Classic/Relevant Treatments Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins);
MRSA: vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid, ceftaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia),

vancomycin (meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if

linked to endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin, aminopenicillins/cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

A

Amoxicillin ± clavulanate (mucosal infections),

ceftriaxone (meningitis), rifampin (prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Macrolides (eg, azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Piperacillin/tazobactam, aminoglycosides, carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection),
oral erythromycin to treat chlamydial conjunctivitis in
infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Candida albicans

A

Topical azoles (vaginitis); nystatin, fluconazole,
caspofungin (oral/esophageal); fluconazole,
caspofungin, amphotericin B (systemic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Induction with amphotericin B and flucytosine,

maintenance with fluconazole (in AIDS patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Itraconazole, oral potassium iodide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis and treatment in

immunosuppressed patients, CD4 < 200/mm3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine, mefloquine, atovaquone/proguanil (for

blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Influenza

A

Oseltamivir, zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CMV

A

Ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent | C trachomatis)
26
Clostridium difficile
Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin
27
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)
28
UTI prophylaxis
TMP-SMX
29
Chronic hepatitis B or C
IFN-α (HBV and HCV); ribavirin, simeprevir, sofosbuvir | HCV
30
Patent ductus arteriosus
Close with indomethacin; keep open with PGE analogs
31
Stable angina
Sublingual nitroglycerin
32
Hypercholesterolemia
Statin (first-line)
33
Buerger disease
Smoking cessation
34
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)
Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids
35
Kawasaki disease
IVIG, high-dose aspirin
36
Temporal arteritis
High-dose steroids
37
Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue
Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine)
38
Pheochromocytoma
α-antagonists (eg, phenoxybenzamine)
39
Prolactinoma
Cabergoline/bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)
40
Diabetes insipidus
Desmopressin (central); hydrochlorothiazide, | indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)
41
SIADH
Fluid restriction, IV hypertonic saline, conivaptan/ | tolvaptan, demeclocycline
42
Diabetes mellitus type 1
``` Dietary intervention (low carbohydrate) + insulin replacement ```
43
Diabetes mellitus type 2
Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if | refractory)
44
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Fluids, insulin, K+
45
Carcinoid syndrome
Octreotide
46
Crohn disease
Corticosteroids, infliximab, azathioprine
47
Ulcerative colitis
5-ASA preparations (eg, mesalamine), 6-mercaptopurine, | infliximab, colectomy
48
Hypertriglyceridemia
Fibrate
49
Sickle cell disease
Hydroxyurea (increases fetal hemoglobin)
50
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Imatinib
51
Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
All-trans retinoic acid
52
Drug of choice for anticoagulation during pregnancy
Heparin
53
Heparin reversal
Protamine sulfate
54
Immediate anticoagulation
Heparin
55
Warfarin reversal
Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (non-acute)
56
Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis
Mesna
57
HER2/neu ⊕ breast cancer
Trastuzumab
58
Osteoporosis
Calcium/vitamin D supplementation (prophylaxis); bisphosphonates, PTH analogs, SERMs, calcitonin, denosumab (treatment)
59
Osteomalacia/rickets
Vitamin D supplementation
60
Chronic gout
Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (eg, allopurinol, febuxostat); | pegloticase; probenecid
61
Acute gout attack
NSAIDs, colchicine, glucocorticoids
62
Neural tube defect prevention
Prenatal folic acid
63
Migraine
Abortive therapies (eg, sumatriptan, NSAIDs); | Prophylaxis eg, propranolol, topiramate, CCBs, amitriptyline
64
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)z
Carbamazepine
65
Multiple sclerosis
Disease-modifying therapies (eg, β-interferon, | natalizumab); for acute flares, use IV steroids
66
Tonic-clonic seizures
Levetiracetam, phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine
67
Absence seizures
Ethosuximide
68
Malignant hyperthermia
Dantrolene
69
Anorexia
Nutrition, psychotherapy, mirtazapine
70
Bulimia nervosa
SSRIs
71
Alcoholism
Disulfiram, acamprosate, naltrexone, supportive care
72
ADHD
Methylphenidate, amphetamines, CBT, atomoxetine, | guanfacine, clonidine
73
Alcohol withdrawal
Long-acting benzodiazepines
74
Bipolar disorder
Mood stabilizers (eg, lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine), atypical antipsychotics
75
Depression
SSRIs (first-line)
76
Generalized anxiety disorder
SSRIs, SNRIs (first line); buspirone (second line)
77
Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)
Typical and atypical antipsychotics
78
Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)
Atypical antipsychotics
79
Hyperaldosteronism
Spironolactone
80
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
α1-antagonists, 5α-reductase inhibitors, PDE-5 inhibitors
81
Infertility
Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene
82
Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman
Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)
83
ER ⊕ breast cancer
Tamoxifen
84
Prostate adenocarcinoma/uterine fibroids
Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)
85
Medical abortion
Mifepristone
86
Prostate adenocarcinoma
Flutamide
87
Erectile dysfunction
Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil
88
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)
Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol