Class Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q
Which of these is a benign smooth muscle tumor of the uterus? 
A. Adenoma
B. Myoma
C. Carcinoma
D. Sarcoma
A

B. Myoma

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2
Q

True or False? A carcinoma arises from surface, glandular or parenchymal epithelial tissues; a sarcoma arises from other primary tissues.

A

True

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3
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by excessive absorption of iron, which accumulates within the body and disrupts organ functions.
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Hemophilia
D. Hemochromatosis E. Phenylketonuria
A

D. Hemochromatosis E. Phenylketonuria

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4
Q

What is a neoplasm of blood cells?

A

Leukemia

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5
Q

A metastatic tumor is one that:
A. has spread to a location away from its site of origin. B. shows slow expansion and well-differentiated cells. C. cannot be classified easily.
D. invades deeply into the tissue where it arose.
E. can sometimes be benign.

A

A. has spread to a location away from its site of origin. B. shows slow expansion and well-differentiated cells. C. cannot be classified easily.

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6
Q
Which of the following is the genotype for Turner syndrome? 
A. 45, X
B. 47, XXX
C. 47, XXY
D. 47, XYY
A

A. 45, X

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7
Q

Malignant tumor cells do not wear out and die as normal cells do, but instead they:
A. become immortal and proliferate indefinitely
B. grow rapidly and transform the tissue around them
C. must be killed by high-level immune response
D. die only when they have achieved dominance in the tissues that formed them originally

A

A. become immortal and proliferate indefinitely

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8
Q
The gene responsible for the fragile X syndrome is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. FRMP
B. FMR1
C. FXS1
D. FRM1
A

B. FMR1

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9
Q

Chromosome deletion occurs when:
A. homologous chromo. in germ cells fail to separate
B. there is absence of a chromosome
C. pieces of chromosomes are exchanged between two non homologous chromosomes D. a chromosome breaks during meiosis and the broken piece is lost from the cell

A

D. a chromosome breaks during meiosis and the broken piece is lost from the cell

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10
Q

True or False? Cellular immunity is associated with formation of antibodies that can combine with and eliminate an antigen; the major defense against bacteria and bacterial toxins.

A

False

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11
Q

Which of the following statements about tumors is true?
A. Tumors are abnormal growths that inevitably endanger the tissue in which they arise.
B. Tumor cells are easily distinguished from normal cells under a microscope.
C. Tumors are the product of a mutation in a normal cell that causes that cell to grow and reproduce itself abnormally.
D. Tumors can only grow in the same tissue that produced them originally.

A

C. Tumors are the product of a mutation in a normal cell that causes that cell to grow and reproduce itself abnormally.

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12
Q

Which of the following statements about fragile X syndrome is INCORRECT?
A. It causes mental deficiency.
B. It affects a gene on the X chromosome.
C. It is characterized by an excessive number of cytosine-guanine-guanine triplet-repeating sequences that disrupt gene function.
D. There is no relationship between the number of triplet repeats and the severity of the mental deficiency.
E. The diagnosis is made by DNA analysis of cells from the affected person.

A

D. There is no relationship between the number of triplet repeats and the severity of the mental deficiency.

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13
Q

______________ syndrome occurs in males when there is an extra X chromosome.

A

Kleinfelter’s

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14
Q
Precancerous/Precursor condition for Leukoplakia. 
A. Leukemia
B. Melanoma
C. Oral cavity squamous cell cancer
D. Cervical cancer
A

C. Oral cavity squamous cell cancer

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15
Q

An angioma is a:
A. benign tumor projecting from an epithelial surface B. malignant tumor of the bone
C. malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells
D. benign blood vessel tumor
E. benign tumor of cartilage

A

D. benign blood vessel tumor

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16
Q
Red blood cells containing no normal hemoglobin is the defect in which genetic disease? 
A. cystic fibrosis
B. sickle cell trait
C. phenyketonuria
D. hemophilia
E. sickle cell disease
A

E. sickle cell disease

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17
Q
What is the most common method of treating a benign tumor? 
A. Radiation
B. Chemo
C. Diet
D. Surgical excision
A

D. Surgical excision

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18
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A hormone-dependent tumor is one that produces sex hormones.
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy subclinical micro metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.
C. Mutations caused by viruses, chemicals, radiation or other agents do not disturb cell function and do not predispose to tumors.
D. Radiotherapy is always used with surgery for malignant tumors since surgical removal cannot be assured of total removal of tumor.

