Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Challenger 350 Study v1.0 Frank > CL350 Initial Systems Test > Flashcards

CL350 Initial Systems Test Flashcards

1
Q

With torque link attached what is the limit of rotation of the nose gear?

Day 1

A

120° with torque links attached, and NWS de-energized?

Exceeding 120° causes “NWS LIMIT EXCEEDED” CAS message.

Indicating pins shear at 123°

Torque links may be disconnected to allow towing at any angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which doors are monitored by the door warning system?

Day 1

A 
Main
Emergency
Cargo
Aft Equipment Bay
Battery Bay

MECAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens when you turn on the battery switches?

Day 1

A

All buses are powered
IRS begins aligning (cyan message on PFD)
CVR turns on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of the APU?

Day 1

A

Supplies air and electric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does the APU receive it’s fuel?

Day 1

A

Right collector tank

Collector tanks hold 500lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Under what conditions will the passenger door caution (amber) CAS message display when the aircraft is on the ground and the door is not fully secured?

Day 1

A

Left engine run switch on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the maximum usable fuel load for pressure refueling?
Over wing refueling?

Day 1

A

Pressure: 14,150lbs

Over Wing: 13,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal takeoff thrust for the HTF7350 engine?

Day 1

A

7,372 lbs
Flat rated at ISA+15c at sea level

APR increases power to +20c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which EICAS message requires prompt action?

Day 1

A

Prompt: Amber (caution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the meanings for the following synoptic colors?

Red
Amber
Green
White

Day 1

A

Red - Exceedence
Amber- Component failure no flow, energy, or pressure
Green - Normal with flow
White - Normal without flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When will the FDR begin recording?

Day 2

A

Beacon ON or WOW (weight OFF wheels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

With Emergency Lights armed, when will they illuminate?

Day 2

A

Loss of right Main Bus power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

Day 2

A 
Assists with gear retraction with loss of pressure in left hydraulic system due to
Left EDP (engine driven pump failure).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What electronically controls the landing gear system?

Day 2

A

PSEU: Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which primary flight control system does not have hydraulic assist?

Day 2

A

Ailerons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which spoilers act as multifunction spoilers?

Day 2

A

1,2 and 7,8

outboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When are select EICAS messages inhibited for takeoff and landing?

Day 2

A

Takeoff - Airspeed above 80 kts until 400 feet

Landing - Below 400 feet until less than 40 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When will the Bus Tie open?

Day 3

A

2 or more generators online.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight?

Day 3

A

Essential buses and Battery buses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long will the Essential buses and Battery buses last on battery power only?

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When will the Auxiliary buses load shed?

Day 3

A

Single generator operation in flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dual fire detection loops in the engine and APU fire provide information to what component?

Day 3

A

FIREX-CU Fire Detection and Extinguishing Control Unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When the air source selector is selected to Trim Air Only, what is the valve sequence?

Day 3

A

Left Flow Control Valve closes
Right Flow Control Valve opens
Pre-cooler Crossover Valve closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the CABIN DELTA P warning CAS message indicate?

