o	Prevent wastage 

• Harness and optimise physiological tolerance of anaemia
o Optimise cardiac output
o Restrictive transfusion threshold for patients who are fit and healthy (Hb <80g/L)

• (avoid hypothermia, DIC/coagulopathy, electrolyte imbalance)

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9
Q

Which blood components need to be matched for both ABO + D?

Which blood components need to be matched only for ABO?

A

ABO + D
RBC
Plt

Only ABO
FFP
Cryoprecipitate

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10
Q

Storage of

RBC
Plt
FFP
Cryoprecipitate

A

RBC
4C for 35 days
if outside of fridge for >30min goes to the bin – worried about bacterial contamination
Complete transfusion should take place within 4h of leaving the fridge

Plt
20C (room temperature) for 7 days
Screened for bacteria before release
Transfuse over 20 mins

FFP
Frozen (-25C)
Once thawed can be kept at 4C for 24 hours

Cryoprecipitate
Frozen
Once thawed has to be kept at room temperature and use within 4 hours

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11
Q

What should happen if a patient develops temperature during a plt transfusion?

A

?bacterial contamination of platelets

stop the platelets
take blood cultures

send platelets back to the lab for microbiological testing

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12
Q

Most likely cause if a patient reacts when FFP/cryoprecipitate is being transfused?

A

• A reaction with plasma is more likely to be allergic as plasma is frozen and so is unlikely to be contaminated by microbes

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13
Q

RBC transfusion

What should happen before?
How often should Hb levels be checked?
By how much g/l does 1 unit of RBC raise Hb?

A

• Treat iron/folate/b12 deficiency first unless active bleeding

• Check Hb
o Pre-transfusion
o After every 1-2 units

• 1 unit RBC = Hb increment of 10g/L in a 70-80 kg patent (if the patient is not haemolysing)
o Only transfuse one unit at a time unless active bleeding
o Can be transfused “stat” but routinely would be 2-3h

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14
Q

Hb targets in RBC transfusion depended patients

A

 70 g/l if asymptomatic, 80 g/l if symptomatic

o Higher threshold of up to 90-100 g/l for patients with CHD

o Transfusion to >100g/L rarely required unless
 Symptomatic (IHD, SOB, ECG changes)
 Severe cardiac/respiratory disease

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15
Q

Triggers for the following RBC transfusion indicators

Major blood loss
Pre-op, Critical care
Post chemo

A

Major blood loss
>30% of blood volume lost

Pre-op, Critical care
<70 or 80 g/l depending on co-morbidities

Post chemo
<80 g/l

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16
Q

Plt transfusion

By how much does 1 unit of plt raise plt count?

A

• 1 unit of platelets in an adult treatment dose  usually raises platelet count by 30-40 x 109/L

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17
Q

Plt transfusion contraindications

A
o	HITT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia with thrombosis) – patients who have had a clot on UFH
o	TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura)
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18
Q

Triggers for the following plt transfusion indicators

Massive transfusion
Prevent bleeding (surgery)
Prevent bleeding (post-chemo)
Platelet dysfunction or immune cause
Reduced platelet production (e.g. leukaemia

Platelet dysfunction can be caused by drugs (e.g. aspirin, clopidogrel)
)

A

Massive transfusion
Aim plt >75 x 10^9/L

Prevent bleeding (surgery)
<50 x 10^9/L
<100 x 10^9/L - if critical site - eye, CNS, polytrauma

Prevent bleeding (post-chemo)
<10 x 10^9/L
<20 x 10^9/L if sepsis

Platelet dysfunction or immune cause
Reduced platelet production (e.g. leukaemia
Only if active bleeding

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19
Q

FFP

What should happen before?
When should FFP be transfused?
Adult dose
when and how do you assess the effectiveness of the transfusion?

A
  • consider using vitamin K first if appropriate
  • Do not use unless patient is bleeding or undergoing a procedure e.g. surgery

Adult dose - 15-20 ml/kg

• Reassess after administration by measuring coagulation parameters

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20
Q

What does FFP consist of?

A

Contains all the clotting factors

21
Q

FFP indications

A

Massive transfusion
Aim to maintain PT and APTT ratio at <1.5
Early infusion of FFP is recommended to treat coagulopathy

Liver disease
PT ratio >1.5

Replacement of a single coagulation factor deficiency e.g. factor V

DIC
In the presence of bleeding, abnormal coagulation results, or if the patient needs a procedure

TTP – thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

22
Q

Treatment of choice for reversal of warfarin

A

PCC (F 2, 7, 9, 10)

Prothrombin complex concentrate

23
Q

What is cryoprecipitate

Adult dose
children dose
transfusion indications

A
Fibrinogen + 
Fibronectin 
F8, F13, VWF
plt microparticles
IgA Albumin

essentially raising fibrinogen by 1g/L

  • Adult dose – 15-20ml/kg – 2 pools (10 donors)
  • Children dose – 5-10 mls/kg
- Bleeding associated with hypofibrinogenemia 
Fibrinogen <1g/litre
Seen in
Liver disease
DIC
  • Dysfibrinogenemia
24
Q

Indications for

CMV negative blood -
Irradiated blood
Washed red cells and platelets

A

CMV negative blood - only required for intra-uterine /neonatal transfusions and
for elective transfusion in pregnant women (baby in-utero is exposed to maternal
transfusion)

• Irradiated blood - highly immunosuppressed patients, who cannot
destroy incoming donor lymphocytes: which can cause (fatal) transfusion
associated graft versus host disease (TA-GvHD)

• given to patients who have severe allergic
reactions to some donors’ plasma proteins