A

B. Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy subclinical micro metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a member of the cytokine family?

a. interleukin
b. tumor necrosis factor
c. T lymphocyte
d. interferon

A

c. T lymphocyte

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20
Q
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of pulmonary infarction?
A. pleuritic chest pain
B. pericarditis
C. dyspnea
D. bloody sputum E. cough
A

B. pericarditis

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21
Q
The most likely place for a thrombosis to form postoperatively is:
A. the lungs.
B. the left side of the heart.
C. the leg veins.
D. anywhere in the body. 
E. the small leg arteries
A

C. the leg veins.

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22
Q
Which of the following does NOT cause embolisms? 
A. Air
B. Fat
C. Amnionic fluid
D. Bacteria
E. Injected crushed narcotic tablets
A

D. Bacteria

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23
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ test bypasses the first two phases of blood coagulation and primarily measures the level of fibrinogen in the blood.
A. partial thromboplastin
B. prothrombin time
C. thrombin time
D. bleeding time 
E. fibrin
A

C. thrombin time

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24
Q
Which substance is most specific for detecting a recent myocardial infarction? 
A. C-reactive protein
B. creatine kinase
C. troponin
D. homocysteine 
E. triglycerides
A

C. troponin

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25
Q

Which statement about platelets is not true?
A. They plug the defect in the vessel wall.
B. They liberate chemical compounds that cause the vessel to contract.
C. They release phospholipids that initiate the process of blood coagulation D. Are removed from circulation in the spleen.
E. All of the above are true

A

E. All of the above are true

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26
Q

Which of the following conditions does not predispose to edema?
A. Heart failure
B. Von Willebrand’s factor deficiency
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. Low plasma osmotic pressure resulting from low blood proteins
E. Lymphatic obstruction

A

B. Von Willebrand’s factor deficiency

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27
Q
A disturbance of blood coagulation caused by a deficiency of prothrombin or related factors does NOT include which of the following?
A. Administration of anticoagulant drugs
B. Inadequate synthesis of vitamin K
C. Inadequate absorption of vitamin K 
D. Severe liver disease
E. Inadequate iron intake
A

E. Inadequate iron intake

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28
Q
This substance is released into the blood during an acute inflammatory event 
A. homocysteine
B. folic acid
C. LDL
D. CRP 
E. heparin
A

D. CRP

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29
Q
Which molecule is probably the most atherogenic? 
A. HDL
B. cholesterol
C. LDL
D. triglyceride 
E. trans fat
A

E. trans fat

30
Q
Which of the following substances increases the risk of thromboembolic disease? 
A. Aspirin
B. Coumadin drugs 
C. Oral contraceptives 
D. Diet pills
E. Heparin
A

C. Oral contraceptives

31
Q

In phase 2 of the blood coagulation process, _________ is converted into __________. A. thromboplastin; thrombin
B. prothrombin; thrombin
C. fibrinogen; fibrin
D. thrombin; prothrombin

A

B. prothrombin; thrombin

32
Q
Another term for primary hypertension is: 
A. isolated systolic hypertension
B. secondary hypertension
C. essential hypertension
D. cardiac hypertension
E. endocrine gland hypertension
A

C. essential hypertension

33
Q

True or False? An elevated CRP test in an otherwise normal person without evidence of an infection predicts an increased long-term risk of cardiovascular disease by identifying the inflammatory changes associated with accumulation of macrophages and other inflammatory cells in an unstable atheromatous coronary artery plaque.

A

True

34
Q

Which of the following is not a frequent complication of a myocardial infarction?
A. heart failure
B. arrhythmias
C. formation of mural thrombi
D. rupture of the heart
E. mitral valve prolapse (Improper closure of valve between heart’s upper and lower left chambers)

A

E. mitral valve prolapse (Improper closure of valve between heart’s upper and lower left chambers)

35
Q

Several tests are helpful when attempting to establish a diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarct. Which of the following tests would NOT be helpful?
A. Urinalysis
B. Chest x-ray
C. Radioisotope lung scan
D. Examination of sputum to determine if the patient has bloody sputum
E. CT scan of thorax

A

A. Urinalysis

36
Q

Reduced capillary osmotic pressure can be caused by which of the following?
A. Dehydration
B. Low concentration of plasma proteins
C. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins draining the capillaries
D. Edema

A

B. Low concentration of plasma proteins

37
Q

Which of the following statements regarding coronary atherosclerosis is INCORRECT?
A. The initial stage in the formation of an atheromatous plaque is reversible.
B. Macrophages filled with cholesterol and other lipids accumulate within the intima of the artery.
C. An unstable atheromatous plaque may rupture and discharge atheromatous debris into the lumen of a coronary artery.
D. Administration of drugs to dissolve a thrombosis that plugs a coronary artery (thrombolytic therapy) is a more effective method of restoring blood flow to the heart muscle than is coronary angio

A

D. Administration of drugs to dissolve a thrombosis that plugs a coronary artery (thrombolytic therapy) is a more effective method of restoring blood flow to the heart muscle than is coronary angio

38
Q

Which of the following statements regarding use of aspirin to reduce the risk of heart attacks is INCORRECT?
A. Aspirin interferes with platelet function.
B. Large doses of aspirin are required in order to reduce heart attack risk.
C. Aspirin is absorbed rapidly from the gastrointestinal tract.
D. The effect of aspirin on platelet function persists for the entire 10-day life span of the platelets.

A

B. Large doses of aspirin are required in order to reduce heart attack risk.

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of venous thrombosis/pulmonary embolism?
A. Shortness of breath or unexplained coughing
B. Bluish discoloration of the skin
C. Severe cramping in the legs and arms
D. Pleuritic chest pain
E. Cyanosis

A

C. Severe cramping in the legs and arms

40
Q
What is the definitive diagnostic method to identify a pulmonary embolism? 
A. Pulmonary angiogram
B. Radioisotope lung scan
C. Chest x-ray
D. Catheterization of the lungs 
E. MRI
A

A. Pulmonary angiogram

41
Q

Which is NOT one of the five factors that affect hemostasis (stopping of the flow of blood)?
A. Adequate amounts of potassium ions in the blood
B. Integrity of the small blood vessels
C. Adequate numbers of structurally and functionally normal platelets
D. Normal amounts of coagulation factors
E. Normal amounts of coagulation inhibitors

A

A. Adequate amounts of potassium ions in the blood

42
Q

True or False? Many blood coagulation factors are produced in the liver, and their concentrations in the blood are reduced in patients with liver disease.

A

True

43
Q

In phase 3 of the blood coagulation process, __________ is converted into __________. A. thromboplastin; thrombin
B. prothrombin; thrombin
C. fibrinogen; fibrin
D. thrombin; prothrombin

A

C. fibrinogen; fibrin

44
Q

Which of the following statements relating to congestive failure is INCORRECT?
A. It may follow any type of heart disease.
B. Venous pressure is elevated.
C. It leads to excretion of excessive amounts of salt and water by the kidneys.
D. Blood volume is increased. E. Edema of tissues

A

C. It leads to excretion of excessive amounts of salt and water by the kidneys.

45
Q

What is the cause of most aneurysms of the abdominal aorta?
A. Inflammation of the aortic wall
B. Marked arteriosclerosis of the aorta
C. Cystic degeneration of the aortic wall of unknown etiology
D. Excessive cigarette smoking
E. Obesity

A

B. Marked arteriosclerosis of the aorta

46
Q

True or False? The usual cause of decreased levels of vitamin K is by a gallstone blocking the common bile duct.

A

True

47
Q

A septic embolus occurs when:
A. a thrombus is composed of a dense colony of bacteria.
B. a thrombus is composed of foreign material.
C. an opportunistic infection invades an infarcted lung.
D. bacteria from an infection in organs adjacent to the site of the original clot formation are transported by an embolus to the lungs

A

D. bacteria from an infection in organs adjacent to the site of the original clot formation are transported by an embolus to the lungs

48
Q
The most common cause of cardiac arrest and sudden death is: 
A. atrial fibrillation
B. aneurysm
C. asystole
D. ventricular fibrillation 
E. tachycardia
A

D. ventricular fibrillation

49
Q
Deficiencies of plasma coagulation factors often lead to large areas of hemorrhage called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. megakaryocytes
B. hematomas
C. petechiae
D. vasoconstrictors 
E. decubitus ulcers
A

B. hematomas

50
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dissolves fibrin in blood clots. 
A. Plasminogen
B. Plasmin
C. Thromboplastin
D. Thrombin
A

B. Plasmin

51
Q

The term acute coronary syndrome refers to which of the following?
A. Unstable angina without myocardial injury
B. Minor myocardial damage
C. Major myocardial infarction
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C

A

E. A, B, and C

52
Q

Estrogen in oral contraceptives may lead to venous and arterial thromboses because:
A. excess estrogen in the body encourages fatty deposits in the blood vessels.
B. estrogen is a vasoconstrictor.
C. estrogen stimulates synthesis of coagulation factors.
D. estrogen promotes tissue necrosis in blood vessel walls.

A

C. estrogen stimulates synthesis of coagulation factors.

53
Q
Angina pectoris is usually a manifestation of which of the following? 
A. Hypertension
B. Atherosclerosis of coronary arteries
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Infective (bacterial endocarditis) 
E. Stroke
A

B. Atherosclerosis of coronary arteries

54
Q
This type of shock may be caused by severe burns or diarrhea. 
A. anaphylactic shock
B. cardiogenic shock
C. pulmonary shock
D. septic shock
E. hypovolemic shock
A

E. hypovolemic shock

55
Q

Which of the following events is unlikely to occur as a result of a thrombosis within a leg vein?
A. Swelling (edema) of the leg
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Accumulation of fluid within the lungs (pulmonary edema)
D. Pulmonary infarct

A

C. Accumulation of fluid within the lungs (pulmonary edema)

56
Q
In phase 1 of the blood coagulation process, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is formed. 
A. thromboplastin
B. prothrombin
C. thrombin
D. fibrinogen 
E. fibrin
A

A. thromboplastin

57
Q

What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
A. Thrombi in leg veins
B. Thrombi in the left ventricle secondary to a previous myocardial infarction
C. Thrombi on the mitral valve or aortic valve secondary to infection of the heart valves
D. Thrombi that form in left atrium in patients with heart failure

A

A. Thrombi in leg veins

58
Q

A 5-year-old male child has a bleeding disease that is characterized by areas of hemorrhage in the joints and muscles after minor injuries. Laboratory tests reveal a deficiency of a coagulation factor active in the early phase of blood coagulation (formation of intrinsic thromboplastin). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Thrombocytopenia (platelet deficiency)
B. Hemophilia
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome
D. Ingestion of a drug such as coumadin, which functions as an anticoagulant
E. Vitamin K deficiency

A

B. Hemophilia

59
Q

Which of the following diseases are considered to be very closely related?
A. Endometrial hyperplasia and in situ carcinoma
B. Cervical dysplasia and endometriosis
C. Cervical dysplasia and in situ carcinoma
D. Salpingitis and condylomas of the genital tract

A

C. Cervical dysplasia and in situ carcinoma

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for endometriosis?
A. Administration of drugs that suppress prostaglandins
B. Administration of oral contraceptives
C. Administration of synthetic hormones with progesterone
D. Administration of drugs that suppress the output of gonadotropins

A

A. Administration of drugs that suppress prostaglandins

61
Q

True or False? Hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis.

A

True

62
Q

True or False? Excessive loss of hydrogen ions resulting from prolonged vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis.

A

True

63
Q
The acid-base disturbance in which reduction of bicarbonate is the primary abnormality is called\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. metabolic acidosis
B. respiratory acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory alkalosis
A

A. metabolic acidosis

64
Q
Respiratory acidosis occurs most commonly in which disease or condition? 
A. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Emphysema
D. Potassium depletion
A

C. Emphysema

65
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system is correct?
A. The lungs regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by regulating alveolar PCO2.
B. The kidneys regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by forming carbonic acid within the tubular epithelial cells.
C. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate concentration of the blood by secreting bicarbonate ions into the tubular filtrate.
D. A fall in the bicarbonate concentration of the blood resulting from buffering (neutralizing) acid ketone bodies in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a corresponding rise in blood PCO2 and carbonic acid.

A

A. The lungs regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by regulating alveolar PCO2.

66
Q
Hyperventilation is the compensatory mechanism for which of the following? 
A. respiratory alkalosis
B. respiratory acidosis
C. metabolic acidosis 
D. metabolic alkalosis
A

C. metabolic acidosis

67
Q
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hemorrhage occurs when escaping blood accumulates between the outer layer of dura and the cranial bones.
A. epidural
B. subdural
C. subarachnoid 
D. epipial
A

A. epidural

68
Q
Which disease is characterized by rigidity of voluntary muscles and tremor of fingers and extremities?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Creutzfedt-Jakob disease
C. Parkinson disease 
D. Huntington disease
A

C. Parkinson disease

69
Q
Which of the following does NOT occur in Addison’s disease? 
A. Increased skin pigmentation
B. Exophthalmos
C. High levels of ACTH in blood
D. Low levels of cortisol in blood
A

B. Exophthalmos

70
Q
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Cushing's disease? A. Osteoporosis
B. Elevated blood glucose
C. Elevated blood cortisol
D. Elevated blood pressure
E. Elevated blood thyroid hormone
A

E. Elevated blood thyroid hormone