Day 3

A

Cabin pressure is
> 9.2 PSI or < -.5 PSI

  1. 8 PSI = Norm >= FL420
    * Cabin = 7850’ and 8.8 PSI at FL450
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Until what point is the Takeoff and Return to Base sequence active in the system? Day 3
At 6,000' or 10 minutes.
26
When crossing the holding fix for a hold manually entered in the FMS, what is displayed at the bottom of the legs page at 6L? Day 3
Exit Hold
27
What is the minimum pavement width required to make a 180 degree turn with a 5 ft safety margin? Day 4
58'
28
What is the purpose of the Scavenge Ejectors? Day 4
Transfer fuel from the Lowest inboard section of the wing to the Collector Tank.
29
Which pneumatic system uses HP air? Day 4
Wing and engine Anti-Ice
30
How many Ice detectors are required to generate an ICE DETECTED CAS message? Day 4
One
31
What EICAS Message will be displayed with Anti-Ice systems off and ICE DETECTED? Anti-Ice System on? Day 4
Anti-Ice Off - ICE DETECTED in Amber. Anti-Ice On - ICE DETECTED in Cyan
32
Following an aborted start, how long must the engine be dry motored before an additional start may be attempted? Day 4
30 seconds
33
At and below what temperature must the engine anti-ice system be on with snow, ice, standing water or slush present? Day 4
10°C OAT
34
What is the maximum altitude the APU may be used for Bleed Air? Day 4
20,000'
35
Max altitude to use APU electric?
30,000'
36
Max altitude to operate APU
37,000'
37
Max altitude to start APU
30,000'
38
Maximum speed for APU start
285 kts
39
Max altitude (field elevation) using the APU to start the left engine on the ground
9,000'
40
What does IASC stand for?
Integrated Air System Controller ECS and Pressurization Control
41
How many igniters does the each engine have? Day 5
2
42
When should you manually select engine ignition ON? Day 5
Contaminated runways Moderate or heavier rain Moderate or greater turbulence In the vicinity of thunderstorms
43
What happens when an ENGINE FIRE is detected? Day 5
``` MW illuminates 3 Chimes ENG FIRE CAS Message Aural "Engine Fire" FIRE on N1 (red) Engine fire switch illuminates ```
44
Pressing EMER DEPRESS does what in auto mode? Manual mode? Day 5
Auto mode: 2,500' fpm up to 14,000 +/-100' Manual mode: 3,000' fpm up to 14,500' +/- 500'
45
What is the power source for the Left DCMP? What is the power source for the Right DCMP? Day 5
Left DCMP - Right Main Bus | Right DCMP - Left Essential Bus
46
Where is the Fuel/Hydraulic heat exchanger located? Day 5
In each wing fuel tank
47
How long will the Emergency lights illuminate at ambient temperature? Day 6
15 with normal ambient temps | 10 minutes if cold
48
Oxygen quantity and unit displayed on the outside panel? Quantity and unit displayed inside cockpit on MFD? Day 6
Outside 1,850 PSI | Inside 5,439L
49
At what cabin altitude will the EPAV cause the passenger masks to auto deploy? Day 6
14,500' + - 500'
50
When will the DCMP Hydraulic pumps run continuously
With flaps beyond 0 degrees
51
Min fuel for go-around
1,000 Lbs
52
IP air is used for what systems? What is the max PSI?
Engine Starting Environmental Control System Pressurization Max PSI = 50
53
Pressure relief valves are set to what PSI?
Over Pressure 9.4 PSI Under Pressure -.5 PSI (2 valves)
54
What is the reason for: Amber Cabin Altitude CAS message Red Cabin Altitude CAS message
Caution at 8,500' Cabin Altitude Warning at 9400' Cabin Altitude *Airports above 7850' MSL resets CAS messages to: Caution: Add 650' to highest planned field elevation Warning: Add 1550' to highest planned field elevation
55
What kind of batteries are in the Challenger 350?
24V NICAD | 44 amp/hr
56
Max Generator Loads with 2 Generators on the ground
400 amps
57
Max Generator Loads with 1 Generator in flight
500 amps
58
Max Generator Load Transient
600 amps for 5 minutes
59
When does the CVR start recording and how long does it last?
Starts recording when Battery power is applied and records for 2 hrs
60
When does the FDR come on and how long can it record?
Starts with BCN selected on or weight off wheels and records for 25hrs
61
What does the PMA - Permanent Magnet Alternator power?
FADEC above 45% N2
62
Aux Hydraulic pump pressure
2,500 - 3350 psi
63
Pushing the ENG FIRE switch does what 7 things?
1. FADEC commands engine shutdown 2. FIREX bottle ARMED lights illuminate 3. FIREX arms extinguisher bottle squibs 4. Fuel is shutoff 5. Pneumatic is shutoff 6. Hydraulic is shutoff 7. Generator is selected offline
64
Ram Air Valve can only be opened below
10,000'
65
What is needed in order to get TO-TO (TOGA) on the flight director?
