Class 3 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

Canadian legal system operates on three levels of government:

A

federal, provincial, municipal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Constitution Act of 1982 (Schedule B to the Canada Act 1982), under the separation of powers, entrusts provinces or federal governments with competence over health care matters?

A

provinces with competence over health care matters (certain federal laws still deal with universal principles, such as accessibility and universality of care, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The scope and standards of practice for medical professionals and rights of users of health services are determined by

A

provincial laws and regulations.;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ethical standards and best professional practices are often imposed by

A

the provincial professional orders, such as the OIIQ;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Doctrine

A

scholarly materials written by legal experts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Jurisprudence

A

power of precedent, judges follow certain thought patterns/principles, creates certainty and consistency, ensures cases are pure and just

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

5 basic rights patients have (AHSSS covers the rights and obligations of users and providers of health services and social services in Quebe)

A

The aforementioned AHSSS covers the rights and obligations of users and providers of health services and social services in Quebec.
More specifically, articles 4 to 16 speak of broad user rights, such as the right to
choose a medical professional (art. 6)
receive services in English (art. 15)
be accompanied by a person of choice (art. 11)
continuity and safety of services (art. 5)
be informed of the existence of options and of risks and benefits of each option (art. 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Doctors and nurses have a statutory duty

A

inform and to obtain free and enlightened consent, produce a correct diagnosis, treat, follow, and to respect professional secrecy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Doctors and nurses have an

A

obligation of means (vs. obligation of result) towards patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Objective Test (for determining whether or not nurse was negligent/failed in his or her obligations):

A

Did the nurse act with the ordinary competence and diligence of a nurse placed in the same circumstances (nurse having the same specialty and practicing in the same type of environment)?
Must provide care that adheres to the current, generally accepted standards and practices in similar situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Article 1463 CCQ:

who is the hospital responsible for?
who is responsible for the nurse?

A

The principle is liable to reparation for injury caused by the fault of his agents and servants in the performance of their duties; nevertheless, he retains his recourses against them.

Outside of the hospital or health center setting, the doctor is often responsible for the actions of a nurse.

Drs are not employees of the hospital, they are considered people who work there (hospital is not responsible for them)

In both cases, the hospital and the doctor may still sue the nurse – the nurse is still individually responsible for his or her wrongdoing.

Patients usually sue hospitals in a medical malpractice lawsuit and not an individual nurse (although there are exceptions).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nurses are required to know and apply

A

specific recognized standards of practice in their field of specialty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Behavior that does not meet established standards of care can be considered a

A

breach of obligations, even if the nurse is convinced that she is doing the right thing, since intentionality is not considered a parameter for establishing fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Committing a professional fault is distinguished from a

A

simple error of judgment through deviation from the standards of practice, and its assessment is based on what a “Reasonable professional” would have done in such circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Professional liability is governed by the principles of ordinary civil liability. Generally, doctors have an

A

obligation of means, and their conduct must be assessed against the conduct of a prudent and diligent doctor placed in the same circumstances. Medical professionals should not be held liable for mere errors of judgment* which are distinguishable from professional fault.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Negligence vs. Malpractice

A

Negligence (“failure to use such care as a reasonably prudent and careful person would use under similar circumstances”)and

Malpractice* (“improper or unethical conduct or unreasonable lack of skill by a holder of a professional or official position; often applied to physicians, dentists, lawyers, and public officers to denote negligent or unskillful performance of duties when professional skills are obligatory”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In reality, malpractice is synonymous with what? What type of offence is this?

A

professional negligence, giving rise to civil/professional responsibility, a civil offence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Misconduct

A

more administrative, than civil, in nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

10 CCQ (capacity & informed consent)

A

Every person is inviolable and is entitled to the integrity of his person. Except in cases provided for by law, no one may interfere with his person without his free and enlightened consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

11 CCQ (capacity 7 informed consent)

A

No one may be made to undergo care of any nature, whether for examination, specimen taking, removal of tissue, treatment or any other act, except with his consent. Except as otherwise provided by law, the consent is subject to no other formal requirement and may be withdrawn at any time*, even verbally….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

8 LSSS (capacity & informed consent)

A

Before giving his consent to care concerning him, every user of health services and social services is entitled to be informed of his state of health and welfare and to be acquainted with the various options* open to him and the risks and consequences generally associated with each option.
The user is also entitled to be informed, as soon as possible, of any accident …. (e.g. wrongly administered medication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

9 LSSS (capacity & informed consent)

A

No person may be made to undergo care of any nature, whether for examination, specimen taking, treatment or any other intervention, except with his consent.
Consent to care or the authorization to provide care shall be given or refused by the user or, as the case may be, his representative or the court, in the circumstances and manner provided for in articles 10 and following of the Civil Code.

23
Q

40 Code of Ethics.

A

A nurse shall provide her or his client with all the explanations necessary for the client’s comprehension of the care, treatment or other professional services being provided to him or her by the nurse.

24
Q

41 Code of Ethics.

When a nurse is obliged to obtain a free and enlightened consent, she or he shall (3):

A

When a nurse is obliged to obtain a free and enlightened consent, she or he shall:
(1) provide the client with all the information required for that purpose;
(2) ensure that the client’s consent remains free and informed for the duration of the period during which she or he provides care, treatment or other professional services;
(3) respect the client’s right to revoke his or her consent at any time.

25
Issues for which patients have a right to information include (4):
The condition of their health; Prognosis; Treatment options; Consequences and risks associated with a given treatment
26
Criteria for existence of informed consent (3):
1.Person must have capacity to consent or refuse care(treatment) 2.Consent must be given freely – no coercion, manipulation, or deception 3.Consent must be enlightened – patient must have all the information necessary to make an informed decision
27
Capacity is a
person’s legal ability to exercise his or her legal rights. Includes right to consent to or refuse treatment
28
Capacity is presumed UNLESS:
The person is a minor Distinction: minors over 14 (Art. 14 CCQ) Persons of full age incapable of giving consent – either temporarily or pursuant to a Court order (Art. 15 &16 CCQ)
29
Minors under 14 years of age:
“Consent required by the state of health of a minor is given by the person having parental authority or by his tutor.” (14 CCQ) Where care is not required by the state of health, it is “given by the person having parental authority or the mandatary, tutor or curator; the authorization of the court is also necessary if the care entails a serious risk to health or if it may cause grave and permanent effects.” (18 CCQ)
30
Minors over 14 years of age:
May give consent alone to care required by the state of health (14 CCQ), however, persons having parental authority or tutor must be informed, if his state of health requires that he remain in a health/social services establishment for over 12 hours. *if the person over 14 is in the hospital for more than 12 hours you need to tell the parents that they are hospitalized (not about why they are there) care not required by the state of his health (17 CCQ), however, consent of the person having parental authority or of the tutor is required if the care entails a serious risk for the health of the minor and may cause him grave and permanent effects.
31
Picking up on the Institut Philippe-Pinel case from the next slide, the court has devised a two tier test, whereby in order to satisfy the first step, as per article 16 of the CCQ, a trial judge would have to find that the patient is (2)
(a) inapt to consent and (b) is categorically refusing treatment.
32
In 2012, the courts has adopted what was known as the five
Nova Scotia criteria through the case of Institut Philippe-Pinel de Montréal c. A.G.
33
5 Nova Scotia criteria
clearly outlines the criteria to determine one’s (in)capacity to care.
34
The motion itself (5 nova scotia) is based on a detailed psychiatric report, whereby the treating psychiatrist would outline the facts, and propose to the court the very specific and very detailed treatment options and address the 5 questions. Namely:
1. Does the person understand the nature of the illness for which treatment is being proposed? 2. Does the person understand the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment (and other available options)? 3. Does the person understand the benefits and risks of the proposed treatment? 4. Does the person understand the risks and consequences of not undergoing the proposed treatment? 5. Is the person's ability to understand affected by their illness?
35
When DO you need a court order? (3)
The authorization of the court is necessary where: the person who may give consent to care required by the state of health of a minor or a person of full age who is incapable of giving his consent is prevented from doing so or, without justification, refuses to do so; a person of full age who is incapable of giving his consent categorically refuses to receive care, except in the case of hygienic care or emergency. it is necessary to submit a minor 14 years of age or over to care he refuses, except in the case of emergency if his life is in danger or his integrity threatened, in which case the consent of the person having parental authority or the tutor is sufficient.
36
x vs x is illustrated in Starsonv. Swayze, [2003] S.C.R. 722
personal autonomy vs. effective medical treatment
37
“Ordinarily at law, the value of X over the value of effective medical treatment. No matter how ill a person, no matter how likely deterioration or death, it is for that person and that person alone to decide whether to accept a proposed medical treatment. However, where the individual is X, or X, to make the decision, the law may override his or her wishes and order hospitalization.” (par. 7)
autonomy prevails, incompetent, lacks the capacity
38
General principle of capacity and informed consent (includes exception) " All patients must give informed consent prior to receiving care, exception in X"
All patients must give informed consent prior to receiving care Exception: Emergencies Art. 13 CCQ: Consent to medical care is not required in case of emergency if the (1) life of the person is in danger or his integrity is threatened AND (2) his consent cannot be obtained in due time. It is required, however, where the care is unusual or has become useless or where its consequences could be intolerable for the person.”
39
When there are defects of consent
Consent is invalid
40
Fear during consent is
a defect/invalid. Consent under pressure often resulting from the circumstances the patient finds himself in Norberg v. Wynrib [1992] 2 S.C.R. 226:
41
CCQ 1398 ( consent)
Consent may be given only by a person who, at the time of manifesting such consent, either expressly or tacitly, is capable of binding himself.
42
CCQ 1399 when could consent be vitiated?
Consent must be free and enlightened. It may be vitiated by error, fear or lesion. Subsequent articles describe various scenarios whereby consent would be vitiated.
43
Art.15 CCQ (Delegated consent)
Where it is ascertained☞ that a person of full age is incapable of giving consent to care required by his or her state of health, consent is given by his or her mandatory, tutor or curator. If the person of full age is not so represented, consent is given by his or her married, civil union or de facto spouse or, if the person has no spouse or his or her spouse is prevented from giving consent, it is given by a close relative or a person who shows a special interest in the person of full age. ☞ capacity is presumed, but if you have reason to believe that person’s capacity is affected, then you can go to delegated decision maker. DON’T NEED A COURT ORDER.
44
Art 12 (Delegated consent)
A person who gives his consent to or refuses care for another person is bound to act in the sole interest of that person, complying, as far as possible, with any wishes the latter may have expressed. If he gives his consent, he shall ensure that the care is beneficial notwithstanding the gravity and permanence of certain of its effects, that it is advisable in the circumstances and that the risks incurred are not disproportionate to the anticipated benefit.
45
Recap of capacity and informed consent points
Patient has capacity to consent (Art. 11 CCQ) No capacity to consent and represented (Art. 15 CCQ) No capacity to consent but not represented (Art. 15 CCQ) Unjustified refusal or impossible to reach representative or substitute (Art. 16 CCQ) Minor is over 14 years of age (Art. 14/17 CCQ) Minor is under 18 years of age (Art. 18 CCQ) No capacity and categorically refuses treatment, regardless of consent by substitute (Art. 16 CCQ)
46
Article 1457 C.C.Q (civil liability)
gives rise to an extracontractual claim in civil law stemming from the obligation not to cause harm. Ex. Patient – hospital relationship Patient – doctor relationship (in emergency/hospital setting)
47
Article 1458 C.C.Q. (civil liability)
gives rise to a contractual claim in civil law stemming from the obligation to honour contractual undertakings. Ex. Patient-Doctor relationship Situations in which patient has hired a private nurse
48
One general “rule” in Quebec Civil Law - Article 1457 CCQ (excontractual liability)
Every person has a duty to abide by the rules of conduct which lie upon him, according to the circumstances, usages or law, so as not to cause injury to another. Where he is endowed with reason and fails in this duty, he is responsible for any injury he causes to another person by such fault and is liable to reparation for the injury, whether it be bodily, moral or material. He is also liable, in certain cases, to reparation for injury caused to another by the act or fault of another person or by the act of things in his custody.
49
Article 1458 CCQ (contractual liability)
Every person has a duty to honour his contractual undertakings. Where he fails in this duty, he is liable for any bodily, moral or material injury he causes to the other contracting party and is liable to reparation for the injury; neither he nor the other party may in such a case avoid the rules governing contractual liability by opting for rules 
 that would be more favourable to them.
50
Elements of liability under Article 1457 C.C.Q. (3)
1.Fault: defendant has committed a fault 2.Damage (harm/prejudice): bodily, moral, material – plaintiff has suffered harm 3.Causation: adequate causal link between fault and damages
51
Prescription (i.e. limitation period):
3 years
52
In other words, 1457 CCQ allows the individual to prove
that another person has acted negligently towards him (i.e. fault) and caused him injury, in order to seek damages as compensation.
53
What legal recourses do patients have when their rights are not being respected?
Pursue the health center and/or the medical professional under: Article 1457 C.C.Q. : gives rise to an **extracontractual claim in civil law** stemming from the **obligation not to cause harm.** Ex. Patient – hospital relationship Patient – doctor relationship (in emergency/hospital setting) Article 1458 C.C.Q. : gives rise to a **contractual claim in civil law** stemming from the **obligation to honour contractual undertakings**. Ex. Patient-Doctor relationship Situations in which patient has hired a private nurse
54
3. Civil Liability (3.1.1. Extracontractual Liability - Overview) - what are the 3 elements? - how do we decide? - how long is it valid for?
Elements of liability under Article 1457 C.C.Q. : 1.**Fault**: defendant has committed a fault 2.**Damage** (harm/prejudice): bodily, moral, material – plaintiff has suffered harm 3.**Causation**: adequate causal link between fault and damages Standard of Proof: Balance of **Probabilities** Prescription (i.e. limitation period): **3 years** In other words, 1457 CCQ allows the individual to prove that another person has acted negligently towards him (i.e. fault) and caused him injury, in order to seek damages as compensation. courts may draw an inference against a defendant if they do not introduce sufficient evidence contrary to the plaintiff’s.