25
A- RBC can be given to
A- A+ AB- AB+
26
Major haemorrhage mx
* 1g tranexamic acid (except in GI bleeds – no benefit) * O -ve blood • Use plasma products first/early o Best use of blood : FFP is 1:1 o Early use of cryoprecipitate + platelets is recommended to prevent coagulopathy * Send x2 transfusion samples ASAP so group specific blood can be issued * Consider use of fibrinogen concentrate 50mg/kg if >4 units of blood transfused
27
Commonest blood type
O+
28
Indications for O+ emergency transfusion
emergency for females >50 years of age and for most males >18 years of age
29
Indications for O- emergency transfusion
* Given to patients of childbearing potential | * Given to patients who can only have O- blood
30
How often do you monitor a patient during a transfusion for an acute transfusion reaction?
 Baseline temperature, pulse, RR, BP before transfusion  Repeat after 15 mins (most reactions start within 15 mins)  Repeat hourly  Repeat at the end of the transfusion 0m  15m  1hr  1hr…  end
31
Describe Febrile Non-Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction (FNHTR)
Mild/Moderate • Occurs during/soon after transfusion (blood or platelets) • Rise in temperature by around 1 degree, chills and rigors • No circulatory collpase • Common before blood was leucodepleted (now rarer) • Tx: o Transfusion stopped or slowed o Treat with paracetamol * Caused by the release of cytokines from white cells during storage * Prevented by leukodepletion
32
Mx of Allergic Transfusion Reaction What is it caused by?
o Transfusion usually stopped or slowed o IV antihistamines o In future transfusions, give prophylactic anti-histamines • Caused by allergy to donor plasma proteins
33
ABO Incompatibility / Wrong Blood Mx Ig__ mediated What kind of haemolysis main sx
o Stop transfusion – check patient/component o Bloods o Discuss with haematology doctor ASAP IgM mediated INTRVASCUAR haemolysis o General: restless, chest/loin pain, fever, vomiting, flushing, collapse, haemoglobinuria (later) o Monitoring: Low BP, high HR, high Temperature (>2oC)
34
How does a transfusion reaction to bacterial contamination present? Order of likelihood of contamination
• Presents similarly to ABO mismatch o General: restless, fever, vomiting, flushing, collapse o Monitoring: Low BP, high HR, high Temperature (>2oC) ``` • Order of likelihood of contamination: o Platelets (stored at room temperature) > RBCs > frozen components ```
35
What blood products should patients with IgA deficiency be given?
 In these patients you need to give them washed products or IgA deficient products
36
Respiratory complications of transfusion - most common to least common
all of them are acute Transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) > Transfusion associated dyspnoea (TAD) > Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)
37
How does TACO present, in which patients and what can you do to prevent it?
• Majority present within 6 hours of transfusion • Pulmonary oedema/fluid overload o Clinical features – SOB, low SaO2, high HR, high BP o High JVP, high PCWP (pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) o CXR – fluid overload/cardiac failure • Often caused by lack of attention to fluid balance – especially in o Cardiac failure, renal impairment, hypoalbuminaemia, liver disease, those on fluid replacement very small/young/old • Tx o Assess patient – look at their fluid balance o You need them to be neutral balance if you are going to transfuse them o Might need to give them some diuretics to create that space
38
How does TRALI present and why does it happen?
• Looks at bit like ARDS (more common in FFP or platelet transfusion) • Presents during/within 6 hours of transfusion • No clinical fluid overload • Symptoms and signs o Clinical features – SoB, low O2 sats., high HR, high BP, fever o CXR – bilateral pulmonary infiltrates during/within 6 hours of transfusion (not due to circulatory overload and other causes) o Absence of heart failure • Mechanism o Anti-WBC antibodies in donor blood (HLA or neutrophil antibodies) o These interact with WBCs in the patient o Aggregates of WBCs stick to pulmonary capillaries  release neutrophil proteolytic enzymes and toxic O2 metabolites  lung damage • Prevention o Use male donors for plasma and platelets  no pregnancy or previous transfusions (you can’t donate if you’ve had previous transfusions), so no HLA/human neutrophil antibodies
39
How can CMV be removed from WBC? Who gets CMV -ve blood?
 Leucodepletion/irradiation removes CMV in WBCs (‘washing’ done for IgA deficient patients)  CMV -ve products are only given to pregnant women and neonates
40
Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction When presents with What kind of haemolysis iG__ mediated Reason What do you need to do before the next transfusion?
* Occurs within a week * Presents with jaundice, dark urine * EXRAVASCULAR haemolysis * IgG mediated * Alloimmunisation = 1-3% of all patients transfused will develop an antibody against a RBC antigen that they lack * Further transfusions with RBCs expressing same antigens  antibodies will lyse RBCs  extravascular haemolysis • Repeat the group and screen and look for new antibodies that may have been made against the transfused red cells
41
What kind of antibodies are ``` Anti-A Anti-B Anti-Rh anti-Duffy anti-Kidd ```
Anti-A, Anti-B = IgM antibodies Anti-Rh, anti-Duffy, anti-Kidd = IgG antibodies
42
Pathophysiology behind GVHD in blood transfusion presentation prevention
• Pathophysiology o Donor's blood will contain some lymphocytes that are able to divide o Normally, the patient's immune system will recognise these donor lymphocytes as foreign and destroy them o In susceptible patients (very immunosuppressed), these lymphocytes are not destroyed o Lymphocytes recognise patient's tissue HLA antigens as foreign and attack (attack gut, liver, skin and bone marrow) ``` • Clinical features o Diarrhoea o Liver failure o Skin desquamation o Bone marrow failure o Death ``` • Prevention o Irradiate blood components for very immunocompromised patients and patients who get have HLA-matched components
43
Post transfusion purpura when does it happen why who does it affect mx
* 7-10 days after transfusion of blood or platelets * Due to very low platelets (<20 x 109/L)  Can cause life-threatening bleeding * Affects HPA-1a (Human Platelet Antigen) negative patients with anti-HPA 1a antibodies - HPA 1a -ve patients previously immunised via pregnancy or transfusion * Exact mechanism is unknown • Tx: o IVIG infusion
44
How is the fetus monitored for anaemia during pregnancy?
MCA doppler US
45
How does anti-D work?
 The RhD +ve cells of the foetus will get coated by the exogenous anti-D immunoglobulin  They will then be removed by the mother's reticuloendothelial system (spleen) before they can sensitise the mother to produce anti-D antibodies  For this to be effective, the anti-D injection must be given within 72 hours of the sensitising event
46
When do you do a Kleihauer test?
if >20w gestation and at delivery to determine if more anti-D is needed than the standard dose if the foetal bleed is large [determines for how many ml of blood we need to give anti-D]
47
What is RAADP?
o Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis (RAADP)  ~1% of pregnancies have no obvious sensitising events yet RhD negative mothers become sensitised  To prevent this, routine anti-D prophylaxis can be given: • 1 large dose (1,500IU) at 28w • 2 smaller doses (500, 500 IU) at 28w and 34w
48
How many units are needed to prevent sensitisation from 1 ml of FMH?
125 IU for other quantities of FMH multiply appropriately