CKT #2 Flashcards
(214 cards)
1
Q
What is this symbol?
A
VOR, VORTAC
2
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Radio Beacon
3
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Fix, Intersection
4
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Major Airport
5
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Minor Airport
6
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Emergency Airport
7
Q
What is this symbol?
A
TACAN
8
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Fixed Obstruction
9
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Unpaired Primary
10
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Paired Primary
11
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Unpaired Beacon
12
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Paired Beacon
13
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Identing Beacon
13
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Mode C Intruder (Unpaired track eligible for Conflict Alert)
14
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Code 1200 Beacon
15
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Reduced Separation (3 mile)
16
Q
What is this symbol?
A
FLAT Track - Flight Plan Aided Tracking
17
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Free Track - Use of radar data without the use of flight plan information
18
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Coast Track - Tracking program has lost contact with the radar target
19
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Frozen Data Block - Aircraft’s track is frozen at its present position
20
Q
The computer is not correlating the aircraft with flight plan information and is using radar data only
A
Target is considered unpaired
20
Q
What is this symbol?
A
Hold at a fix or present position hold
21
Q
The computer correlates the predicted position, speed, and heading with the actual radar return using flight plan information
A
Target is considered paired
22
Q
FDB Field A contains:
A
Aircraft identification beginning at the A2 position
23
FDB Field B contains:
- Assigned altitude information
- Letters “VFR” or “OTP”
24
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C reported altitude is within ± 200 feet of single assigned altitude. (Field C will be vacant)
25
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C or controller-entered altitude indicates that aircraft is climbing to assigned altitude.
26
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C or controller-entered altitude indicates that aircraft is descending to assigned altitude.
27
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C altitude is corrupt or lost. (Field C will contain “XXX”)
28
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Non-RVSM indicator is a coral box around the B4 character.
29
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C has previously reported the aircraft at assigned altitude and aircraft has deviated 300 feet or more above assigned altitude.
30
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C has previously reported the aircraft at assigned altitude and aircraft has deviated 300 feet or more below assigned altitude.
30
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Neither controller-entered nor Mode C reported altitude has been received for aircraft. (Field C will be vacant)
30
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Slant (/) appears when the flight type is VFR.
31
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Controller-entered reported altitude equals single assigned altitude. (Field C will be vacant)
32
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C reported altitude is within ± 200 feet of upper or lower limit of block altitude, or controller-entered reported altitude is within the block altitude.
32
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Mode C is received, or controller-entered reported altitude, but no assigned altitude exists. (Positions B1, B2, and B3 will be vacant)
33
Identify the FDB Field B4 altitude qualifier
Interim altitude is displayed in B1 B2 B3.
33
FDB Field C1 - C3 contains:
- Mode C or controller-entered reported altitude
- Upper altitude of a block altitude
- “XXX” if Mode C is corrupt or lost
34
FDB Field C4 may contain "X" when:
To indicate exceptional vertical rate indicator
35
FDB Field C4 contains pound sign (#) when:
- Aircraft is not responding with Mode C altitude, and
- Controller-entered altitude does not equal the single assigned altitude
36
FDB Field D2 - D4 contains:
The Computer Identification (CID)
36
FDB Field E1 - E5 contains:
- Ground Speed (Displayed in single knot increments)
- Special Condition Information ( Displayed as letters)
37
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft is Squawking emergency Code
38
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft is squawking radio failure code
39
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Attempted handoff of FDB to another facility has failed
39
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Updated data is not being recieved
40
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Mismatch between two ERAM facilities' track position
41
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Mismatch between ERAM and Non ERAM facility when "DATA" is displayed.
