Classic/Relevant Treatments

Question 0

Acute gout attack

Answer 0

NSAIDs, colchicine

Question 1

Absence seizures

Answer 1

Ethosuximide

Question 2

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

Answer 2

All-trans retinoic acid

Question 3

ADHD

Answer 3

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

Question 4

Alcohol abuse

Answer 4

AA + disulfiram for patient and Al-Anon for family

Question 5

Alcohol withdrawal

Answer 5

Benzodiazepines

Question 6

Anorexia

Answer 6

SSRIs

Question 7

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

Answer 7

Heparin

Question 8

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

Answer 8

Class IB antiarrythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

Question 9

B12 deficiency

Answer 9

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

Question 10

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Answer 10

Tamsulosin (alpha-1 antagonist), finasteride (5-alpha-reductase inhibitor)

Question 11

Bipolar disorder

Answer 11

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

Question 12

Breast cancer in postmenopausal women

Answer 12

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

Question 13

Buerger’s disease

Answer 13

Smoking cessation

Question 14

Bulimia

Answer 14

SSRIs

Question 15

Candida albicans

Answer 15

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush, esophagitis)

Question 16

Carcinoid syndrome

Answer 16

Octreotide (somatostatin analog)

Question 17

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer 17

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

Question 18

Chronic gout

Answer 18

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer)

Question 19

Chronic hepatitis

Answer 19

IFN-alpha

Question 20

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Answer 20

Imatinib

Question 21

Clostridium botulinum

Answer 21

Antitoxin

Question 22

Clostridium difficile

Answer 22

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

Question 23

Clostridium tetani

Answer 23

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

Question 24

Crohn's disease

Answer 24

Corticosteroids, infliximab (infliximab is chimeric monoclonal anti-TNF-alpha antibody)

Question 25

Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 25

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

Question 26

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

Answer 26

Mesna

Question 27

Cystic fibrosis

Answer 27

N-acetylcysteine + antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/azithromycin)

Question 28

Cytomegalovirus

Answer 28

Ganciclovir

Question 29

Depression

Answer 29

SSRIs (first-line)

Question 30

Diabetes insipidus

Answer 30

Desmopresin (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

Question 31

Diabetes mellitus type 1

Answer 31

Dietary intervention (low sugar) + insulin replacement

Question 32

Diabetes mellitus type 2

Answer 32

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (possible)

Question 33

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer 33

Fluids, insulin, potassium

Question 34

Enterococci

Answer 34

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

Question 35

Erectile dysfunction

Answer 35

Sildenafil, vardenafil

Question 36

ER-positive breast cancer

Answer 36

Tamoxifen

Question 37

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

Answer 37

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

Question 38

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

Answer 38

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 39

Generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 39

Buspirone

Question 40

Heparin toxicity (acute)

Answer 40

Protamine sulfate

Question 41

HER2/neu-positive breast cancer

Answer 41

Trastuzumab

Question 42

Hyperaldosteronism

Answer 42

Spironolactone

Question 43

Hypercholesterolemia

Answer 43

Statin (first-line)

Question 44

Hypertriglyceridemia

Answer 44

Fibrate

Question 45

Immediate anticoagulation

Answer 45

Heparin

Question 46

Infertility

Answer 46

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile)

Question 47

Influenza

Answer 47

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

Question 48

Legionella pneumophila

Answer 48

Erythromycin

Question 49

Long-term anticoagulation

Answer 49

Warfarin

Question 50

Malaria

Answer 50

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

Question 51

Malignant hyperthermia

Answer 51

Dantrolene

Question 52

Migraine

Answer 52

Sumatriptan

Question 53

MRSA

Answer 53

Vancomycin

Question 54

Multiple sclerosis

Answer 54

Beta-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

Question 55

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 55

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

Question 56

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer 56

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely Chlamydia)

Question 57

Neisseria meningitidis

Answer 57

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 58

Neural tube defect prevention

Answer 58

Prenatal folic acid

Question 59

Osteomalacia/rickets

Answer 59

Vitamin D supplementation

Question 60

Osteoporosis

Answer 60

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

Question 61

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 61

Indomethacin (prostaglandin E1 responsible for keeping PDA open)

Question 62

Pheocromocytoma

Answer 62

alpha-antagonists (e.g., phenoxybenzamine)

Question 63

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Answer 63

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

Question 64

Prolactinoma

Answer 64

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

Question 65

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

Answer 65

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

Question 66

Prostate carcinoma

Answer 66

Flutamide

Question 67

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer 67

Antipseudomonal penicillin +aminoglycoside

Question 68

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

Answer 68

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

Question 69

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 69

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (especially in context of aplastic anemia)

Question 70

Ringworm infections

Answer 70

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

Question 71

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

Answer 71

5HT2A antagonists (e.g., second-generation antipsychotics)

Question 72

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

Answer 72

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g., first- and second-generation antipsychotics)

Question 73

SIADH

Answer 73

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

Question 74

Sickle cell anemia

Answer 74

Hydroxyurea (⬆️ fetal hemoglobin)

Question 75

Sporothrix shenckii

Answer 75

Oral potassium chloride

Question 76

Stable angina

Answer 76

Sublingual nitroglycerin

Question 77

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 77

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

Question 78

Streptococcus bovis

Answer 78

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

Question 79

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 79

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

Question 80

Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer 80

Penicillin prophylaxis

Question 81

Temporal arteritis

Answer 81

High-dose steroids

Question 82

Tonic-clonic seizures

Answer 82

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

Question 83

Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 83

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Question 84

Treponema pallidum

Answer 84

Penicillin

Question 85

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer 85

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

Question 86

Ulcerative colitis

Answer 86

5-ASA, infliximab

Question 87

UTI prophylaxis

Answer 87

TMP-SMX

Question 88

Warfarin toxicity

Answer 88

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

Question 89

Wegener's granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Answer 89

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids