Clinical Skill/Critical Care in NC_3

Question 1

often occurs with hypokalemia
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 1

C. metabolic alkalosis

Question 2

Addison's disease
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 2

B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis

Question 3

salicylate overdose (early stage)
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 3

E. respiratory alkalosis

Question 4

myasthenia gravis
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 4

D. respiratory acidosis

Question 5

ethylene glycol overdose
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 5

A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis

Question 6

Cushing's disease
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 6

C. metabolic alkalosis

Question 7

primary aldosteronism
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis

Answer 7

C. metabolic alkalosis

Question 8

The formula for mean arterial pressure is (DBP = diastolic blood pressure; SBP = systolic blood pressure)
A. (DBP + SBP)/2
B. DBP + (SBP - DBP)/2
C. DBP/2 + SBP/3
D. DBP + (SBP - DBP)/3
E. DBP/2 + (SBP - DBP)/3

Answer 8

D. DBP + (SBP - DBP)/3

Question 9

parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 9

C. both

Question 10

pancreatic islet cell hyperplasia, adenoma, or carcinoma
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner’s syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple’s syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 10

A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner’s syndrome)

Question 11

pituitary hyperplasia or adenoma
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 11

A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner’s syndrome)

Question 12

Pheochromocytomas are common.
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 12

B. MEN type IIA (Sipple’s syndrome)

Question 13

Medullary thyroid carcinomas are common.
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 13

B. MEN type IIA (Sipple’s syndrome)

Question 14

mucosal and gastrointestinal tumors
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 14

D. neither

Question 15

marfanoid features
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

Answer 15

D. neither

Question 16

Characteristics of hyperaldosteronism include each of the following except
A. edema
B. hypokalemia
C. increased diastolic blood pressure
D. metabolic alkalosis
E. polyuria

Answer 16

A. edema

Question 17

Adequacy of pulmonary ventilation is assessed by
A. Fi02
B. oxygen saturation
C. Pa C02
D. partial pressure of O2 in blood
E. tidal volume

Answer 17

C. Pa C02

Question 18

hypocalcemia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave

Answer 18

D. prolonged QT interval

Question 19

hypokalemia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave

Answer 19

E. U wave

Question 20

hyperkalemia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave

Answer 20

C. peaked T wave

Question 21

hypothermia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave

Answer 21

B. J-point elevation

Question 22

hyperthyroidism
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave

Answer 22

A. atrial fibrillation

Question 23

quinidine toxicity
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave

Answer 23

D. prolonged QT interval

Question 24

Which of the following is false of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Calcium is released from the muscle cell’s sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. end-tidal pC02 increases
C. It is precipitated by the use of inhalational anesthetics.
D. Treatment is with dantrolene
E. Use of succinylcholine can help prevent it.

Answer 24

E. Use of succinylcholine can help prevent it.

Question 25

``` Of the following, the best choice for Clostridium difficile enterocolitis is A. clindamycin orally B. metronidazole (Flagyl) orally C. penicillin G orally D. penicillin VK intravenously E. vancomycin intravenously ```

Answer 25

B. metronidazole (Flagyl) orally

Question 26

``` pulsus paradoxus A. cardiac tamponade B. tension pneumothorax C. both D. neither ```

Answer 26

A. cardiac tamponade

Question 27

``` Increased venous pressure A. cardiac tamponade B. tension pneumothorax C. both D. neither ```

Answer 27

C. both

Question 28

``` increased pulse pressure A. cardiac tamponade B. tension pneumothorax C. both D. neither ```

Answer 28

D. neither

Question 29

``` Meningitis occurring within 72 hours after a basilar skull fracture is most commonly secondary to A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis E. Streptococcus pneumoniae ```

Answer 29

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 30

``` Postoperative shunt infections are most commonly caused by A. coagulase-negative staphylococci B. H. influenzae C. Pseudoqonas species D. S. aureus E. S. pneumoniae ```

Answer 30

A. coagulase-negative staphylococci