42
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Controller-entered message that indicates the flight's position is not being updated
43
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft has been put into hold at data block's present position
44
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft is in SIDE-STREAM handoff status, to another ERAM facility
45
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft is in coast status, not tracked by computer
46
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft has an assigned beacon code, but none is received
47
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Aircraft has an assigned beacon code, but the code received is not the proper code. Improper code is displayed
48
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Track is being handed off to sector in same center
49
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Handoff has been accepted by sector in same center
50
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Handoff has been "stolen" using /OK
51
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Track is being handed off to another center
52
FDB Field E Special Condition:
Handoff has been accepted by another center
53
FDB Field F can contain the following data:
− Aircraft type/airborne equipment qualifier
− Destination
− Heading
− Speed
− Both heading and speed
− Free-form text
54
Aircraft must be equipped with an operable transponder with altitude reporting capability and appropriate ADS-B equipment:
- At and above 10,000 feet MSL and below floor of Class A airspace, excluding at and below 2,500 feet Above Ground Level (AGL)
- In Class A, B, and C airspace
55
If the Mode C, transponder, or ADS-B fails between 10,000 MSL and 18,000 MSL, you must _____.
Advise a manager and verbally coordinate with the next controller to forward a transponder/Mode C status report prior to control transfer
56
If the Mode C, transponder, or ADS-B fails at or above 18,000 MSL, you must _____.
Advise a manager and coordinate with the next controller to
obtain approval for the aircraft to enter that sector
57
The letter or number assigned to a specific pulse spacing of radio signals transmitted or received by ground interrogator or airborne transponder components of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)
Mode
58
Beacon codes which do not end in the numerals “00”
Discrete codes
58
Phraseology for issuing discrete computer-assigned codes
“SQUAWK (code).”
59
beacon codes which end in the numerals “00”
Nondiscrete codes
60
The airspace over United States territory located within the North American continent between Canada and Mexico, including adjacent territorial waters outward to abut boundaries of Oceanic Control Areas (CTAs)/Flight Information Regions (FIRs)
NBCAP Airspace
61
Do not request a code change until:
The aircraft is in your area of responsibility
Exceptions:
- Specified in a Letter of Agreement
- Coordinated at the time of handoff
- VFR aircraft requests radar services
62
Assign code ____ if a pilot declares an emergency and is NOT radar- identified.
7700
## Footnote
“EMRG” blinks in the data block
63
Which aircraft should you not request to change from code 7700 to the appropriate discrete or function code?
Single-piloted helicopters and single-piloted turbojet aircraft
64
When a pilot experiences radio failure, you can expect them to squawk ____.
7600
## Footnote
“RDOF” blinks in the data block
65
Issue code ____ to VFR aircraft when:
1200
- IFR aircraft cancels IFR flight plan and does not request radar advisories
- Radar services are being terminated
66
The radar team shall continuously monitor __________________________ assigned for use by aircraft within your area of responsibility, including:
Mode 3/A radar beacon codes
- Code 1200 - VFR aircraft
- Code 1202 - Glider operations
- Code 1255 - Firefighting aircraft
- Code 1277 - Search and Rescue aircraft
- Code 4000 - Fast maneuvering military aircraft
67
When using only Mode 3/A radar beacon to identify a target, use one of the following methods:
- Request aircraft to ident and observe the display
- Request the pilot to change to a specific discrete or nondiscrete code, as appropriate, and then observe the target or code display change.
- Request the pilot to change their transponder/ ADS−B to “standby.” After you observe the target disappear for sufficient scans to assure that loss of target resulted from placing the transponder/ADS−B in “standby” position, request the pilot to return the transponder to normal operation and then observe the reappearance of the target.
68
Identify a primary target by one of the following methods:
- Observing a target whose position with respect to a fix or a visual representation corresponds with a direct position report from the aircraft
- Observing a target making an identifying turn of 30 degrees or more, provided that the aircraft is in your airspace and above the MIA in your area
69
Phraseology to inform an aircraft that it is radar contact
“RADAR CONTACT (position, if required).”
