Closed Book Flashcards

1
Q

Actuation of the engine crank switch above ____% rpm may shear the Air Turbine Starter shaft?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If both BLEED OFF cautions are on, list 4 systems no longer available?

A

(The following are all correct answers)
ECS, OBOGS, ANTI G, FUEL TANK PRESSURE, THROTTLE BOOST, ANTI ICE, DEFOG,
CANOPY SEAL, WAVEGUIDE PRESSURIZATION, CROSSBLEED START, EXT FUEL TRANSFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max engagement speed for E-28 arresting gear is ____knots groundspeed.

A

175 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In a single engine condition, exceeding ______ AOA ½ flaps or _____ AOA full flaps with the good engine in MAX afterburner may lead to loss of lateral and directional control

A

12 / 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Takeoff should be avoided with an excess of ________ inch of standing water on the runway

A

.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Leading edge deflections of the inboard / outboard (circle one) beyond the 4 degrees over-travel stop may result in an uncontrollable configuration below ____knots.

A

inboards / 250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A CG caution indicates that tank ____ and tank ____ fuel is not sequencing properly.

A

1 / 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T / F: The APU accumulator will back up the emergency brake accumulator when the landing gear is emergency extended.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Holding the HYD ISOL switch to ORIDE for more than 10 seconds if the APU ACCUM caution does not clear may result in loss of HYD _________ fluid.

A

2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When encountering icing in flight adjust airspeed to provide at least ____ C (_____ C preferred) INLET TEMP on the DDI engine display.

A

5 / 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For post departure dive recovery, min alt loss is achieved by selecting MAX AB and maintaining what range of
AOA?

A

25-35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T / F: A “L BLD OFF” or “R BLD OFF” caution indicates the associated bleed valve is closed.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T / F: DCS symptoms may not be recognized immediately. Remaining on emergency oxygen until depleted and maintaining the lowest safe altitude minimizes the development of DCS.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Optimum speed for ejection is __________ kts. and below.

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T / F After the first HUNG START another start may be attempted once EGT has been reduced below 200 degrees C.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T / F: If visible moisture exists and the temp is 45F (7C) or less, engine anti-ice switch should be on after engine start.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For cold weather operations, avoid activating any hydraulic actuated system for ____________ after both engines are online.

A

2 Minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For the Emergency Jettison system to be operational you must either have _________ or ________.

A

Weight off Wheels / Gear Handle Up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T / F: During recovery from a fully developed spin, full lateral stick should be maintained in direction of arrow until it disappears.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Excessive hydraulic system demands combined with single engine rpm below ______ % may exceed hydraulic system capacity and result in FCS reversion to MECH.

A

85

21
Q

T / F: After an Engine Stall condition, the affected engine can be restarted after it has been shutdown and the stall cleared.

A

False

22
Q

For a crossbleed start a minimum of _____ rpm and _____ pph fuel flow is required.

A

80% / 1900

23
Q

The permissible accelerations during landing gear extension/retraction with the flaps HALF or FULL are ____ to ____ symmetrical, ____ to ____ asymmetrical.

A

.5 - 2 / .5 - 1.5

24
Q

Normal brake pressure is supplied by _________.

A

HYD 2A

25
Q

With a channel 2 or 4 failure, emergency NWS is activated by _______________, _______________, and, _______________.

A

Pulling failed CB / Unlocking Wings / Pressing NWS Button

26
Q

T / F: During an emergency catapult flyaway situation, raising the flaps will increase aircraft settle.

A

True

27
Q

A planing link failure may cause a sudden swerve on touchdown in which direction? Is symmetrical braking the recommended technique to stop the aircraft?

A

The direction of the failed gear / No

28
Q

T / F: SIM must be unboxed for the emergency jettison system to be operational.

A

False

29
Q

Due to the possibility of misdiagnosing DCS and hypoxia systems, selecting ________ to purge the cockpit of potential contaminants is necessary before removing the oxygen mask.

A

RAM/DUMP

30
Q

T / F: Under normal circumstances, steady, light brake applications should be applied to avoid brake heating.

A

False

31
Q

If the Single Bleed Warning procedure is not completed in its entirety, there exists a possibility of making yourself ___________.

A

hypoxic

32
Q

Ground idle rpm is

A

– 400 –
61 - 72 %

– 402 –
63 - 70 %

33
Q

Flight idle rpm is

A

– 400 / 402 –

68 - 73%

34
Q

EGT , Max steady-state is

A

– 400 –
Mil - 830C
Max - 830C

– 402 –
Mil - 880C
Max - 920C

35
Q

EGT , Max transient is

A

– 400 –
Start - 815C
Mil - 852C
Max - 852C

– 402 –
Start - 815C
Mil - 902C
Max - 942C

36
Q

OIL Px, Ground steady state (warm oil) IDLE ___ to____PSI

A

45 - 110

37
Q

Oil Px , In-flight steady state:

A

IDLE - 55 - 110 psi

MIL - 95-180 psi

38
Q

Refueling probe extension / retraction:_____.

A

300 kts

39
Q

Landing Gear extension / retraction: _____.

A

250 kts

40
Q

Limits , Tires: Nose ____ Main ____.

A

190 / 210 kts

41
Q

Refueling probe extended in-flight: _____ .

A

400 kts

42
Q

Limits , Canopy open

A

60 kts

43
Q

Dive over ____ with less than 1,900 pounds fuel

A

45 deg

44
Q

Flight with _____ rate warning tone

A

YAW

45
Q

Full or partial lateral stick deflection and/or rudder pedal input over ______ degrees roll/yaw.

A

360

46
Q

Takeoff with any _____ axis failed

A

CAS

47
Q

50) Takeoff or flared landing with 90 deg crosswind component over ____ knots. Normal or section landing with 90 deg crosswind component over ____ knots.

A

30 / 15

48
Q

APU cool down between starts

A

2 min