Clinical Skill/Critical Care in NC_2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following disorders leads to hypernatremia?
    a. Addison’s disease
    b. hyperaldosteronism
    c. hypothyroidism
    d. renal failure
    e. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
A

B. hyperaldosteronism

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2
Q

22 The most common acid-base disturbance in mild to moderately injured patients without severe renal, circulatory, or pulmonary decompensation is

a. respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
b. respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory or metabolic acidosis
d. respiratory or metabolic alkalosis

A

D. respiratory or metabolic alkalosis

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3
Q
  1. The reabsorption of Na+ ions in the thin ascending Henle’s loop
    a. is by active transport
    b. is by a Na+-K+ exchange pump
    c. passively follows the active transport of CI- ions
    d. passively follows the active transport of water molecules
A

C. passively follows the active transport of CI- ions

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4
Q
24. Of the two prodrugs that block the Gi-coupled platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, it has a slightly more favorable toxicity profile.
A. abciximab (Reopro)
B. aspirin
C clopidogrel (Plavix)
D. eptifibatide (Integrilin)
E. ticlopidine (Ticlid)
A

C. clopidogrel (Plavix)

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5
Q
25. is the Fab fragment of a monoclonal antibody directed against the IIb/IIIa receptor
A. abciximab (Reopro)
B. aspirin
C clopidogrel (Plavix)
D. eptifibatide (Integrilin)
E. ticlopidine (Ticlid)
A

A. abciximab (Reopro)

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6
Q
is a cyclic peptide inhibitor of the arginine-glycine-aspartate (RGD) binding site on the glycoprotein IIb/lIIa
A. abciximab (Reopro)
B. aspirin
C clopidogrel (Plavix)
D. eptifibatide (Integrilin)
E. ticlopidine (Ticlid)
A

D. eptifibatide (Integrilin)

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7
Q
blocks production of thromboxane A2
A. abciximab (Reopro)
B. aspirin
C clopidogrel (Plavix)
D. eptifibatide (Integrilin)
E. ticlopidine (Ticlid)
A

B. aspirin

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8
Q

Which laboratory findings in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
correlates most closely with bleeding?
A. decreased fibrinogen
B. increased fibrin degradation products
C. increased prothrombin time (PT)
D. increased partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
E. increased thrombin time (TT)

A

A. decreased fibrinogen

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9
Q

The definition of oxygen saturation is the
A. amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma
B. fractional concentration of inspired oxygen
C. partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
D. percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen
E. ratio of unbound to bound hemoglobin

A

D. percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen

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10
Q
Metabolic responses to trauma include each of the following except
A. hypoglycemia
B. increased rate of lipolysis
C. increased Na+ reabsorption
D. increased water reabsorption
E. metabolic'alkalosis
A

A. hypoglycemia

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11
Q
A normal PT, a prolonged PTT, and a bleeding disorder would result from a deficiency
of factor
A. II
B. V
C. VIII
D. X
E. XII
A

C. VIII

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12
Q
shortest half-life
A. factor II
B. factor VII
C. factor VIII .
D. factor IX
E. factor X
A

B. factor VII

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13
Q
reflects the extrinsic pathway
A. factor II
B. factor VII
C. factor VIII .
D. factor IX
E. factor X
A

B. factor VII

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14
Q
deficient or abnormal in hemophilia A (classic)
A. factor II
B. factor VII
C. factor VIII .
D. factor IX
E. factor X
A

C. factor VIII .

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15
Q
deficient in hemophilia B (Christmas disease)
A. factor II
B. factor VII
C. factor VIII .
D. factor IX
E. factor X
A

D. factor IX

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16
Q
All except this factor are vitamin K-dependent factors.
A. factor II
B. factor VII
C. factor VIII .
D. factor IX
E. factor X
A

C. factor VIII .

17
Q
Deficiency of factor II or this factor results in prolonged PT and PTT.
A. factor II
B. factor VII
C. factor VIII .
D. factor IX
E. factor X
A

E. factor X

18
Q

antithrombin III deficiency
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT, normal bleeding time

A

E. hypercoagulable state

19
Q

DIC
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time

20
Q

von Willebrand’s disease
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time

21
Q

dysfibrinogenemia
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time

22
Q

malnutrition
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time

23
Q

factor VII deficiency
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time

24
Q

factor XII deficiency
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

C. normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time

25
Q

factor VIII deficiency
A. abnormal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
B. abnormal PT, normal PTT and bleeding time
C normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time
D. normal PT, abnormal PTT and bleeding time
E. hypercoagulable state
F. normal PT, abnormal PTT

A

F. normal PT, abnormal PTT