70
Inform an aircraft when radar service is terminated because:
- Identification is no longer necessary
- Aircraft proceeds into nonradar coverage area
71
Radar service is automatically terminated and the aircraft need not be advised of termination when:
- An aircraft cancels its IFR flight plan, except:
- Within Class B airspace
- Within Class C airspace
- Where basic radar service is provided
- An aircraft conducting an instrument, visual, or contact approach has either:
- Landed, or
- Been instructed to change to advisory frequency
72
An arriving aircraft shall be informed when radar service is terminated at tower-controlled airports where ____.
Radar coverage does not exist to within ½ mile of the end of the runway.
73
The three types of track are:
- Free Track
- Flight Plan Aided Tracking (FLAT) Track
- Coast Track
74
Free Track
- Position symbol - ∆
- Utilizes latest ground speed and heading information
- Displayed with data block on display
- Oriented relative to initial direction of track based on radar data
75
Flight Plan Aided Tracking (FLAT) Track
Flight Plan Aided Tracking (FLAT) Track
- Position symbol - ◊
- Utilizes Free Track process plus information from the flight plan
- Based on:
− Airway or route heading in the flight plan
− Speed
→ Filed True Airspeed (TAS) determines ground speed prediction
→ Forecast upper winds are taken into consideration
− Planned maneuvers
→ Prediction is based on planned route changes
76
A physical or automated action taken by a controller to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft to another controller if the aircraft will or may enter the airspace or protected airspace of another controller and radio communications will not be transferred.
Point Out
77
The phrase used to inform the controller initiating a point out that the aircraft is identified and that approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace, as coordinated, without a communications transfer or the appropriate automated system response.
“POINT OUT APPROVED”
78
An action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will be transferred.
Handoff
79
The phrase used to inform the controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace.
“RADAR CONTACT”
80
A term used to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller for the purpose of coordinating separation action.
“TRAFFIC”
81
The phrase used to inform the controller issuing the traffic restrictions that the traffic is identified and the restrictions issued are understood and will be complied with.
“TRAFFIC OBSERVED”
82
When making a handoff or point out or issuing a traffic restriction, relay information to the receiving controller in the following order:
- The target position relative to one of the following, which is known and displayed by both the receiving and transferring controller. (Fix, Map symbol, Radar target)
- Aircraft identification, which may be ACID or discrete beacon code
- Altitude information, except when inter/intrafacility directives ensure that the altitude information will be known by the receiving controller
82
If identification is questionable for any reason, take immediate action to:
- Re-identify the aircraft
- Terminate radar service
83
Prior to transferring communication:
- Resolve potential airspace violations and aircraft conflicts
- Coordinate with all controllers through whose airspace the aircraft will pass before entering the receiving controller’s airspace
- Relay any restrictions issued to ensure separation to the receiving controller
84
Initiate verbal coordination before transferring control of a track when any one of the following is displayed in the data block:
- CST (Coast status)
- FAIL (handoff not accepted)
- NONE (beacon code assigned but not received)
85
Interphone handoff phraseology (Transferring controller)
“HANDOFF (aircraft position) (aircraft ID) (altitude, restrictions, and other
appropriate information, if applicable).”
86
Interphone handoff phraseology (Receiving controller)
“(Aircraft ID) (restrictions, if applicable) RADAR CONTACT.”
OR
“UNABLE (appropriate information, as required).”
87
4 Types of Handoffs
Automated
Automatic
Manual
Physical
87
Phraseology for Interphone Point Out (Transfering Controller)
“POINT OUT (aircraft position)
(aircraft ID)
(altitude and appropriate restrictions not contained in the data block)
(pertinent information not contained in the data block, if applicable)”
88
Phraseology for Interphone Point Out (Receiving Controller)
“(Aircraft ID) (restrictions, if applicable) POINT OUT APPROVED.”
OR
“RADAR CONTACT (appropriate information, as required).”
OR
“UNABLE (appropriate information, as required).”
89
Phraseology for observing traffic (Receiving Controller)
“(Aircraft ID) TRAFFIC OBSERVED.”
90
Generally, ATC will not clear an aircraft direct to any fix further than ____.
The fix immediately prior to the STAR name.
