clin path 1 Flashcards
(300 cards)
1
Q
Which type of controls mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals within a vet hospital?
A
Administrative
2
Q
Which documents provided by manufacturers of all hazardous materials must be readily available to employees at every vet facility?
A
Material Safety data sheets MSDS
3
Q
The accidental ingestion of the organism toxoplasmosis is an example of a safety hazard in which bio safety level?
A
Biosafety level II
4
Q
A veterinary tech is given the responsibility to ship lab samples to an outside lab for analysis. Which specimen would be considered a category B infectious material.
A
Blood specimen for feline heartworm evaluation
5
Q
The sink in a vet hospital lab is best used for which purpose?
A
To rinse, drain, or stain specimens and discard fluids.
6
Q
Every vet diagnostic lab should have access to an internet connection either in the lab or somewhere within the facility. what would be the best determinant of a high quality internet site?
A
The site is unbiased and staffed by recognized experts in the field.
7
Q
A small animal hospital is planning to open soon. the vet must decide what equipment is necessary to operate a minimally equipped lab. Which item should be included in this lab?
A
Refractometer
8
Q
Excessive heat build-up due to air friction at excessive speeds can damage specimens. this is the disadvantage to what kind of centrifuge?
A
Horizontal centrifuge head
9
Q
Which style of centrifuge has drilled holes that hold test tubes and runs at high speeds, without causing excess heat buildup that can damage specimens
A
Angled centrifuge head
10
Q
The vet tech needs to determine the total protein concentration of plasma. What lab instrument must be used?
A
Refractometer
11
Q
A vet tech has been assigned to perform regular maintenance on the refractometer in the lab. What maintenance task should be performed?
A
Clean after every use and calibrate weekly
12
Q
A 10 year old SF dog presents with urinary incontinence. The vet would like to get preliminary urine results as quickly as possible. Which reading can be obtained quickly using the refractometer.
A
Specific gravity
13
Q
What is the best type of pipette to use to move a noncritical amount of liquid from one tube to another?
A
Transfer
14
Q
Which size pipette would you choose to transfer 1.6ml or fluid?
A
2ml
15
Q
A lab incubator must be capable of maintaining a constant temperature. what is the optimal temp for growing most pathogens
A
37 degrees C
16
Q
A hospital would like to purchase a hot water bath for its lab but it wants one that doesn’t require racks and takes little maintenance. Which type would be the best option?
A
Waterless bead
17
Q
Which type of microscope is an essential piece of lab equipment for a hospital lab
A
Compound microscope
18
Q
An organism is being viewed with a light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and 40x objective. what is the magnification of the organism?
A
400
19
Q
Ideally, a practice should maintain two microscopes. What is the reason for having two?
A
One is used to perform routine parasite studies, and the other is used for hematology and cytology evaluations
20
Q
An object is being viewed with a light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and 100x objective. What is the magnification of the object?
A
1,000
21
Q
The objective lenses of a microscope are important and are characterized by certain types. which type of objective lens is best for most vet hospitals?
A
Achromatic
22
Q
A busy vet hospital is planning to purchase a microscope for its lab. The staff should like to be able to take images from the microscope and put them directly into the patient’s chart. What is the best choice of microscope to purchase?
A
Digital microscope with computer software
23
Q
How is an image viewed through a microscope.
A
upside down and backwards
24
Q
Modern microscopes contain a light source. which device is used to adjust the intensity of the light for the microscope?
A
Rheostat
25
A urinary cast is being viewed through a microscope. Its difficult to visualize the object due to the bright light from the scopes light source. What could be adjusted to visualize this object fully?
Condenser
26
An object that is being viewed is slightly fuzzy and surrounded by a halo. what can be adjusted to focus the object and remove the halo?
Substage condenser
27
Which part of a microscope consists of a number of leaves that are opened or closed to control the amount of light illuminating the object
aperture diaphragm
28
Routine maintenance of a microscope is essential to ensure the long use of the instrument. which cleaning solvent can be used to remove excess oil and dissolve the adhesives that secure the objective lenses?
xylene
29
to ensure correct identification of objects, a microscope must be calibrated using a stage micrometer. How often does a microscope need to be calibrated?
Once for the service of its life
30
Which type of micrometer can be added or removed from microscope eyepieces as needed to impose an image of a net, a scale, or crosshairs over the viewing area?
Ocular
31
A digital microscope can help capture images for viewing on a larger screen, which of the following capabilities refers to the degree of detail in the images and the clarity of the images?
Resolution
32
Which of the following is measured in pixels
resolution
33
Which type of light source for microscopes tends to produce the highest quality images due to the enhanced color balance and greater stability of the light output?
LED
34
When using the metric system, the prefix milli- refers to which power of 10
10^-3
35
A tech is asked to record the amount of a substance used in a dilution. The amount of substance added was 0.001ml. What would be the best way to record this amount?
1 microliter
36
A tech needs to make a 1:10 dilution of a patient sample. What would be the correct dilution.
10ul of sample to 90ul of distilled water
37
A tech needs to take a 60mg/dl solution and dilute it 1:5. What would be the concentration of the dilution
60/5= 12mg/dl
38
A tech needs to take a 40mg/dl sample and dilute it 1:10. what would be the concentration of the dilution?
40/10= 4mg/dl
39
A test result comes back with a value of 3.456x10^4. this value needs to be converted to a number. What is the correct value?
34,560
40
A test result comes back with the value of 45.6X 10^-2 whats the correct value?
0.456
41
A urine specimen comes back with a pH of 6. Which H+ concentration would this sample have?
10^-6
42
A sample has been diluted using a 1:10 dilution. What must be done to the result to give the correct value for an undiluted sample?
Multiple the result by 10
43
A commonly obtained result in vet labs is the pH of a sample. What is the best definition of pH?
A negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
44
Lab results show that a sample has a basic pH. Which pH value represents a basic pH
7.2
45
A lab test requires a sample to be at room temp or 73 degrees F. What is the equivalent temp in degrees C
C=((73F-32)x5)/9
41X5/9
205/9
22.77777 or 23 degrees C
46
A specimen needs to be incubated at 37 degrees C but the only thermometer available reads in degrees Fahrenheit. What would the temp need to be in degrees F.
98.6 F
47
quality control programs ensure the accuracy of lab results. Which term is defined by how closely results agree with the true quantitative value of the constituent.
Accuracy
48
Which scale is the most commonly used temp measurement in vet clinical labs?
Celsius
49
Quality control programs ensure the accuracy of lab results. which term is defined by the magnitude of random errors and the reproducibility of measurements
Precision
50
Quality control programs ensure the accuracy of lab results. What term is defined by the ability of a method to be accurate and precise?
Reliability
51
An error occurred in lab results and was traced back to the sample to be hemolyzed. Which type of variable error is this?
Preanalytic
52
An error occurred in lab results and was traced back to the lack of maintenance on a lab instrument. Which type of error is this
analytic
53
A sample is lipemic. which type of variable is this?
Biologic
54
A sample was sent to a reference lab; however, vital information was missing from the requisition form, causing delays in processing the sample. Which type of variable is this?
nonbiologic
55
It was discovered that the standard serum control used was the incorrect serum for the species being tested. which type of variable is this?
analytic
56
Which body system collects and eliminates waste from the body?
urinary
57
The urinary system consists of which of the following
two kidneys, two ureters, one urethra, and one urinary bladder
58
Which animal has a heart shaped right kidney
horse
59
Where in the body are the kidneys located in most animals
Dorsal aspect of the abdomen, cranial to the lumbar vertebra
60
which animals kidneys have a lobulated appearance
Cows
61
Which term refers to the indented portion of the kidney
hilus
62
What's the term for the location of the kidney where the blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves, and ureters enter and exit?
Hilus
63
which part of the kidney is the most functional portion
nephron
64
Which part of the kidney has various components, including the renal corpuscle, proximal and distal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, and a collecting tubule
nephron
65
Which structure composes the renal corpuscle and is surrounded by a Bowman capsule
glomerulus
66
Which structure in the kidney filters a portion of the plasma and eliminates its wastes
glomerulus
67
As fluid passes through the kidney, substances are resorbed. What's the condition called when the nephrons have reached the maximum limit for resorption
renal threshold
68
By the time the fluid in the nephron reaches the collecting tubules, it becomes which of the following
urine
69
which of the following is the structure through which urine passes from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
ureters
70
which structure enters the urinary bladder at oblique angles, forming valve like openings that prevent back flow of the urine as the bladder fills
ureters
71
Which urinary system structure is a muscular sac that stores urine and releases it periodically by the process of urination
urinary bladder
72
when the urinary bladder enlarges and reaches a certain point, which structure in the bladder wall is/are activated to trigger the contraction of the smooth muscles?
Stretch receptors
73
Which structures lead from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body
urethra
74
Which structure releases the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
posterior pituitary gland
75
which structure releases the hormone aldosterone
adrenal cortex
76
antidiuretic hormone acts on which structure to promote reabsorption of water
collecting tubules
77
a man notices that his dog hasn't been urinating as often as it had previously. What's another term for this condition
oliguria
78
A woman notices her dog needs to go out to urinate more frequently than it had in the past. Whats another term for this condition
polyuria
79
A dog is hospitalized, and the nursing staff realizes that the animal isn't urinating. whats the term for this condition
anuria
80
Which hormones are involved in the regulation of urine volume
aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone
81
which of the following lines the urinary bladder
transitional epithelial cells
82
An insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone by the posterior pituitary gland can result in which of the following?
Polyuria
83
Which type of urine sample is not satisfactory for bacterial examination
free catch
84
In a free catch sample what type of cells most likely will contaminate the sample
WBCs
85
Which method can be used to stimulate urination in sheep
occluding the nostrils
86
which method is used to stimulate urination in cows
gently rubbing dry hay ventral to the vulva in a circular manner
87
Which method is used to stimulate urination in horses
rubbing warm, wet cloth on the ventral abdomen
88
Bacteria in the urine may cause an infection in the kidneys as a complication of which type of urine collection method
bladder expression
89
A urine sample has an increased number of RBCs. This could be due to which type of urine collection method
bladder expression
90
if an animal is suspected of having an obstructed urethra which type of urine collection method should not be attempted
bladder expression
91
An animal is presented for possible bladder stones. the animal has had two cystotomies for bladder stones in the past. What type of urine collection should be avoided?
bladder expression
92
Which urine collection method is recommended for a sterile collection when a cystocentesis can't be performed
catheterization
93
whats the necessary first step in performing a catheterization urine collection in a female dog
wash the external genitalia
94
why should the first portion of the sample collected by catheterization be discarded?
to prevent possible bacterial contamination from the catheterization process
95
which of the following must be true in order to perform a cystocentesis
A distended bladder that can be easily palpated
96
whats the best choice for needle size and syringe size for a cystocentesis urine collection
20 or 22 gauge needle and 10ml syringe
97
in which direction should the needle be inserted in the caudal abdomen for cystocentesis
dorsocaudally
98
what is the urine collection method of choice if culture and sensitivity testing are desired
cystocentesis
99
A male dog is presented for a possible urinary infection, and the vet would like the tech to collect a urine sample by cystocentesis. Where should the tech insert the needle for the collection
caudal to the umbilicus and to the side of the sheath
100
The vet wants a quantitative urine sample on a dog. How is this sample to be collected
catheterization for 24 hrs
101
whats the best time frame to analyze the urine sample to ensure accurate results?
within 30 min to 1 hr
102
A urine sample is collected just before an emergency coming into the clinic. What can be done to the sample to ensure accurate results
Refrigerate the sample and analyze within 6-12hrs
103
Whats one artifact that may occur in a refrigerated urine sample
crystal formations
104
A male dog presented for a possible UTI and the vet would like the tech to collect a urine sample bey cystocentesis. Where should the tech insert the needle for the collection
Caudle to the umbilicus and to the side of the sheath
105
The vet wants a quantitative urine sample on a dog. How is this sample to be collected?
Catheterization for 24 hours
106
Whats the best time frame to analyze the urine sample to ensure accurate results
within 30 min to 1 hr
107
a urine sample is collected just before an emergency coming into the clinic what can be done to the sample to ensure accurate results
refrigerate the sample and analyze within 6-12hrs
108
Whats one artifact that may occur in a refrigerated urine sample
crystal formation
109
which of the following may occur if a urine sample is kept at room temp for an extended length of time
a decrease in glucose concentration and increased turbidity
110
what must be done to a refrigerated urine sample before analyzing the sample
warm gently before analysis
111
if a sample is to be transported to an outside lab for analysis whats the recommended preservative to add to the sample to preserve the formed elements
40% formalin
112
Which of the following gives the best sample for urinalysis
morning sample or after several hours without water
113
When an o reports that an animal has had increased urination, its important to differentiate between frequency and amount of urine produced. what's the term for increased frequency of urination?
pollakiuria
114
When an owner reports that an animal has had increased urination, its important to differentiate between frequency and amount of urine. What's the term for increased production of urination?
Polyuria
115
A 12 yr old DSH weighing 12.5 lbs presents for urinary problems. the urine output for the animal is 80ml of urine in 24hr period. which term properly identifies this situation?
Oliguria
116
An increase in daily urine output is usually accompanied by an increase in water consumption. Whats the term for increased water consumption
polydipsia
117
a dog has been placed on furosemide. What would be the expected outcome from this drug?
polyuria
118
A 9 year old dog presents for polyuria and polydipsia. which disease could be associated with this symptom
diabetes mellitus
119
What color background should a urine sample be help up against to determine the true color of the sample
white
120
Equine urine usually has which transparency due to high concentrations of calcium carbonate crystals and mucous
cloudy
121
Rabbit urine usually has which degree of transparency
milky
122
when observing urine for the degree of transparency, it should be help up against which color background
white with letter print
123
which term refers to turbid urine
flocculent
124
a urine sample has a fruity or sweet smell what could be the cause
keytones
125
what can cause urine to have an ammonia like smell
urease
126
A sample thats left at room temp for an extended period of time may develop which of the following
an ammonia like smell
127
A urine sample has a strong, fruity smell what could be the reason
diabetes mellitus
128
Which of the following is defined as the weight of a quantity of liquid compared with that of an equal amount of distilled water
specific gravity
129
Which part of urinalysis gives info on an animals hydration status
specific gravity
130
which part of urinalysis helps to detect the kidneys ability to concentrate or dilute urine
specific gravity
131
which method of determining specific gravity is the most reliable and reproducible
refractometer
132
If a urine sample has a specific gravity that's above the range of the refractometer, what can be done to obtain an accurate reading
dilute the sample with equal parts distilled water and multiply the number after the decimal by 2
133
an animal has a specific gravity of 1.095 what might be happening to the animal
acute renal failure
134
An animal that has a specific gravity of 1.010 has what condition
isosthenuria
135
Specific gravity is a measure of what in urine
dissolved solutes
136
when distilled water is used to calibrate a refractometer, the specific gravity of the water should be what
1.000
137
Whats the correct amount of time that a urine sample should be centrifuged
5-6 min
138
whats the correct setting for the centrifuge rpms for a urine sample
1000 to 2000 rpms
139
Whats the term for the substance that should be poured off after a urine sample is centrifuged
supernatant
140
How much supernatant should be left in the tube to resuspend the sediment prior to microscopic evaluation
0.5 to 1ml
141
A urine sample has a greenish hue. what could this mean
bile pigment
142
A urine sample has been sitting at room temp for 3 hours. what effect would this have on the pH?
the pH would become alkaline
143
which of the following cause of an alkaline urine pH in an animal
high plant based diet
144
what could cause an acidic urine pH in an animal
high protein meat based diet
145
what can cause an acidic urine pH to decrease
fever
146
what can cause urine pH to increase
UTI with urease bacteria
147
which structure resorbs the plasma proteins in healthy animals
renal tubules
148
What would be absent or present in only trace amounts in healthy urine and is measured by a sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test
protein
149
A reagent strip test can detect urine protein levels that are greater than which value
30mg/dl
150
Which test measures the Bence Jones proteins in urine samples
sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test
151
A tech has been asked to confirm the reagent test strip results for urine protein which test should be done
urine protein/creatinine ratio
152
Which test is used to help confirm significant amounts of protein in the urine and uses the supernatant to evaluate the concentration
urine protein/creatine ratio
153
What disorder can lead to proteinuria
chronic or acute renal disease
154
A patient has only a trace amount of protein in a urine sample. when is this rare amount clinically significant
if the urine sample is very dilute .-
155
A feral and fractious cat needs to have a urine sample collected. Once collected, which finding could be epected
proteinuria
156
which test may be necessary to detect the presence of proteins in a patient with myeloma
sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test
157
A patient is admitted to the hospital with mild congestive heart failure (CHF). what should be an expected finding in a urinalysis
Proteinuria
158
what results when
the glomerular filtration and tubular resorption reach the threshold for resorption and excess passes into the urine
glucosuria
159
What may cause false positive results for glucose
aspirin
160
what test is used to detect sugars other than glucose in urine
Clinitest reagent tabs
161
What is formed by the incomplete catabolism of fatty acids and results in excess amounts of urine
ketones
162
What can occur in lactating cows when the energy for milk production exceeds the animals' ability to ingest sufficient feed to meet these requirements
ketonuria
163
What disease is seen in ewes carrying twins or triplets and is the result of ketosis
pregnancy toxemia
164
A dog is hypoglycemic and has been eating only a small amount of chicken breast for the past 3 wks. what would you expect to find in the urinalysis evaluation?
ketones
165
A cat has been trapped in a drain for 5 days what would you expect to find in the urine
ketones
166
A dog presents with signs of liver failure what would you expect to find in the urine
ketones
167
what could happen in a dog with impaired liver function
ketosis
168
what condition may occur when the liver is no longer able to metabolize carbohydrates, leading to fats being used as the main energy souce
ketosis
169
what is the first ketone produced by the body in any condition that causes ketosis
B-hydroxybutyric acid
170
What test is used most often to detect ketones in urine
reagent test strip
171
what ketones is the reagent test strip test most sensitive in reading
acetoacetic acid
172
What ketone is not detected by the reagent test strip
B hydroxybutyric acid
173
What is the limitation of using reagent test strips when testing for ketosis
inability to detect ketones in the early stage of ketosis
174
what species is even a trace amount of bilirubin in the urine considered abnormal and a sign of disease
felines
175
what animal would be considered normal to have bilirubin present in the urine
canines
176
a cat is admitted to the hospital with a possible bile duct obstruction what could be present in the urine to confirm the diagnosis
bilirubin
177
What test is best to detect bilirubin
ictotest
178
What is the best way to differentiate between hematuria and hemoglobinuria
Centrifuge the urine and examine the sediment microscopically for RBCs
179
A herd of cattle has been on a pasture with only a pond for water. What condition can occur if the cows drink a large amount of water after the pond thaws
hemoglobinuria
180
What if present in high concentrations can cause a urine sample to be very dark brown
myoglobin
181
what is frequently seen in horses with exertional rhabdomyolysis
myoglobinuria
182
What species is the leukocyte reagent test not valid due to false positive results
feline
183
what animal species could be expected to have large amounts of sediment in the urine
equine
184
what animal would it be normal to have a large amount of calcium carbonate crystals in the urine
Rabbits or horses
185
what is not a reason to read a fresh urine sample
casts may form
186
what test system allows for standardization of initial sample volume and distribution of elements on the slide
kova
187
what would be abnormal to find in urine sediment
yeast
188
what type of RBC may be seen in a urine sample that's concentrated
creanated
189
A tech is reading a urine sediment slide and sees RBCs what is an acceptable number of RBCs in normal urine sediment
2-3 RBCs per high per hpf
190
How many WBCs can be present in a normal urine sample
0-1 per hpf
191
whats the term for excessive WBCs in urine
pyuria
192
what type of cell is usually round, granular with a small nucleus, larger than WBCs and if found in large numbers indicative of cystitis or pyelonephritis
Transitional epithelial cells
193
what is the most common type of cast found in animal urine
Granular
194
which type of cast might be seen in the urine of a dog with diabetes mellitus
fatty
195
A dog that has ingested antifreeze is presented to the hospital what type of crystal would you expect to see in the animals urine
calcium oxalate
196
what type of crystal is common in an animal with severe liver disease
ammonium biurate
197
What component of urine may rise to a plane just below the coverslip and is in a different plane of focus than the other elements
fat droplets
198
Whats the only way to correctly identify the composition of a urolith
Send it to a reference lab
199
how are organisms that require oxygen to survive classified as
obligate anerobes
200
growth of organisms of facultative anaerobes is described by what
can have limited growth in he absence of oxygen
201
organisms that require a high level of CO2 are classified as
capnophillic
202
The majority of pathogenetic bacteria that affect animals are classified as
mesophiles
203
Leptospira pomona is classified as
spirochete
204
what best describes streptococcus pneumoniae
single coccus
205
Corynebacterium groupings are described as
palisades
206
organism inclusions that are resistant to heat, desiccation, chemicals, and radiation are considered
spores
207
What organism has spores located in the center of the cell
bacillus anthracis
208
what phase of bacterial growth is a state of homeostasis
stationary
209
what bacterial growth phase does spore formation usually occur
logarithmic
210
what organism digests its food externally by releasing digestive enzymes and then bringing food molecules into the mycelium
fungi
211
what organism reproduce through budding
yeast
212
Binary fission is the primary method of reproduction for
bacteria
213
what organisms are prokaryotes
bacteria
214
what stage is virus isolation most successful
early in the active infectious phase
215
What type of sample besides a gram stain preparation should be gently treated with heat prior to staining
ear
216
which sample technique has the advantage of collecting many cells from the tissue, especially in lesions that are firm and yeild few cells
scraping
217
why should a swabbed sample never be rubbed across the slide during preparation
cell damage can happen
218
A dog is presented with a lesion on the front, right shoulder, and the vet wants to check for bacterial infection. What would be the best type of sample to collect
swabbing
219
A vet asks a tech to collect and prepare a Tzanck preparation from a lesion on the chin of a ct. what type of preparation is this
imprint
220
large soft mass is removed from the liver of a dog, and the tech has been asked to prepare slides for evaluation what sampling technique would be approprate
imprint
221
A vet would like to obtain a sample from lymph nodes what would be the best sampling technique
fine needle aspirate (FNA)
222
A tech has been asked to prepare an FNA of a lymph node on a cat which size needle and syringe should be used
22 gauge needle with 20ml syringe
223
what type of sample collection relies on shearing and capillary action to obtain the sample
nonaspriate
224
Which biopsy technique takes little time and require local anesthetic and one to two sutures after collection
punch biopsy
225
what would be the correct to ensure proper fixing of a biopsy specimen
sliced to 1cm or less and placed in formalin
226
a fluid sample collected directly from the abdomen would be considered what
paracentesis
227
When collecting a sample via abdominocentesis it is noted that the sample has a yellowish tinge to the supernatant and very few RBCs upon sedimentation. What could be concluded from the sample
Hemorrhaging at least two days prior
228
A fractious cat is presented with a severe cough, and the vet would like to obtain a sample for evaluation, what would be the best method of collection
orotracheal transtracheal wash
229
The cell count is low on a central nervous system fluid sample and needs to be concentrated for proper analysis what method is best for concentrating it
gravitational sedimentation
230
A viscous sample has been collected via FNA what would be the best method to make a slide
starfish smear
231
what type of smear allows for three different areas of cell distribution for analysis
combination technique
232
A fluid specimen sample has been collected and has a low cellular concentration. What would be the best slide preparation technique for this sample
line smear
233
a tech has been asked to stain a cytology slide for microscopic examination what step will ensure the highest quality slide preparation
fixing in 95% methanol
234
what stain works well for staining the cytoplasm of the cells
Romanowsky stain
235
A vet is interested in determining if cells are neoplastic or inflammatory what type of stain would be best to use for this cytology slide
new methylene blue
236
When submitting a cytology sample to a reference lab for analysis how should the samples be submitted
stained slides, air dried slides, serum tube, and EDTA tube
237
A cytology slide has more than 85% neutrophils present how would it be categorized
suppurative
238
The cells on a cytology slide show signs of swollen ragged nuclei that don't have intact nuclear membranes and haven't stained well. what type of change is evidenced on this slide
karyolysis
239
A cytology slide shows cells in various stages of mitotic activity how would this sample be categorized
malignant
240
A cytology slide shows cells with a high nucleus to cytoplasm ratio how would this sample be categorized
epithelial cell tumor
241
A dog presents with a large blackened mass in the oral cavity, and the vet suspects melanoma what type of tumor is a melanoma
round cell tumor
242
peritoneal and pleural fluids should be evaluated for the total nucleated cell count. What's considered to be normal value of this evaluation
fewer than 10,000 nucleated cells/ul
243
what type of cell lines the body cavities and may become reactive if there's excess fluid in the body cavities
mesothelial
244
What type of fluid has increased cellularity and increased protein concentration due to inflammation
exudate
245
What type of fluid has increased cellularity and increased protein concentration due to inflammation
exudate
246
fluid from___________ may include lymphocytes, plasma cells, WBCs, neoplastic cells, and bacteria
lymph node
247
A cytology sample contains evidence of yeast cells, squamous epithelial cells, and malessezia what is the most likely source of this sample
Ears
248
What state of estrus has a high number of erythrocytes and basal and parabasal epithelial cells
proestrus
249
Which organisms require living cells in which to grow and replicate
viruses
250
The best way to ensure safety in a practice microbiology lab is to treat each sample as if it has which potential
zoonotic
251
which type of culture medium contains antibacterial substances that inhibit or kill all but the few types of bacteria desired
selective
252
which type of culture medium allows bacteria to group themselves by biochemical reactions
differential
253
If a tech were interested in replicating a known fastidious pathogen what type of culture medium would be used
enriched
254
Blood agar would be considered which type of medium
enriched
255
what type of hemolysis creates a narrow bank of geenish discoloration around the colony when grown on a blood agar plate
alpha
256
how would no change in the appearance of the medium around a bacterial colony be recorded on a blood agar plate
gamma hemolysis
257
what medium would you choose to grow gram negative bacteria like Enterobacteriaceae
MacConkey agar
258
If a patient is suspected of having Salmonella infection which agar is recommended to differentiate and initially identify this bacterium
Triple sugar iron agar
259
A patient is suspected of having Staphyloccus aureus infection what agar would be used to isolate the organism
mannitol salt agar
260
What's the agar of choice when performing culture and sensitivity tests
mueller hinton agar
261
What agar is most commonly used to do dermatophyte tests in vet clinics
sabouraud dextrose agar
262
To maximize the results microbiology samples must be collected in what manner
aseptically
263
What's the most common reason for the inability to diagnose a disease involving mircroorganisms
contamination of the sample
264
A vet would like to have a culture and sensitivity test completed on a cat with a suspected urinary tract infection what collection method is the best to obtain samples for this test
aspiration
265
What would be an example of a source that isn't likely to have multiple organisms in a sample
Urine collected by cystocentesis
266
A kitten is seen for possible ringworm infection what is the best method to obtain a sample to confirm this diagnosis
pluck hair and skin scales from the lesion
267
What's the best method to obtain samples for evaluation for viral infection in the acute stage of respiratory diseases
blood samples
268
A patient is suspected of having parainfluenza and it isn't possible to get the sample to the lab for testing for 48 hours what is the best option to preserve the sample
freeze to -20 C in airtight containers and ship on dry ice
269
In gram stain procedure which phase of the stain is considered the mordant
grams iodine
270
bacteria colonies that are more than 24 hrs old may not yield proper staining results due to
bacteria becoming excessively decolorized
271
In the gram stain procedure what stain is the primary stain
crystal violet
272
What's the 1st step that must be done when performing a gram stain procedure
place a drop of sterile saline on the slide
273
Which stage of the gram stain procedure prevents the sample from washing off, helps to preserve the cell morphology, and kills the bacteria so they're permeable to the staining
heat fixing
274
A tech finds round purple cells arranged in clusters on a gram stained slide how would these cells be catogorized
gram positive cocci
275
Gram positive bacteria
are purple when stained
276
Gram negative bacteria
are red when stained
277
A tech finds rod shaped red cells arranged in long strands on a gram stained slide how would they be characterized
gram negative rods
278
A gram stain shows both gram negative and gram positive cells what would not be a cause of this result
very young cultures would not affect this
279
A gram stain reveals Gram stain variable results which test would be performed to confirm the types of cells present
Potassium hydroxide test
280
What test would be performed to detect mycobacterium species in a sample
ziehl neelsen stain
281
what's the primary stain used in the ziehl neelsen staining technique
dimethyl sulfoxide
282
a microorganism on a slide appears red after staining with the ziehl neelsen stain what would be the result for his organism
acid fast
283
which staining procedure is the slide held over a flame until the dimethyl sulfoxide stain steams
ziehl neelsen stain
284
what test is used to show the capsule of bacillus anthracis
Giemsa staining
285
Which staining procedure requires the sample to be in the diluted stain for 20-30 min
Giemsa stain
286
When isolating a bacterial colony the best streaking technique would be
quadrant
287
If a slant agar is to be inoculated with bacteria what's the best technique to inoculate only the surface of the slant
Slant S
288
a pathogenic bacteria sample has been streaked onto an agar plate what is the optimal temp for incubation
37C
289
A pathogenic bacteria sample has been streaked onto an agar plate and placed in 37C incubator. when should the sample be examined for evidence of bacterial growth
18-24 hours
290
A candle jar creates what type of environment
Rich in CO2
291
An experienced tech can recognize some bacteria by sight what characteristic can be used to describe texture of a colony
Mucoid
292
how often should the inoculating loop be flamed during the quadrant streaking method
at the beginning, between each quadrant, and at the end
293
what is the most commonly performed type of sensitivity test in vet med
agar diffusion method
294
which sensitivity test should be performed to determine the appropriate concentration of medication for a patient
minimum inhibitory concentration
295
What is measured to determine the efficacy of an antimicrobial
Zone of inhibition
296
what culture medium is used for most sensitivity testing
mueller hinton
297
what type of sample can a colony count help with the diagnosis of infection
urine
298
What motility test requires a concave portion on the slide and is resistant to the sample's drying
Hanging drop
299
If the organisms are non motile on microscopic examination what test should be performed
motility media
300
A positive or motile result in motility media would appear as what
diffuse growth throughout the media
