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DH8 Avsoft > CMD Line Training > Flashcards

CMD Line Training Flashcards

1
Q

When can you descend below MSA at night?

A
  • Circling Area
  • 5NM on PAPI
  • 7NM on PAPI at aerodrome with GS
  • 10NM on ILS
    -14NM on ILS on 16L and 34L
    `
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2
Q

If you require a certain runway, how far from the aerodrome must you request it?

A

80NM from a capital city aerodrome or 30NM from a regular control zone.

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3
Q

After what period of time must we advise ATC if GNSS is unavailable?

A

5 Minutes if RAIM fail.

1 Minute if the GNSS has entered DR mode.

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4
Q

If deviating from flight planned TAS how many kts must you notify ATC?

A

10kts

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5
Q

If you get an RA during a breakout procedure what should you follow?

A

The RA

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6
Q

If operating one one altimeter do you need to notify ATC?

A

Yes

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7
Q

Maximum circuit speed class D

A

200KT

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8
Q

Take off wake sep standards

A
  • 2 Min Full Length Heavy
  • 3 Min Intersection Heavy
  • 3 Min Full Length Super
  • 4 Min Intersection Super
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9
Q

How close can we follow heavier aircraft?

A
  • 5NM Heavy

- 7 NM Super

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10
Q

What distance can an intersection departure be considered full length?

A

Provided you begin the take off roll from no more than 150m where the proceeding aircraft began their takeoff roll.

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11
Q

What are the items required for brief in a holding pattern?

A 
T - Type of entry
F - Fuel
L - Lights 
A - Altitude
S - Speed
T - Time
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12
Q

When taxiing behind a jet how many meters must we be behind?

A

46m Static

30m Moving

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13
Q

Where is the thunderstorm airport shut down PA?

A

OM1

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14
Q

How ofter must fuel in flight be checked?

A

Every hour

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15
Q

Junior FO Takeoff Minima

A

300ft and 2km Vis or Airport Runway Limits, whichever is lower.

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16
Q

How far apart are the approach lights?

A

150m +-6m

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17
Q

OCTA & CTA Transponder Codes?

A

2000 & 3000

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18
Q

What are the requirements after start before selecting power levers below Flight Idle?

A

780RPM and TRU and AC Gen Lights Out

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19
Q

What must we now add into ISTOP threats brief due COVID?

A

Run through the COVID TAB with each new crew.

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20
Q

Where can the card for the observer safety brief be found?

A

The Esky

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21
Q

With the APU running, what is the company SOP for start with pushback

A

Start both engines off the APU

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22
Q

Minimum crew O2 dispatch and when do we need to request a refil?

A

1,300psi min dispatch and refill at 1,500psi

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23
Q

Where can we find LDA?

A

Performance Handbook

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24
Q

Where can we find LRC power settings?

A

LRC Data Card

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25
Q

DOM1A Radio Procedures?

A

Before boarding - Departures 129.3

While boarding - SMC 121.9 and Movements 134.52

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26
Q

How long before departure can we request a clearance

A

30min

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27
Q

On an IVA with a radio failure what is the maximum angle to intercept final at?

A

30 degrees

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28
Q

How far must we avoid the marker pegs at Foxtrot Holding Point by?

A

3m from the wings at least

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29
Q

If a gantry is to be used for disembarkation what must flight crew do?

A

Inform the cabin crew

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30
Q

If the airport is in Thunderstorm shutdown can we taxi onto the bay without a marshaller?

A

Yes in accordance with OM1

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31
Q

When do we select ignition to manual in non auto equiped aircraft?

A

Turbulence, icing or heavy precipitation

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32
Q

How often must the oils be checked?

A

Every 36 hours but is shortly to be changed to 48 hours with FDEM amendment

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33
Q

How long are the hot and ambient tyre checks valid for?

A

Hot - One Calendar Day

Ambient - 72 Hours

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34
Q

How often is a Ramp Service Check Required?

A

Once a calendar day or 48 hours

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35
Q

How long after engine shut down must the oils be checked?

A

15-30mins

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36
Q

Who do we call when there has been some form of incident?

A

ROC, they will facilitate communication with all required parties.

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37
Q

Where is the minimum manual complement for dispatch listed?

A

OM1

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38
Q

Where do I find the password for the online Jeppesen Pack?

A

OM1

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39
Q

What form can we fill out to request a change of the manuals?

A

QL120

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40
Q

Due to COVID, when planning alternates what else must we do before departure if an alternate is required?

A

Contact ROC to inform them of the alternates being used.

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41
Q

Where would I find a list of reportable events to the ATSB?

A

OM1

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42
Q

What is a RRM?

A

It is defined in the AIP. It generally pertains to events that have or could have affected safety of flight but are not defined as an IRM. This includes incidents such as bird strikes and incorrect transponder codes.

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43
Q

How long do you have to submit a RRM?

A

24 hours of the event flight crew are expected to submit a HIRO.

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44
Q

Examples of an IRM?

A
  • Death or serious injury to people on the aircraft that is directly related to the operation of that aircraft.
  • Violation of controlled airspace
  • Fire on aircraft
  • Fuel Exhaustion
  • RTO from a closed runway

A full list can be found in the AIP

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45
Q

Under what circumstances must you notify the ROC immediately?

A
  • An incident that threatens the wellbeing and safety of customers
  • Presents a threat to the commercial viability of QantasLink
  • An incident that poses a significant threat to the brand
  • An event that is likely to require a public expectation of a response from QantasLink
  • An IRM
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46
Q

What incidents have special reporting procedures?

A
  • Bird Strikes
  • Lightening Strikes
  • Hazardous Weather
  • Breakdown in Seperation
  • Laser light incident
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47
Q

What CAO pertains to Flight and Duty?

A

CAO 48

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48
Q

Where do you find procedures for illness and injury while at work?

A

OM1

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49
Q

What do fumes caused by oil contaminated bleed air smell like?

A

Dirty socks

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50
Q

Where is the protocol for Cabin Smoke and Fumes located?

A

OM1

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51
Q

In a smoke/fumes event who must complete a HIRO?

A

All crew members effected by the event.

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52
Q

Company Frequencies Sydney

A

Departures - 129.3
Arrivals - 134.525
Maintenance - 130.25

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53
Q

Three Climb Profiles

A

Type 1 - 205kt to 10,000ft then reduce by 5kt/1,000ft
Type 2 - 170kt to 15,000ft then reduce by 3kt/1,000ft
Type 3 - 135kt

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54
Q

What are the responsibilities of the PIC?

A
  • The start, continuation and diversion and end of flight by the aircraft
  • The operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time
  • The safety of persons and cargo carried on the aircraft
  • The conduct and safety of members of the aircrew on the aircraft
  • The maintenance of discipline by all crew members on board.
  • PIC shall have final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft.
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55
Q

Where is the Thunderstorm Shutdown PA

A

OM1

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56
Q

What are the requirements of LAHSO

A
  • LDR vs LDA calculations
  • Read back the LAHSO instruction
  • Weather conditions dictated by tower
  • Crew must be trained in LAHSO
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57
Q

What is the CAO that dictates required performance?

A

CAO 20.7.1 B

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58
Q

What times is the PIC held solely responsible for the safety of the aircraft?

A

From doors closed to doors open and shutdown procedures are finished.

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59
Q

What is the role of the Duty Pilot?

A

To fulfil the company crisis management plan

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60
Q

If you cannot contact the duty pilot who is next to try and contact?

A

Business hours Flying Operations management at a particular base.

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61
Q

Junior FO landing minima?

A

1 - 4km Vis & MDA/DA+200ft
2 - 15kt Crosswind
3 - 5kt Tailwind
4 - 1,300m LDA

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62
Q

Regular FO landing limits?

A

1 - Crosswind 30kt

2 - Tailwind 5kt

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63
Q

If weather conditions are forecast to exceed a First Officer’s landing minima, when should control be handed over?

A

Prior to top of descent

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64
Q

Can we request a non duty runway so that a first officer can land due to minima?

A

No. (OM 4.8)

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65
Q

Junior FO Takeoff Minima?

A

2km vis
300ft cloud base
OR airport minima, whichever is higher.

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66
Q

What are the limitations for a 550m vis Zero Foot take off?

A

1 - Any operation when tower is active
2 - Day only at non controlled aerodromes
3 - Locations with light spacing not exceeding 60meters
4 - Airport needs a secondary power supply where the switchover time is one second or less

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67
Q

Where do you find information on the runway light spacing?

A

Route Manual

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68
Q

What are the restrictions for the first three months of command with regard to crew pairing?

A

All first officers you fly with must have completed the 3 month post CTL line check

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69
Q

What’s the difference between an R1 and an R2 route?

A

R1 Routes require no ongoing recency, whereas R@ routes require an annual check. Currently the only R2 route is LDH.

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70
Q

Do we require specific route qualifications for a charter flight?

A

No.

The Fleet Technical Manager will provide any special briefing material.

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71
Q

If you have been to a port as an FO does this mean you have to do a CAR218 package before going as a captain?

A

No, if you’ve been to the port as an FO that satisfies the requirement.

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72
Q

What are the recency requirements for QantasLink crew?

A

Enrolment in the Cyclic Programme. There are some exceptions to this such as a long break from work as we have seen during COVID.

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73
Q

How long after engine shut down is the sign off time?

A

15 mins

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74
Q

When can you unlock the flight deck door after flight?

A

Once the passenger door is open.

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75
Q

What three things do you have to state to gain access to the flight deck?

A

1 - Name
2 - Password
3 - Reason for entry

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76
Q

If the flight deck door fails in flight?

A

You must call the DSC after landing

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77
Q

Where can I find a list of Authorised Persons on the flight deck.

A

OM1

78
Q

If a passenger has been refused carriage by another carrier where do I find the procedure for that?

A

OM1

79
Q

Must the PIC approve the restraint of a passenger?

A

Generally yes, but in extenuating circumstances the crew may detain a passenger without permission so long as they let the PIC know ASAP.

80
Q

If you deviate from SOP’s what must you do?

A

Submit a HIRO

81
Q

Where do you find the NAIPS login?

A

OM1

82
Q

Where is a list of weather events that require the PIC to notify the ROC pre flight?

A

OM1

83
Q

Who is responsible for cancellation of flights?

A

ROC

84
Q

When are fuel figures sent to refuellers at an outport?

A

At the later of

  • ETD - 45min
  • Flight Crew Acceptance of Flight Plan
85
Q

When do the Flight Crew ask for fuel at the outport?

A

Call up in the planning phase and call inbound on company frequency.

86
Q

What are the COBT time limits?

A

-5 Minutes & +15 Minutes

87
Q

If you’re going to miss your COBT time who do you ask for a new one?

A

The ground agent or ROC

88
Q

Should you try get a slot time through the tower?

A

No

89
Q

If there isn’t a new slot available what may ROC ask you to do?

A

Depart non compliant.

90
Q

What is the Fire Commander VHF Frequency

A

131.00MHz

91
Q

What are the usual two methods of conducting a fuel check?

A

Refuelling receipt and gauges.

92
Q

When refuelling what are the restrictions regarding the GPU and APU

A

GPU may be used provided it isn’t connected or disconnected during the refuelling process
APU may be used provided it isn’t started or shut down during the refuelling process.

93
Q

How far from the APU exhaust should the refuelling truck be?

A

30ft or 9.2m

94
Q

Can we over wing fuel with passengers onboard?

A

No

95
Q

What are considerations to be aware of when refuelling with passengers onboard?

A
  • Cabin crew must be notified
  • Seatbelt sign off
  • Must be at least one cabin crew member present
  • Cabin crew make the refuelling PA
  • Forward passenger door must be open and boarding equipment in place.
  • Emergency exits must not be blocked
96
Q

What considerations are there regarding non-amnulatory passengers while refuelling?

A

They only may remain on board in numbers that would not significantly impact a rapid evacuation

97
Q

Where do you find a list of events that require operational debriefs?

A

OM1

98
Q

What is the critical phase of flight?

A

Take off = Application of power - Gear Up

Landing = Gear Down - Vacating Runway

99
Q

What is the minimum crew complement for boarding to begin?

A

One flight crew and one cabin crew.

100
Q

When does auto boarding start?

A

Minus 17 @ SYD,MEL,BNE

Minus 15 everywhere else

101
Q

Where do I find who can be seated in an exit row?

A

OM1

102
Q

When do all passengers need to be seated with belts fastened?

A

1,000ft AGL or The IAF

103
Q

During an extended delay, how often should a P.A be made?

A

10 minutes

104
Q

How many minutes should there be between the Cabin Prep PA and Seatbelt sign being turned on?

A

15 minutes

105
Q

If the load sheet won’t upload to the system, what is required?

A

Fill out the Manual Load Statement from the information on the iPad.

106
Q

If the QLink Load app isn’t working what must you do?

A

Request a printed FM Load Sheet from the ground agents.

107
Q

Once the ground crew bring you a FM Load sheet for acceptance what must you do?

A

Sign the FM Load sheet

108
Q

Where can I find information pertaining to PED’s?

A

OM1

109
Q

How many rows on a 300/200?

A

12 & 9

110
Q

On the ground at a CTAF what should the radio setup be?

A

VHF 1 = CTR Freq

VHF 2 = Company Freq until boarding commences then CTAF Freq.

111
Q

Should specific details of maintenance problems be broadcast on company VHF?

A

Wherever possible, no.

112
Q

How late do we have to be off blocks before a mandatory report of a delay?

A

3 minutes or more late.

113
Q

When is the lates we are supposed to be at the aircraft?

A

25 minutes before departure or 30 minutes on first flight of the day

114
Q

What must the captain confirm is correct before accepting an airways clearance?

A

Basically the right side of the TOLD card is correct.

115
Q

When can a captain deviate from Taxi lines?

A

When being marshalled and in an emergency or abnormal operation.

116
Q

Can a crew member use a mobile phone on the ground while the engines are running?

A

Yes, provided one crew member monitors the state of the aircraft at all times and the aircraft is parked.

117
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed below 3,000ft?

A

210kts company restriction or 200kt in class D airspace

118
Q

According to OM1 when should the aerodrome lights be turned on at a CTAF

A

Just prior to switching to CTAF

119
Q

May you move off the bay in a CTAF to a different location to get ATS coverage?

A

Yes provided you don’t enter the runway before communicating with centre.

120
Q

How long may an AFRU be U/S before we cannot operate to that port?

A

7 days

121
Q

Where do you find the procedure for operating into a CTAF with no AFRU?

A

OM1

122
Q

To do an approach off an area QNH what change must be made to the minima?

A

Add 100ft onto the ‘Forecast QNH’ Minima

123
Q

How close to the aerodrome must you be before descending below 1,000ft?

A

You must be within 5nm of the Aerodrome

124
Q

When can we do a practice circling approach?

A

Only when under the supervision of Instructors and Examiners.

125
Q

When must the PF have their hands on the power levers and control column

A

From the IAF through to landing.

126
Q

What must we do when the get load function of the load app fails and how do we conduct a gross error check?

A

We must complete a call back card and it must be within 100kg of the load.

127
Q

When do you not have to shut the APU down between engine starts?

A

Battery loads or air conditioning

128
Q

What should the oil pressure be after starting an engine?

A

55psi

129
Q

Can we start engine one first?

A

Yes, but only if there is a reason to do so. The normal procedure is to start engine two first.

130
Q

In the event of the starter failing to disengage how long after deselecting start select does the starter light take to go out?

A

Approx 5 Seconds.

131
Q

In the event of the starter failing to disengage how long after deselecting start select does the starter light take to go out?

A

Approx 5 Seconds.

132
Q

When does the FMS Nav Database Expire?

A

1600UTC (0300 AEDT) The day before expiry. Meaning you may have to change the nav database on first flight of the day

133
Q

When must there be a hand on the power levers and controls?

A

From the IAF during an instrument approach and from joining the circuit in a circuit.

134
Q

When must the approach checklist be completed by?

A

The IAF or 3,000ft, whichever is higher.

135
Q

Where is the 15 minute requirement to get the QNH measured from?

A

The commencement of the approach

136
Q

When the cabin ready light is U/S what is the procedure?

A

Use the interphone to advise cabin ready.

137
Q

If flap setting is changed after descent checklist what must you do?

A

Brief
Change Bugs
Redo the descent checklist

138
Q

What is the minimum altitude for a turn unless dictated by special or supplemental procedures

A

500ft

139
Q

If one of the 24 hour tests fails, may you repeat it?

A

Yes, only once.

140
Q

If there is no QRH guidance for resetting a CB, how many times can you reset a CB? And what restrictions are there on the resets?

A

It may be reset once.
Aircraft must be on the ground
There must be no history of this defect

141
Q

Must a birdstrike always be recorded in the QL-3

A

No. It must only be recorded if there are certain parameters outlined in OM1

142
Q

300 Speed Gates?

A 
Holding - 160kt
Descent & Approach;
Flaps Zero - 155kt
Flaps Five - 145kt
Flaps Ten - 135kt
Flaps 15 for a Flaps 35 landing - VRef or VRef Ice +15
143
Q

Below LSA/MSA FMS Operation is limited to?

A

IMC - Functions required for an approach

Day VMC - DTO to a waypoint already included un the approach

144
Q

Can I do an ILS in composite mode?

A

No

145
Q

What are the three limitations on the RAS door?

A
  • Door closed at all times during flight except for the approved reasons
  • Any time the door is opened in flight it must be verified on closing that the door unlocked light isn’t lit
  • The door power switch may only be used on the ground
146
Q

For ADSB operations what are the limitations?

A
  • A serviceable transponder is required to be used
  • FMS must be operative
  • FMS must have a valid GPS position
147
Q

Why do we have to wait two minutes to turn APU bleed on?

A

To minimise the chance of fumes

148
Q

When testing the APU fire detection, how long can you hold the test switch for?

A

10 seconds maximum

149
Q

If there’s a subsequent QNH change after the performance calculation what is the weight penalty?

A

50kg

150
Q

During the data read out where are the speeds being read from?

A

First Officer - Vr TOLD Card, V2 & VBG from booklet, confirming with ASI
Captain - Checks speeds read out agree with the #1 ASI

151
Q

What three things are you checking at the start checks?

A

1 - Anti-col red
2 - Fueling Caution - Out
3 - APU As Required

152
Q

When is a headset required for start?

A

When a pushback is required

153
Q

When must you perform the ice protection 24 hour checks on the ground?

A

When the aircraft is departing into icing conditions and didn’t fly the previous calendar day

154
Q

When must the captain state the intended taxi route after start?

A

Prior to the aircraft moving

155
Q

When should we use 1050RPM after transition on climb?

A

To increase rate of climb to try clear icing conditions.

156
Q

What two things should we reference when deciding the landing weight in flight?

A

The load sheet and fuel figures

157
Q

During the CTWO+ brief in the 200 what must be briefed?

A

The differences between the 200 and 300.

158
Q

Before turning off external power on terminate, what position must the batteries be in?

A

On

159
Q

Where do you find the checklist for ferrying an aircraft without crew?

A

Supplemental section FCOM

160
Q

Can you reset an avionics cooling fan fault airborne?

A

No

161
Q

What apps should the PM and PF have displayed on Take Off?

A

PF - SID or Relevant Chart

PM - Escape Procedure

162
Q

Can we use the backup battery during take off and landing?

A

No (FCOM 4.6)

163
Q

What % battery must the iPad remain above?

A

20% (FCOM 4.6)

164
Q

What must you do if the ‘Get Load’ function fails?

A

Request manual load sheet from ground crew. (FCOM 4.6.3)

165
Q

When conducting a gross error check on the load sheet, does it include PHL luggage?

A

No (FCOM 4.6.3)

166
Q

If the load sheet fails to submit on the iPad, what is the first action you should try?

A

Try using the other iPad. (FCOM 4.6.4)

167
Q

What is the minimum voltage for start?

A

A minimum voltage has not been specified. However id the volts are below 23.0 the start should be closely monitored for slow acceleration. (FCOM 4.7.1)

168
Q

When the start switch is pressed what should we look for on the Main Bus Voltage?

A

An excessive drop, this may indicate an abnormal start impending. (FCOM 4.7.1)

169
Q

What is the reason for the upper limit of 19% NH for introduction of fuel on start?

A

Anything higher may introduce oil into the bleed system. (FCOM 4.7.1)

170
Q

What is the indication that the starter has remained engaged?

A

A negative load on the DC Gen Load. (FCOM 4.7.1)

171
Q

During the FMS cross check you notice that one of the tracks is out by 2 degrees. Is this acceptable?

A

Yes, differences of three degrees or less are acceptable. (FCOM 4.8)

172
Q

Can we have VOR on one EHSI and RNAV on the second EHSI?

A

No. Both pilots must be on the same nav source. (FCOM 4.8)

173
Q

Can a captain enter something into the FMS while taxiing?

A

No. All entries must be performed by the first officer. (FCOM 4.8)

174
Q

When above 10,000ft who should make FMS entries?

A

The PM. However the PF may make simple entries however only one pilot may have their head down while programming the FMS. (FCOM 4.8 Para 11)

175
Q

Below MSA/LSA FMS operation is prohibited to?

A

IMC - Functions required for an approach.
Day VMC - DTO WPT already included in the flight plan.
(FCOM 4.8 Para 12)

176
Q

If a SID incorporates a course to DME leg CD o CR leg where do you find the procedure for that?

A

FCOM Supplemental FMS Procedures.

177
Q

When conducting a DME arrival, what must the bearing pointers be selected to?

A

NDB or VOR (FCOM 4.9.1)

178
Q

To use VNAV when the system is in TERM or APR mode what must be displayed on the EHSI?

A

TRM or APP (FCOM 4.9.2)

179
Q

If ‘GPS INTEG’ illuminates can both EHSI’s remain in MAP mode?

A

No (FCOM 4.9.2)

180
Q

What is the primary altitude reference for all VNAV operations?

A

The altimeters. (FCOM 4.9.2)

181
Q

Can we use an expired FMS?

A

Only for ENR Navigation provided that legs and distances are cross checked. FMS approaches are prohibited with an out of date FMS. (FCOM 4.9.2)

182
Q

What is the maximum VNAV angle?

A

4 degrees in TERM and 6 degrees ENR. FCOM 4.9.2)

183
Q

Does the VNAV get more sensitive during ENR - TERM - APR?

A

Yes (FCOM 4.9.6)

184
Q

What will happen to the active VNAV mode if vertical deviation is above 175ft when APR mode activates?

A

Pitch mode will engage. (Possibly why we still say LNAV VNAV at the IAF) (FCOM 4.9.6)

185
Q

When VNAV is no longer required what should you do?

A

Select an appropriate mode and cancel VNAV (FCOM 4.9.6)

186
Q

When must we check the Target FPA?

A

Whenever a VNAV approach is to be flown. (FCOM 4.9.6)

187
Q

When must we confirm the date on the FMS?

A

After a power cycle and after a database update. (FCOM 4.9.6)

188
Q

Is there an MEL for an invalid FMS database?

A

Yes. (FCOM 4.9.6)

189
Q

Prior to begining an RNP 1 SID what must you confirm?

A

The FMS is in TERM mode. (FCOM 4.9.8)

190
Q

How many NM is ENR RNP?

A

2.8NM (FCOM 4.9.9)

DH8 Avsoft (5 decks)

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