91
During periods of automated data transfer between facilities, coordination shall be effected with the receiving ARTCC before departure of an aircraft when the departure point is less than __________ flying time from the ARTCC boundary.
5 Minutes
92
The time requirement of JO 7110.65 para 2-2-6a may be reduced from _________ to __________ when using automated systems.
15 Minutes to 5 Minutes
92
Houston ARTCC shall ensure that all aircraft west of J31 landing at Vicksburg Airport (KVKS) or in the Jackson terminal area cross the center boundary at or below _____ descending to ____________. However, prop/turboprop aircraft landing in the Jackson terminal area from the PCU-LO sector shall be issued descent clearance to _______. (ZAE/ZHU)
FL230
11,000 Feet
7,000 Feet
93
Aero ARTCC shall ensure that all aircraft above _______ and west of J35 landing at Alexandria International Airport (KAEX) or Esler Regional Airport (KESF) cross the center boundary at or below _____ descending to _______. (ZAE/ZHU)
13,000 Feet
FL230
13,000 Feet
94
Aero ARTCC shall ensure that all aircraft above ______ and west of the ZAE sector 66/65 common boundary
landing at KHEZ or KMCB cross the ZAE/ZHU center boundary at or below _______ descending to _______
unless otherwise coordinated. (ZAE/ZHU)
6,000 Feet
12,000 Feet
6,000 Feet
95
Vertical limit of Jackson approach during a radar environment
10,000 Feet
96
Vertical limit of Monroe approach during a radar environment
12,000 Feet
97
ARTCC shall clear turbojet arrivals, operating at or above _________ to the destination airport, to cross the
ATCT lateral boundary at ______ and _____. Propeller-driven aircraft shall cross the lateral boundary
at _______. (ZAE/JAN)
11,000 Feet
11,000 Feet
250 Knots
7,000 Feet
98
Turbojets shall cross _____ east of MLU VORTAC at __________. Turbojets operating below ______ feet require individual coordination.
31 Miles
13,000 Feet
13,000 Feet
99
Separation of targets is applied between ______.
The center of the targets
100
Radar separation shall be applied to all RNAV aircraft on a random route at or below _______.
FL450
101
Do not use information in data blocks displaying _____ or ______ in the application of either radar or non-radar separation.
"CST" or "FRZN"
102
Separate an aircraft from another aircraft:
(Radar minima)
- At or above FL600 - 10 miles
- Below FL600 - 5 miles
- Up to and including FL230 and within 40 miles of the antenna - 3 miles if specified in a facility directive
103
When transitioning from terminal to en route – 3 miles increasing to 5 miles or greater, provided:
- Aircraft are diverging or lead aircraft is faster
- Separation is constant or increasing
- 5 miles or other appropriate separation is obtained within the first center sector
- Procedure is covered by a Letter of Agreement and limited to specific routes and/or sector positions
104
Super separation standards
- Behind a Super – 5 miles
- When a Super is operating at or below 250 KIAS and below FL240:
→ Heavy — 6 miles
→ Large — 7 miles
→ Small — 8 miles
- Visual separation rules shall not be applied with respect to a Super
105
In regards to wake turbulence, separate an aircraft operating directly behind and less than 1,000 feet below, or following an aircraft conducting an instrument approach by:
- 4 miles - heavy behind a heavy
- 4 miles - large/heavy behind a B757
- 5 miles - small behind a B757
- 5 miles - small/large behind a heavy
106
Separate aircraft from obstructions by:
5 miles
107
Separate aircraft from adjacent airspace below FL600:
- Adjacent radar controlled airspace - 2½ miles
- Adjacent nonradar controlled airspace - 5 miles
108
Separate aircraft from adjacent airspace above FL600:
- Adjacent radar controlled airspace - 5 miles
- Adjacent nonradar controlled airspace - 10 miles
109
Separate aircraft from Special Use Airspace (SUA) and Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) laterally:
- Below FL600 - 3 miles
- FL600 and above - 6 miles
110
Separate aircraft from Special Use Airspace (SUA) and Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) vertically:
- FL290 and below - 500 feet
- Above FL290 - 1,000 feet
111
Separation for formation flights
- Aircraft from a standard formation flight
- Add 1 mile to appropriate radar minima
- Two standard formation flights from each other
- Add 2 miles to the appropriate radar minima
- Aircraft from a nonstandard formation flight
- Apply appropriate minima to the perimeter of the airspace encompassing the nonstandard formation or from the outermost aircraft
- If necessary, assign appropriate beacon code to each aircraft in the formation or to the first and last aircraft in trail
112
A function of certain air traffic control automated systems designed to alert radar controllers to existing or pending situations between tracked targets (known IFR or VFR aircraft) that require immediate attention/action.
Conflict Alert (CA)
113
A function of certain air traffic control automated systems to alert radar controllers to existing or pending situations between a tracked target (known IFR or VFR aircraft) and an untracked target (unknown IFR or VFR aircraft) that require immediate attention/action.
Mode C Intruder (MCI) alert
114
Consider a readout valid when:
It varies less than 300 feet from pilot reported altitude
115
Phraseology for validating Mode C altitude
"SAY ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL"
116
Phraseology for automatic altitude reporting
“SQUAWK ALTITUDE.”
OR
“STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK.”
117
An aircraft’s altitude, transmitted via the Mode C transponder feature, that is visually displayed in 100-foot increments on a radar display having readout capability.
Altitude readout
118
A heading issued to an aircraft to provide navigational guidance by radar.
Vector
119
Minimum altitudes for IFR operations as prescribed in 14 CFR, Part 91. These altitudes are published on aeronautical charts and prescribed in 14 CFR, Part 95 for airways and routes, and in 14 CFR, Part 97 for standard instrument approach procedures.
Minimum IFR Altitudes (MIAs)
120
The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway or J-Route segment. It may be utilized for radar vectoring only upon the controller’s determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts depicting Minimum Vectoring Altitudes are normally available to controllers, and not to pilots.
Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)
121
In designated mountainous areas, ________ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of ____ nautical miles from the course to be flown
2,000 Feet
4 NM
122
Other than mountainous areas, ________ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of ____ nautical miles from the course to be flown
1,000 Feet
4 NM
123
Vector an IFR aircraft if it is:
- Within controlled airspace
- At or above the appropriate minimum altitude
- Within your area of jurisdiction, unless otherwise coordinated
- Permitted to resume its own navigation within radar coverage
124
Determine the appropriate vector heading based on these factors:
- Wind
- Weather
- Traffic
- Pilot requests
124
Vector aircraft by specifying:
Direction of turn, if appropriate, and magnetic heading to be flown
125
Except during En Route Flight Data Processing (FDP) operations, forward flight plan information to appropriate:
- ATC Facilities
- FSS’s
- Military Base Operations (BASOPS)
126
Forward the following information for arrivals
- Aircraft identification
- Type of aircraft and equipment suffix
- Heavy indicator, if appropriate
- Number of aircraft, if more than one
- ETA or actual time over clearance limit and proposed or actual altitude
- Do not forward ETA if information is forwarded during a radar handoff
- Include altitude restrictions inside approach control airspace
- Clearance limit (when other than destination airport) and EFC time issued:
- Clearance limit may be omitted if covered in an LOA
- The ZAE/JAN APCH LOA requires forwarding of destination airport if other than KJAN.
- Time, fix, or altitude when control responsibility is transferred to approach control
- May be omitted if covered in an LOA
126
Forward inbound information to approach control facilities before ________.
Transfer of control jurisdiction
127
Transfer radio communications and control responsibility _________.
Early enough to allow receiving facility to clear aircraft beyond clearance limit prior to aircraft reaching it.
127
Forward to FSS the following information from airborne military flights:
- IFR flight plans
- Changes from VFR to IFR flight plans
- Changes to IFR flight plans, such as:
- Change in destination
- Change in fuel exhaustion time
128
Provide service in accordance with FAA Order JO 7110.65 except when:
- Other procedures/minima are prescribed in:
- Letters of Agreement (LOAs)
- FAA or military documents
- Deviation is necessary to assist aircraft when an emergency has been declared
129
Give first priority to:
- Separating aircraft
- Issuing safety alerts
- Providing support to national security and homeland defense activities
130
Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a first-come, first-served basis, except:
- Aircraft in distress have right of way over all other air traffic
- Military Air Evacuation Flights, when requested
- Scheduled air carrier/air taxi/civilian air ambulance flights using “MEDEVAC” call sign
- Search and Rescue (SAR) aircraft while performing an SAR mission
- Presidential or vice presidential aircraft and any escort aircraft
- Flight Check aircraft
131
A geographical position determined by a fix (up to 5 characters), an azimuth from the fix (3 digits in degrees magnetic), and a distance from the fix in nautical miles (3 digits).
Fix Radial Distance (FRD)
131
When a pilot declares “MINIMUM FUEL,” the controller should:
- Inform any other controller or facility that will assume control of the aircraft
- Provide necessary assistance
- Avoid undue delays
132
A specific arrival route from an appropriate en route point to an airport or terminal area. It may be included in a Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) or a Preferred IFR Route. The abbreviation “PAR” is used primarily within the ARTCC and should not be confused with the abbreviation for Precision Approach Radar.
Preferential Arrival Route (PAR)
133
A pre-planned Instrument Flight Rule (IFR) air traffic control arrival procedure published for pilot use in graphic and/or textual form. ______ provide transition from the en route structure to an outer fix or an instrument approach fix/arrival waypoint in the terminal area.
Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
134
A pre-planned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic control (ATC) departure procedure printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure.
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
135
Use these terms to issue departure clearances when necessary:
- “DEPART”
- “FLY”
- “DEPARTURE”
## Footnote
Avoid using “TAKEOFF” except when clearing an aircraft for takeoff or canceling a takeoff clearance. The word “TAKEOFF” is used only in the tower/terminal environment.
136
At airports without airport traffic control service within Class E surface area, specify as necessary:
- Direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown
## Footnote
Solicit pilot’s concurrence before issuing these in a clearance
137
Include the following items in IFR departure clearances:
-Airport of departure when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by a noncontrol facility (Flight Data Unit, dispatcher, etc.)
- Clearance limit
- Specify destination airport even though outside controlled airspace
- Issue short-range clearance limit as provided for in any established procedures
- When the clearance limit is a NAVAID, the type of NAVAID must follow the NAVAID name.
138
Issue an abbreviated departure clearance if its use reduces verbiage and the following conditions are met:
- Filed route of flight is unchanged prior to departure:
- By pilot
- By company
- By operations officer
- By input operator
- In the stored flight plan program
- All ATC facilities concerned have sufficient route of flight information to exercise control responsibilities
139
Altimeter settings for lowest usable flight level:
29.92 or higher - FL180
29.91 to 28.92 - FL190
28.91 to 27.92 - FL200
140
When issuing holding instructions, specify direction of turn if:
- Left turns are to be made
- Pilot requests
- Controller deems it necessary
## Footnote
“LEFT/RIGHT TURNS.”
141
The ZAE/JAN APCH LOA requires forwarding of destination airport if
Other than KJAN
142
Information to forward to nonapproach control towers:
- Aircraft identification
- Type of aircraft
- ETA
- Type of instrument approach the aircraft will execute, or
- Position of aircraft on visual approach (radar)
143
When should you forward arrival information to nonapproach control towers
- Soon enough to permit adjustment of traffic flow
- Prior to issuing clearance which would require flight within the surface area
144
Standard Non-radar separation minima
20 Miles or 10 minutes
145
Protect airspace along other than established airways or routes:
4 miles on each side of the route to a point 51 miles from the NAVAID
146
Minima when lead aircraft is at least 44 knots faster between:
- Non-DME aircraft - 3 minutes
- DME and/or RNAV using ATD aircraft - 5 miles
- DME and ATD aircraft - 5 miles
147
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
Distress
148
1 Minute Rule
- For courses diverging by 45 degrees or more after departure from adjacent or same airport immediately after takeoff
149
A condition of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely but not immediate assistance—a potential distress condition.
Urgency
150
Phraseology repeated three times by the pilot for Distress and Urgency conditions:
Distress condition - “MAYDAY”
Urgency condition - “PAN-PAN”
151
If “MAYDAY” or “PAN-PAN” is not used and you are unsure that a situation constitutes an emergency:
Handle as though it were an emergency
152
Consider an emergency to exist when any of the following occurs:
- Emergency is declared by:
- Pilot
- Facility personnel
- Officials responsible for operation of the aircraft
- There is an unexpected loss of radar contact and radio communications with IFR or VFR aircraft
- Reports of forced landing or crew abandonment of aircraft
- Emergency radar beacon response has been received
- Need for ground rescue appears likely
- Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) signal is heard or reported
153
All pertinent ELT signal information shall be forwarded to the appropriate authorities by the _______.
Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
154
When a foreign air carrier is involved in an emergency situation:
Notify the ARTCC serving the departure or destination airport when either point is in the U.S. for relay to the aircraft operator
155
Minimum information requirements:
| Emergency situations
- Aircraft identification and type
- Nature of emergency
- Pilot’s desires
155
During emergency situations, keep aircraft on ______.
Initial contact frequency
| Change frequencies only when there is a valid reason
156
Emergency frequencies:
- 121.5 MHz (VHF)
- 243.0 MHz (UHF)
157
Assign code to an aircraft when the pilot declares an emergency and the aircraft is **not** radar-identified.
7700
158
Phraseology for assigning an aircraft a 7700 beacon code
“SQUAWK MAYDAY ON 7700.”
159
The facility responsible must restrict/suspend IFR traffic for a period of 30 minutes following the applicable time listed:
| For overdue traffic
- Time at which approach clearance was delivered to pilot
- EFC time delivered to pilot
- Arrival time over NAVAID serving destination airport
- Current estimate, facility or pilot, whichever is later
- Appropriate en route NAVAID or fix
- NAVAID serving destination airport
- Release time and, if issued, clearance void time
160
Consider an aircraft to be overdue; initiate procedures in FAA Order JO
7110.65, Chapter 10, Section 3; and issue an ALNOT when:
Neither communications nor radar contact can be established and 30 minutes have passed since:
- ETA over specified or compulsory reporting point in your area, or clearance limit in your area
- Clearance void time
161
In addition to routing to the regional office operations center for the area in which the facility is located, issue an ALNOT to all ARTCCs:
50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to the destination
162
An ALNOT is canceled when either:
- Aircraft has been located, or
- Search has been abandoned
163
when the pilot is able to navigate using visual references outside the cockpit. Pilots flying under VFR flight rules must operate in VMC. IFR pilots can be operating in VMC.
Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
164
when the pilot is only able to navigate using instrument references inside the cockpit. To legally operate in IMC, a pilot must be instrument-rated and on an IFR flight plan.
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)
165
Controllers shall advise pilots of hazardous weather that may impact
operations within ______ of their sector or area of jurisdiction.
150NM
166
Solicit PIREPs when requested or when one of the following conditions
exist or is forecasted for your area of jurisdiction:
- Ceilings at or below 5,000 feet (include cloud base/tops report)
- Visibility (surface and aloft) at or less than five miles
- Thunderstorms and other related phenomena
- Turbulence (moderate or greater)
- Icing (light or greater)
- Wind shear
- Volcanic ash clouds
167
A concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations, but at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of a SIGMET.
AIRMET
168
A concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations.
SIGMET
169
An aviation weather warning for conditions meeting or approaching national in-flight advisory (AIRMET, SIGMET or Convective SIGMET) criteria.
CWA
170
A joint FAA/NWS weather support team located in all EN ROUTE CENTERS.