V speeds Flaps set to takeoff Engines running
66
Max Altitude with Yaw Damper off
31,000'
67
Which EICAS message requires Immediate action?
Immediate: Red (warning)
68
Total Circuit Breaker panels
7 total CB panels 2 in cockpit (Cockpit prep check) 2 in galley (Cockpit prep check) 1 additional in Galley 2 in aft equipment bay
69
Nose wheel steering: | Tiller and Rudder Pedals limits
Tiller - 65° | Rudder Pedals - 7°
70
What doors must be unlocked for flight? Why?
Battery Bay Outflow Valve Aft Equipment bay Cargo (NJ specific) -For bleed line overpressure BOCA
71
APU Planned Fuel burn
150 pph
72
Bleed air switches are normally:
All on or all off
73
Configuration Warning
``` Parking Brake Disconnect (2) Flaps Autopilot Spoilers Trims (3) ``` PDFAST
74
EICAS shows messages in what order?
Order of importance | Order of occurrence
75
ROLS is what?
Remote Oil Level Sensor
76
Oil must be checked when?
5 to 30 minutes after shut-down
77
What is the EPAV?
Electro Pneumatic Actuating Valve | Oxygen Control
78
How long do the Aft Equipment bay light stay on?
20 Minutes | After 15 Minutes the lights will flash for 10 seconds and then turn off
79
Where are the Fire Extinguishers located?
3 extinguishers located in: Cockpit Coat Closet Lavatory
80
Where is the Therapeutic O2 outlet located?
Behind the VIP seat just ahead of the Emergency exit. | The mask is in a drawer under the divan.
81
How much fuel is required to keep the Fuel Hydraulic heat exchanger system completely submerged?
2,800 lbs | 1,400 each side
82
Standby Instrument is powered by which bus?
Right Essential bus | Battery pack good for 3.5 hours.
83
Ditching switch available below what altitude? Day 5
15,000'
84
Ditching switch only in what mode? Day 5
Auto
85
What does the Ditching switch do? Day 5
Depressurizes the cabin Disables the ECS (Flow Control Valves) Closes the outflow valve
86
Oxygen masks auto deploy at what altitude?
14,500' + - 500 feet.
87
At what cabin altitude will pax oxygen masks stop delivering oxygen?
9,500' + - 500 feet.
88
When connecting External power to the aircraft, when will the AVAIL light come on?
When the power is the correct voltage and polarity
89
HP air provides air for which system and at what PSI?
Anti-Ice @ 36 psi
90
With less than 1,000 lbs of fuel per side, limit flight to less than?
30 Minutes
91
What happens when Engine Run switch is positioned to On?
Fuel Pumps On FADEC initialized *If Cabin or Cargo open White Cas turns Amber with Left Run
92
After takeoff with the APU operating the ECS, what is the correct button sequence to transfer the bleeds from the APU to the engines? Day 3
Set the bleed switches to the following: X BLEED - closed L BLEED - ON APU BLEED - OFF R BLEED - ON "C" *Landing order is a backwards "C" - R A L X
93
What are the maximum operating speeds to extend flaps? Day 2
``` 10° = 210kts 20° = 210kts 30° = 175kts ```
94
Wing anti-ice fails in what position? Day 4
Fails (spring loaded) to the CLOSED position
95
How many Ice detectors are installed on the Challenger 350? Day 5
2
96
Where is the fuel/hydraulic heat exchanger located? Day 5
Wing fuel tank
97
Hydraulic Pressure for EDP and DCMP
EDP - 3000 PSI | DCMP - 2,800 PSI
98
What is the battery life of the Standby Indicator? Day 6
3.5 hours
99
How long can the engine be cranked and how long does it need to cool before a further start may be attempted? Day 5
Cranked for up to 5 minutes followed by a cooling period of 15 minutes prior to additional starts or motoring.
100
What is the purpose of the safety valves? Day 6
They prevent cabin overpressure and negative pressure conditions (one each)
101
How many Air Data Computers are in the Challenger 350? Day 6
2
102
What PSI is a fully charged oxygen system Day 6
1850 PSI at the fill port Oxygen quantity is displayed on EICAS and SUMMARY synoptic pages.
103
What is the duration of the batteries in the event of a total loss of generator power? Day 6
1 hour ESSCs open Bus Tie Contactor closes Batteries directly power their essential busses and battery busses only, and share loads through the closed Bus Tie.
104
When manual mode is selected on the pressurization panel the pilot is controlling what? Day 6
In manual mode the pilot manually controls the outflow valve.
105
Where is the oxygen service point located? Day 6
Right side of fuselage, directly forward of the right engine.
106
Fuel Max Imbalance Quantities
``` >13,700lbs = 250lbs 10,000-13,699lbs = 315lbs 4,700-9,999lbs = 450lbs <4700lbs = 600lbs ``` Max Imbalance during gravity refueling = 250lbs

Challenger 350 Study v1.0 Frank (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions