chpt 12 - body defences Flashcards

1
Q

bodys abilty to resist or eliminate potentially harmful foreign materials or abnormal cells is known as

A

immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

innate immunity is

A
  • natural or native immunity
  • present before infection
  • first line of defence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

examples of innate immunity

A
  • inflammation
  • skin
  • cilia
  • mucus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

humoral and cellular components make up

A

innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

blood proteins and mediators of inflammation =

A

humoral components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

cellular components are

A

cells, like phagocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which components of innate immunity are involved in inflammation

A

cellular component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

reacting specific to invader is an example of

A

adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

example of adaptive immunity

A
  • antibodies
  • b and T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what prevents microbial invasion of body parts exposed to external environment

A

external defences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are antimicrobial peptides

A
  • small amino acids chains
  • prevent bacteria from moving properly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which layer of the integumentary system has no blood supply

A

epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which integumentary system has blood vessels and nerve endings

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hypodermis/ subcutanoues layer is

A
  • underneath the dermis
  • anchored to underlying tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what skin cells secrete interleukin 1

A

keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

function of interleukin 1

A

mature T cells in skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

macrophages of skin cells -

A

lagerhans aka dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what cells are more suscpetpcclew to UV ray damage

A

lagerhans aka dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where do lagerhans aka dendritic cells come from

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

granstein cells function

A

produce suppressor signals to regulate skin- activated immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

function of ‘friendly’ bacteria in mouth

A

converts nitrate to nitrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what system of the body is the largest surface that comes in direct contact with polluted external environment

A

respiratory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lymphoid tissues in digestive tract =

A

Gut-assoactaed lymphoid tissues / peers patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

thymus function

A
  • site of maturation of T cells
  • secrete thymosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

spleen function

A
  • remove, store produce and add lymphocytes to blood
  • remove worn out cells
  • store small percent of rbc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

where are B cells matured

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Peters patches is aka

A

gut associated lymphoid tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Peters patches is aka

A

gut associated lymphoid tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

examples of innate immunity is

A
  • inflammation
  • interferon
  • natural killer cells
  • complement sys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

is there an increase In unltrafiltarion or reabsorption with inflammation

A

increased ultrafiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

function of inflammation

A
  • bring phagocytes and plasma proteins to invaded/ injured area
  • remove debris, prepare healing and repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

steps of inflammation are

A
  1. tissue trauma release signals
    2 and 3. activated resident mast cells release histamines
  2. chemokine attract leukocytes
  3. invader destruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when are cytokines and chemokine (aka chemotaxis) released

A

during phagocytosis by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

chemokine aka chemotaxis is an example of

A

cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

cytokines function

A

modulate functions of other immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what attracts needed cells to the site of initial invasion during inflammation

A

chemokine aka chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what type of cells are present first during inflammation

A

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which two influences on bulk flow increase with histamine release and oedema and decrease reabsorption

A
  • ISF colloid osmotic P
  • capillary BP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which step of inflammation causes swelling and pain

A

2 and 3. activated resident mast cells release histamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

walling offf the inflamed area includes

A

using clotting factors to delay spread of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which cells mature until macrophages

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

does tb survive in macrophages

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which leukocytes are the first to arrive during inflammation

A
  • neutrophils then monocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

diapedesis is

A
  • transmigration of circulating neutrophils and monocytes across vasodilator capillaries
  • how leukocytes leave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what causes leukocytes to slow down and check for invasion

A

selectins; a type of CAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

increase in the number of leukocytes due to migration and multiplication is known as

A

leukocytes proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

antibodies are an example of

A
  • adaptive immunity
  • humoral
  • opsonins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

anything that binds to bacteria, highlighting it and attracts macrophages is known as

A

opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the complement system activated by

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how long and how many bacterium can macrophages ingulf

A

less than 0.01s and 100 or more bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

pus is

A

the collection of dead and alive phagocytic cells, necrotic tissue and bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

are antibodies cytokines

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

antimicrobial chemical function

A
  • directly destroy microbes (NOT BY PHAGOCYTOSIS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what Kinda of damage does NO do

A

oxidative damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

why is free Fe bad

A
  • it’ll bind with bacteria and cause it to grow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

function lactoferrin

A

bind with Fe, so there less free Fe in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what kind of signals do cytokines use

A

paracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

IL-1, IL-6 and tumour necrosis factor (ALL cytokines) is released by

A

activated macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

function of cytokines released by activated macrophages is

A
  • promote inflammation and systemic immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is an example of acute phase proteins

A

C-reactive protein aka the clinical marker of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

c-reactive proteins function as

A

endogenous pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

function of c-reactive proteins

A
  • induce fever
  • stimulate hypothalamus to release prostaglandins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

which cytokine promotes release of histamine from mast cells

A

tumour necrotic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

kallikrein is an enzyme that is secreted by

A

activated neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

function of kallikrein

A
  • converts plasma kininogens to kinins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what causes soreness with inflammation

A
  • bradykinin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

interferons are secreted by

A

infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what bind to its neighbours in an attempt to warn of infection

A

interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

how do interferons inhibit multiplication of viruses

A

break down mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

overall function of interferons

A
  • enhance macrophage activity
  • boosts power of killer cells
  • stimulates antibody production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

which cell has antiviral and anticancer effects

A

interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

which cells nonspecifcally destroy virus infected cells and cancer cells

A

natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how do natural killer cells destroy

A
  • release pore forming proteins that allows apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

the complement system is

A

non specfic sequence of proteins that target bacteria by forming mac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how causes a victim cell to have a leaky membrane, swell and burst

A

membrane attack complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what types of proteins is membrane attack complex made of

A
  • plasma proteins by liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

MAC structure

A
  • C1-C9 donut protein complex
  • embeds in surface of microbes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what type of immune system directly attacks unwanted cells

A

adaptive immune system

79
Q

what is an antigen

A
  • large, foreign, unique molecule
  • induces an immune response against itself when in bdoy
80
Q

more complex a molecule is =

A

increased antigenicity

81
Q

antigenicity means

A

ability to induce an immune response

82
Q

structures recognized by antigen binding sites of antibodies and lymphocytes receptors

A

epitopes that are found on antigens

83
Q

where do b and T cells originate from

A

bone marrow

84
Q

where do T cells mature

A

thymus

85
Q

where are most new b and T cells derived from after early childhood

A

peripheral lymphoid tissue

86
Q

where do B cells mature and differentiate

A

bone marrow

87
Q

thymosis is

A

the maintainece of T cells

88
Q

what secretions decreased after 30-40 years

A

thymosis

89
Q

how many epitopes do b-cell receptors and t-cell receptors bind with

A

one epitope on antigens

90
Q

how does a lymphocyte become activated

A
  • antigen and receptor
91
Q

what stimulates B cells to turn into plasma cells

A

antigens

92
Q

antibodies are produced by

A

plasma cells

93
Q

BCR binding with antigen triggers

A
  • B cells to active plasma cells
  • some dormant B cells (memory cells)
  • some bcells display antigen to activate T cells
94
Q

structure of activated plasma cell

A
  • massive RER
95
Q

fab aka fretiin antigen binding binds to

A

epitope on the antigen

96
Q

what determines functional properties of antibodies and is identical in all the subclasses

A

Fc = the constant region, the tail

97
Q

how many polypeptide chains is an antibody composed of

A
  • 2 long, heavy chains
  • 2 short, light chains
98
Q

which immunoglobulin/ antibody subclass is the B cell surface receptor for antigen attachment

A

IgM

99
Q

when is IgM secreted

A

from a pentamer un early stages of plasma cell response

100
Q

which two immunoglobulin/ antibody subclass make the most specfic immune responses

A

IgM and IgG

101
Q

which immunoglobulin/ antibody subclass is the most abundant and acts as opsonins

A

IgG

102
Q

what is produced in large amounts when body is expose to same antigen

A

IgG

103
Q

IgE function

A
  • protects against parasitic worms
  • allergic runs
104
Q

how is histamine released with IgE

A

Fc binds to mast cells

105
Q

which immunoglobulin/ antibody subclass is found in secretions of digestive, respiratory and genitourinary systems, and breastmilk and tears

A

IgA

106
Q

IgD location

A
  • present on surface of B cells
107
Q

which antibody functions enhance innate immunity

A
  • assisting with phagocytosis against parasites
  • aiding cytoxicty of T and NK cells
  • activating complement system
108
Q

clonal selection =

A

proposes that diverse b lymphocytes are produced during fetal development
- B cells producing clones that have the same specfic antibody

109
Q

naive lymphocytes =

A

havent yet been exposed to their specfic antigen

110
Q

memory cells allow for

A
  • quick, more potent and longer response when antigen reenters
111
Q

how can memory cells be induced

A

disease or vaccination

112
Q

active immunity id

A

production of antibodies as a result of exposure to an antigen

113
Q

direct transfer of antibodies from another person or animal =

A

passive immunity

114
Q

direct transfer of antibodies from another person or animal =

A

passive immunity

115
Q

how do antibodies destroy

A
  • physically hindering antigens
  • amplify innate immune responses
116
Q

neutralization =

A

preventing harmful chemicals from interacting with susceptible cells

117
Q

substance separating from a solution is known as

A

precipitation

118
Q

primary response is

A

delayed antibody response unit plasma cells are formed

119
Q

after primary has already occurred, this response is faster and longer =

A

secondary response

120
Q

what makes up 50-70% of total lymphocytes in circulation

A

T cells

121
Q

which type of T cells play a role in immune mechanisms

A

regulatory T cells

122
Q

where do T cells learn to recognize foreign antigens

A

thymus

123
Q

when are T cells activated

A

when a surface of cell has foreign and self antigen aka Mac

124
Q

how long before a T cell act begins

A

a few days

125
Q

major histocompatibility complex =

A

must be present for T cell to bind with sensitized T cells

126
Q

major histocompatibility complex structure

A

plasma membrane bound glycoproteins

127
Q

CD8 cells aka cytotoxic or killer T cells, T cells function

A

destroy host cells harbouring anything foreign

128
Q

cd4 cells aka helper t and th function

A
  • enhance development of antigen stimulated B cells to plasma cells
  • enhances activity of cytotoxic cells
  • T cell growth
129
Q

interleukin 2 function

A

T cell growth factor

130
Q

which T cells activate macrogphes and prevent them from moving away

A

cd4 cells aka helper t and th

131
Q

which is the most numerous T cell

A

helper t

132
Q

B cell growth factors are

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6

133
Q

what are B cells growth factors secreted by

A

helper T cells

134
Q

which IL is responsible for enhancing activity of clones and stimulates IL-2 secretion

A

IL-1

135
Q

IL-5 function

A

activate eosphils

136
Q

what promotes development of IgE antibodies for defence agAINST worms

A

IL-4

137
Q

which T cells display primary and secondary responses

A

memory T cells

138
Q

which T cells contain C25 a compent of IL2 and CD4

A

T regulatory surpressor cells

139
Q

granzymes killing methods

A
  • indirect
  • enter through perforin channels
  • self destruct
140
Q

which cells release perforin

A
  • NK or T cells
141
Q

which kills cells by penetrating the target cells surface membrane and join to form pore like channels - aka kiss of death

A

perforin

142
Q

where are helper T cells produced

A

thymus

143
Q

which t helper cell has cell mediated responses for infections and viruses

A

T helper 1 (Th1)

144
Q

T helper 2 (Th2) function

A

antibody immunity by B cells and eosinophil activity
- worms

145
Q

IL-12 function

A

drives native T cell to Th1

146
Q

native cell to Th2 is done by

A

IL-4

147
Q

helper t 17 function

A
  • promote inflammation
    ~ multiple sclerosis
  • produce IL-17
148
Q

which helper T cell helps B cells secrete antibodies

A

T follicular helper

149
Q

tolerance is

A

preventing the immune system from attacking the persons own tissue

150
Q

cells with TCR or BCR that recognize self- antigens undergo apoptosis =

A

clonal deletion

151
Q

clonial anergy is

A

lymphocytes not receiving the costimulatory signal

152
Q

what are the 2 signals lymphocytes need to receive to be activated

A
  • binding of BCR to TCR to antigen
  • binding of CD4 or CD8 to B7 on an antigen presenting cell (costimulary signal)
153
Q

receptor editing is

A

small but rapid shapes to BCR gene that encode the antigen binding site

154
Q

t regulatory cells inhabiting “run away” immune response is known as

A

inhibiting by Treg

155
Q

how does inhibition by t reg cells occur

A
  • control by direct interaction (receptor binding)
  • or through cytokines
156
Q

immunological ignorance is

A

BCR or TCR that don’t recognize/ bind to antigens

157
Q

eyes, repro organs are known as

A

immune privilege organs

158
Q

loss of tolerance to self-antigens is known as

A

autoimmune diease

159
Q

examples of causes of autoimmune diseases is

A
  • exposure of normally inaccessible self antigens
  • normal self- antigens modified by drugs, enviormental chemicals, viruses or genetic mutation
  • foreign antigen is structurally identical to a self antigen
  • lingering fetal cells after birth
160
Q

immune diseases are caused by

A

abnormal functioning of immune system

161
Q

too little immune reponse is

A

immunodeficiency

162
Q

immunodeficiency causes

A
  • genetic syndrome
  • lacking function of both b and T cells
  • hiv to aids
  • caused by an agent
  • chemo
163
Q

allergies are

A

inappropriate immune reactivity to normal harmless things

164
Q

symptoms of immediate hypersensitivity

A
  • hay fever
  • asthma
  • hives
165
Q

chemical mediators are

A
  • histamine
  • slow reactive substance of anaphylaxis
  • eosinophil chempatatic factors
166
Q

IgE x mast cells on immediate hypersensitity

A
  • IgE is produced on first contact w allergen
  • Fc of IgE binds to mast cells
  • hisitime release
167
Q

anaphaylactic shock is

A
  • systemic rxn of allgern is blood borne or large amounts of chemicals are released from localized site
168
Q

sever hypotension with anaphaylactic =

A

circulatory shock

169
Q

type of immune response with delayed hypersensitivity

A

cell mediated

170
Q

which skin layer contain keratinocytes and melanocytes

A

epidermis

171
Q

epidermis is the

A

outermost skin layer

172
Q

Mhc is part of

A

cell mediated immunity

173
Q

what immunity provides protection against B cells

A

antibody immunity

174
Q

function of pyrogens

A

induce fever

175
Q

where are antigen binding fragments found

A

antibody arm

176
Q

primary lymphoid organs are

A

bone marrow and thymus

177
Q

secondary lymphoid organs are

A

lymph nodes and spleen

178
Q

which antibody is the first to be produced

A

IgM

179
Q

what type of antibodies does breast milk contain

A

IgA

180
Q

IgG is transfer through (means of passive immunity)

A

placenta

181
Q

what do B cell receptors look like

A

antibodies

182
Q

which MHC class do cytotoxic T cells bind w and where

A

MHC class 1 and viruses

183
Q

which t cell binds with MHC class 2 found on macrophages

A

helper t

184
Q

how is tissue rejection prevented

A
  • using cyclosporin
  • closely matching MHC antigens
185
Q

function of cyclosporin

A

block IL-2

186
Q

which IL is responsible for expanding cytotoxic T cell clones

A

IL-2

187
Q

several combined immunodeficiency aka congenital is

A
  • both b and T cells are lacking
188
Q

which antibody subclass is released with immediate hypersenstivty

A

IgE

189
Q

which cells store histamine

A
  • mast cells
  • basophils
190
Q

which cells are used in delayed hypersensitivity

A

T cells instead of B cells

191
Q

which type of hypersenstivty is antibody mediated

A

immediate

192
Q

IgM acts like

A

an opsonin

193
Q

which IL turns into th2

A

IL-4