CWSU
171
Any irregular motion of an aircraft in flight, especially when characterized by rapid up-and-down motion, caused by a rapid variation in wind speed or direction.
Turbulence
172
Turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.
Light Turbulence
173
Turbulence that is similar to light turbulence but of greater intensity. Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
Moderate Turbulence
174
Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control.
Severe Turbulence
175
Turbulence in which the aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control.
Extreme Turbulence
176
Airspace utilization under prescribed conditions, normally employed for the mass movement of aircraft under special user requirements that cannot otherwise be accomplished. _________ are approved by the appropriate ATC facility.
Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)
177
A condition whereby the military services involved assume responsibility for separation between participating military aircraft in the ATC system. It is used only for required IFR operations that are specified in Letters of Agreement or other appropriate FAA or military documents.
Military Authority Assumes Responsibility for Separation of
Aircraft (MARSA)
178
Airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and/or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities.
Special Use Airspace (SUA)
179
Airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. Alert Areas are depicted on aeronautical charts for the information of nonparticipating pilots. All activities within an Alert Area are conducted in accordance with Federal Aviation Regulations, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
Alert Area
180
Airspace wherein activities are conducted under conditions so controlled as to eliminate hazards to nonparticipating aircraft and to ensure the safety of persons and property on the ground.
Controlled Firing Area
181
Airspace established outside of a Class A airspace area to separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted.
Military Operations Area (MOA)
| The upper vertical limit of a MOA can be up to, but not including, FL180
181
Airspace designated under FAR, Part 73 within which no person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the using agency.
Prohibited Area
182
Airspace designated under FAR, Part 73 within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. Most restricted areas are designated joint use, and IFR/VFR operations in the area may be authorized by the controlling ATC facility when it is not being utilized by the using agency. Restricted areas are depicted on en route charts. Where joint use is authorized, the name of the ATC controlling facility is also shown.
Restricted Area
183
Airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such a warning area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both.
Warning Area
184
Airspace of defined vertical/lateral limits assigned by ATC for the purpose of providing air traffic segregation between the specified activities being conducted within the assigned airspace and other IFR air traffic.
ATC Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
185
A procedure used by the military to transfer fuel from one aircraft to another during flight.
Aerial refueling
186
The art and science of finding one’s geographic position by means of astronomical observations, particularly by measuring altitudes of celestial objects—sun, moon, planets, or stars. During CELNAV training, the pilot will advise ATC before initiating any heading changes which exceed 20 degrees.
Celestial Navigation (CELNAV)
187
Consists of more than one aircraft which, by prior arrangement between pilots, operate as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting.
Formation Flight
188
The manual or automatic display of the current status of position-related equipment and operational conditions or procedures.
Status Information Area (SIA)
189
Manually recorded items of information kept at designated locations on the position of operation. They may be an element of the Status Information Area(s).
Written notes
190
An ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief.
Checklist
191
Ensure any known pertinent status information is:
| Position Relief Briefing
- Accurately relayed to the relieving controller, or
- Displayed in the Status Information Area(s), or
- Relayed to the position responsible for displaying it
192
- Provide a briefing that is ______ and ________.
- Shall brief on equipment with the ____________ displayed.
Complete, Accurate
Outage View
193
Prior to accepting responsibility for the position, ensure:
| Position Relief Briefing
- Any unresolved questions are answered
- A briefing takes place to your total satisfaction
194
Share equal responsibility for:
| Position Relief Briefing
- Completeness and accuracy of the briefing
- Conducting the briefing at the position being relieved
195
Briefing process consists of four steps:
- Step 1 – Preview the Position (Relieving Specialist)
- Step 2 – Verbal briefing (Specialist Being Relieved)
- Step 3 – Assumption of position responsibility (Relieving Specialist)
- Step 4 – Review the position (Specialist Being Relieved)
196
Record each pertinent status information item as soon as operationally feasible to prevent:
| Position Relief Briefing
- Omission during briefing
- Incorrect memory recall
