Classic/Relevant Treatments

Question 1

absence seizures

Answer 1

Ethosuximide

Question 2

acute gout attack

Answer 2

NSAID, colchicine, gucocorticoids

Question 3

acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

Answer 3

ALL-trans retinoic acid

Question 4

ADHD

Answer 4

methylphenidate, CBT, atomoxetine

Question 5

alcoholism

Answer 5

Disulfiram, acamprosate, naltrexone, supportive care

Question 6

anorexia

Answer 6

nutrition, psychotherapy, mirtazapine

Question 7

anti-coagulation during pregnancy

Answer 7

heparin

Question 8

arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

Answer 8

class IB anti-arrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine)

Question 9

B12 deficiency

Answer 9

vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

Question 10

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Answer 10

alpha1-antagonists, 5alpha-reductase inhibitors, PDE-5 inhibitors

Question 11

bipolar disorder

Answer 11

mood stabilizers (lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine), atypical antipsychotics

Question 12

breast cancer in post-menopausal women

Answer 12

aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

Question 13

Buerger disease

Answer 13

smoking cessation

Question 14

bulimia nervosa

Answer 14

SSRIs (fluoxetine)

Question 15

Candida albicans

Answer 15

vaginitis: topical azoles
oral/esophageal: nystatin, flucanazole, caspofungin
systemic: flucanazole, caspofungin, amphothericin B

Question 16

carcinoid syndrome

Answer 16

octreotide

Question 17

chlamydia trachomatis

Answer 17

doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea co-infection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

Question 18

chronic gout

Answer 18

xanthine oxidase inhibitors (allopurinol, febuxostat)

Question 19

chronic hepatitis B or C

Answer 19

HBV and HCV: IFN-alpha

HCV: ribavirin, simeprevir, sofosbuvir

Question 20

chronic myelogenous leukemia

Answer 20

Imatinib

Question 21

clostridium botulinum

Answer 21

antitoxin

Question 22

clostridium difficile

Answer 22

oral metronidazole

If refractory: oral vancomycin

Question 23

clostridium tetani

Answer 23

antitoxin

Question 24

CMV

Answer 24

Ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir

Question 25

Crohn disease

Answer 25

corticosteroids, infliximab, azathioprine

Question 26

cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 26

fluconazole (in AIDS patients)

Question 27

cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

Answer 27

Mesna

Question 28

depression

Answer 28

SSRIs (1st line)

Question 29

diabetes insipidus

Answer 29

Central: desmopressin Nephrogenis: hydrochlothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride

Question 30

DM1

Answer 30

dietary intervention (low carbs) + insulin replacement

Question 31

DM2

Answer 31

dietary intervention (low carbs) , oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

Question 32

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

Answer 32

fluids, insulin, K+

Question 33

Enterococci

Answer 33

vancomycin, aminopenicillins/cephalosporins

Question 34

erectile dysfunction

Answer 34

sidenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

Question 35

ER+ breast cancer

Answer 35

Tamoxifen

Question 36

ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

Answer 36

fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

Question 37

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

Answer 37

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 38

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

Answer 38

1st line: SSRIs, SNRIs | 2nd line: buspirone

Question 39

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

Answer 39

cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

Question 40

heparin reversal

Answer 40

protamine sulfate

Question 41

HER2.neu+ breast cancer

Answer 41

trastuzumab

Question 42

hyperaldosteronism

Answer 42

spironolactone

Question 43

hypercholesterolemia

Answer 43

statins (1st line)

Question 44

hypertriglyceridemia

Answer 44

fibrate

Question 45

immediate anticoagulation

Answer 45

heparin

Question 46

infertility

Answer 46

leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

Question 47

influenza

Answer 47

oseltamivir/zanamivir (directly inhibit virion release)

Question 48

Kawasaki disease

Answer 48

IVIG, high-dose aspirin

Question 49

Legionella pneumophila

Answer 49

Macrolides (e.g. azithromycin)

Question 50

long-term anticoagulation

Answer 50

warfarin, dabigatran, rivaroxaban and apixaban

Question 51

malaria

Answer 51

for blood schizont: chloroquine, mefloquine, atovaquine,/proguanil for liver schizont: primaquine

Question 52

malignant hyperthermia

Answer 52

dantroline (blocks ryanodine receptors-->prevent calcium release into cytoplasm of skeletal muscles)

Question 53

medical abortion

Answer 53

mifepristone

Question 54

Migraine

Answer 54

abortive: NSAIDS, Sumatriptan prophylaxis: propranolol, topiramate, CCBs, amitripthyline

Question 55

multiple sclerosis

Answer 55

disease-modifying: beta-interferon, natalizumab | acute flares: IV steroids

Question 56

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 56

RIPE: rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

Question 57

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer 57

ceftriaxone (+ doxycylcine to cover C. trachomatis)

Question 58

neural tube defect prevention

Answer 58

prenatal folic acid

Question 59

osteomalacia/rickets

Answer 59

vitamin D supplementation

Question 60

osteoporosis

Answer 60

prophylaxis: calcium/vit D supplementation treatment: bisphosphonates, PTH analogs, SERMs, calcitonin, denosumab

Question 61

patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 61

Close: indomethacin | Open/maintain: PGE analogs

Question 62

pheochromocytoma

Answer 62

alpha-antagonists (e.g. phenoxybenzamine)

Question 63

Pneumocytis jirovecii

Answer 63

TMP-SMX for prophylaxis in AIDS patients

Question 64

prolactinoma

Answer 64

cabergoline/bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

Question 65

prostate adenocarcinoma/uterine fibroids

Answer 65

leuprolide, leuprolide (continuous)

Question 66

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer 66

antipseudomonal penicillins, aminoglycosides, carbapenems

Question 67

pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

Answer 67

sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

Question 68

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 68

doxycline, chloramphenicol

Question 69

schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

Answer 69

typical and atypical antipsychotics

Question 70

schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

Answer 70

atypical antipsychotics

Question 71

SIADH

Answer 71

fluid restriction, IV hypertonic saline, conivaptan/tolvaptan, demeclocycline

Question 72

sickle cell disease

Answer 72

hydroxyurea (increases fetal hemoglobin)

Question 73

sporothrix schenckii

Answer 73

itraconazole, oral potassium iodide

Question 74

stable angina

Answer 74

sublingual nitroglycerin

Question 75

staphylococcus aureus

Answer 75

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins) MRSA: vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid, ceftaroline

Question 76

streptococcus bovis

Answer 76

penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

Question 77

streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 77

systemic infection/pneumonia: penicillin/cephalosporin | meningitis: vancomycin

Question 78

streptococcus pyogenes

Answer 78

penicillin prophylaxis

Question 79

temporal arteritis

Answer 79

high-dose steroids

Question 80

Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 80

sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Question 81

Treponema pallidum

Answer 81

penicillin

Question 82

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer 82

Metronidazole for both patient and partner

Question 83

trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)

Answer 83

carbamezapine

Question 84

ulcerative colitis

Answer 84

5-ASA preparations (e.g. mesalamine), 6-mercaptopurine, infliximab, colectomy

Question 85

UTI prophylaxis

Answer 85

TMP-SMX

Question 86

warfarin reversal

Answer 86

Immediate/acute: fresh frozen plasma | chronic: vitamin K