CMT Review Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
What is the best description of spasm?
A
a. painful or painless, involuntary, sustained contraction of a muscle
2
Q
What is the basic unit of contraction (of muscle)?
A
c. sarcomere
3
Q
What flows into the sarcoplasm as a result of acetylcholine release into the synaptic cleft?
A
d. calcium
4
Q
What are the two major myofilaments in the sarcomere?
A
a. actin and myosin
5
Q
Which proprioceptor measures to what degree a muscle is stretched as it is moving through a range and the speed with which this happens and transmits this information to the brain?
A
b. muscle spindles
6
Q
Which of the following is an appropriate technique to reduce acute muscle spasm?
Select one:
a. muscle approximation
b. slow passive stretch to the affected muscle
c. heat
d. heat, followed by a slow passive stretch to the affected muscle
A
a. muscle approximation
7
Q
Which of the following is an appropriate technique to reduce acute muscle spasm in gastrocnemius?
Select one:
a. voluntary contraction of tibialis posterior
b. slow passive stretch of gastrocnemius
c. voluntary contraction of tibialis anterior
d. involuntary contraction of tibialis anterior
A
c. voluntary contraction of tibialis anterior
8
Q
If muscle spasm is not reduced after the acute stage, what might form as a result?
A
a. hypertonicity of the affected muscle
9
Q
Reflex muscle guarding is muscle spasm in response to pain. At which stage of healing is this type of spasm present?
A
c. acute
10
Q
Torticollis is defined as abnormal positioning of the head and neck relative to the body. What is the cause of the abnormal positioning?
A
d. muscle spasm
11
Q
What is the common name for torticollis?
A
b. wry neck
12
Q
What are the three types of torticollis?
A
a. acute acquired, congenital, spasmodic
13
Q
What is the typical presentation of torticollis?
A
d. the head and neck laterally flexed toward the affected side, the face turned away from the affected side, and the shoulder raised on the affected side
14
Q
The common inflammatory signs and symptoms typically present in the acute stage of healing are
Select one:
a. all of the above
b. pain
c. edema (swelling)
d. heat, redness
A
a. all of the above
15
Q
Reduce pain, maintain circulation proximal to the injury, reduce but do not remove protective muscle spasm, and maintain ranges of motion are goals of which stage of healing?
A
b. acute
16
Q
Reduce hypertonicity, trigger points, adhesions, increase ranges of motion and increase local circulation are goals of which stage of healing?
A
d. subacute
17
Q
Hydrotherapy in the late subacute stage of healing is?
A
b. hot cold contrast
18
Q
In the chronic stage of healing, strengthening exercises for home care are focused on what activities?
A
c. active resisted isotonic concentric and eccentric exercises to strained muscles to gradually increase and restore strength
19
Q
Edema (swelling) can be described as local or general accumulation of fluid in interstitial space. Local accumulation is usually the result of
A
a. trauma or inflammation
20
Q
Edema (swelling) due to trauma is usually
A
a. taut, firm, non-pitting
21
Q
Consider edema (swelling) due to a sprained ankle. In the acute stage of healing, where can effleurage or lymphatic drainage be performed effectively?
A
c. proximal to the ankle (injured area)
22
Q
Consider an acute sprained ankle accompanied by edema. What type of medication might the client take for this condition?
A
a. NSAID (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs i.e. Advil)
23
Q
What is the best strategy for treating a client who has generalized edema?
A
c. refer to physician before any treatment is started
24
Q
An overuse injury is usually the result of
A
d. insufficient rest between periods of repetitive movement
25
How does an overuse injury usually develop?
b. progressively, with or without an initial acute stage
26
Describe a structural musculoskeletal dysfunction?
c. bones have an altered state, posture cannot be corrected voluntarily but soft tissue can be treated to improve tissue health and relieve symptoms
27
Muscles are divided into two groups: postural and phasic. How do phasic muscles respond, generally, to dysfunction?
a. by weakening or becoming inhibited
28
What describes postural muscles?
c. endurance, slow twitch fibres
29
Which of the following muscles is usually considered to be postural?
Select one:
a. wrist extensors
b. upper trapezius
c. tibialis anterior
d. middle trapezius
b. upper trapezius
30
Which of the following muscles is usually considered to be phasic?
Select one:
a. erector spinae
b. middle trapezius
c. upper trapezius
d. TFL
b. middle trapezius
31
Which of the following statements will help the therapist form the most effective treatment plan for a client with a postural dysfunction?
Select one:
a. first stretch the short muscles, then strengthen the inhibited muscles
b. first stretch the inhibited muscles, then strengthen the short muscles
c. first strengthen the inhibited muscles, then stretch the short muscles
d. stretching and strengthening is not part of an effective treatment plan for postural dysfunction
a. first stretch the short muscles, then strengthen the inhibited muscles
32
Which of the following statements is true for a hypermobile joint?
Select one:
a. traction is a useful technique to treat a hypermobile joint
b. do not use strengthening techniques on the muscles surrounding a hypermobile joint
c. do not stretch muscles that cross a hypermobile joint beyond the normal range for that joint
d. end feel is encountered sooner than expected when performing PR(ROM) testing on a hypermobile joint
c. do not stretch muscles that cross a hypermobile joint beyond the normal range for that joint
33
If a client has a hypomobile joint due to surgical repair with metal appliances, what is the most effective way for a therapist to increase the range of motion of the joint?
d. do not attempt to increase the range of motion of the affected joint
34
What is the most effective form of hydrotherapy for treating a hypomobile joint?
b. heat
35
By what means does MLD reduce the formation of scar tissue?
c. removal of fibrin from the initial lymphatics
36
The correct order of applying MLD techniques is
d. nodal pumping, stationary circles, local technique such as skimming
37
Direct compression placed on the tendon near the junction with the muscle and held for a minimum of 30 seconds or until the muscle relaxes is describing which technique?
b. Golgi tendon organ release
38
Which of the following techniques reduces muscle tone and spasm?
Select one:
a. Golgi tendon organ release
b. muscle approximation
c. origin and insertion technique
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
39
Which of the following techniques uses a slow rate and moderate to deep pressure?
Select one:
a. myofascial release
b. Golgi tendon organ release
c. manual lymphatic drainage
d. deep transverse friction release
b. Golgi tendon organ release
40
Post treatment hydrotherapy application of heat followed by painfree stretch is part of which technique?
a. trigger point release techniques
41
A technique that may be used throughout the massage to reduce sympathetic nervous system firing is
d. Diaphragmatic breathing
42
Hydrotherapy appropriate for treating inhibited muscles is
b. cool or cold
43
When using the muscle approximation technique the appropriate starting position for therapists hands is at the
c. origin and insertion attachment points
44
Loss of motor function due to a peripheral nerve lesion is called
b. flaccidity
45
Compression of a nerve causing a local conduction block with no structural damage to the axon or to tissue distal to the lesion is called
d. neuropraxia
46
The nerve injury with the poorest prognosis for recovery is
c. neurotmesis
47
What is severe pain syndrome called?
d. causalgia
48
Which cranial nerve is affected in trigeminal neuralgia?
d. CNV
49
When entrapment of a nerve occurs, the nerve trunk responds with
a. an inflammatory response
50
What kind of condition is plantar fasciitis?
a. a condition that comes on gradually as the result of overuse
51
Where is the pain usually located with plantar fasciitis?
a. anterior inferior surface of the calcaneus and medial border of the plantar fascia
52
Functional curves are most effectively treated by which techniques?
c. voluntary positional changes, stretching and strengthening exercises
53
How do postural muscles respond to stress with a shoulder crossed syndrome?
d. shorten
54
An increase in the thoracic curve has several implications for the upper body, which could include:
Select one:
a. both b and d
b. bronchitis due to inefficient breathing patterns
c. retraction of the scapula, which turns the glenohumeral joint into lateral rotation
d. constant contraction of the rotator cuff muscles to maintain the humeral head in its proper position
a. both b and d
55
With shoulder crossed syndrome, which muscles are inhibited?
c. scapula retractors, thoracic erector spinae, suprahyoids and infrahyoids
56
What other condition(s) may result from hyperkyphosis?
Select one:
a. thoracic outlet syndrome
b. frozen shoulder
c. temporomandibular joint dysfunction
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
57
What is one effect of forward head posture?
b. facet joint irritation
58
What is the best definition of frozen shoulder in the early stage?
c. painful, significant restriction of active and passive range of motion at the shoulder, most frequently in abduction and external rotation
59
The motion between the ST joint (scapulothoracic) and the GH joint as the arm is abducted through full range is called the scapulothoracic rhythm. After 60 degrees of abduction, the ratio is 2:1 GH to ST motion. In frozen shoulder, the ST rhythm is altered to what ratio?
b. 1:1
60
How does hyperkyphosis contribute to adhesive capsulitis?
b. the protracted scapula inferiorly (downwardly) rotates, allowing the humerus to hang in a slightly abducted position
61
A joint that has reduced range of motion due to pathology of the joint capsule itself is said to have a capsular pattern of restriction. What does this mean?
c. specific range of motion of the joint are reduced in a specific predictable pattern
62
What is a common orthopedic test used to confirm adhesive capsulitis?
d. Apleys scratch
63
What remedial exercise is typically used for treating adhesive capsulitis, especially at the early stages?
c. pendulum
64
What describes the condition Pes Planus?
c. decreased medial longitudinal arch and pronated hind foot
65
Which of the following is NOT an arch in the foot?
Select one:
a. anterior transverse
b. medial longitudinal
c. posterior transverse
d. lateral longitudinal
c. posterior transverse
66
Regarding the condition Pes Planus which muscles will be in an inhibited, lengthened state?
a. tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, flexor digitorum longus
67
Regarding the condition Pes Planus which muscles will be in a shortened state?
d. gastrocnemius, soleus, peroneals
68
What is the best definition of strain?
b. overstretch injury to a musculotendinous unit
69
The origin and insertion of a muscle come closer together and the muscle fibres shorten. This is a description of what kind of contraction?
b. concentric
70
Which type of contraction produces the greatest force within the muscle?
c. eccentric
71
What type of contraction is most likely to predispose a muscle to a strain injury?
a. eccentric
72
The following signs and symptoms best describe which level of severity? Variable number of torn fibres; there may be a snapping or tearing sensation at the time of injury; a gap may appear at the injury site; continued activity is difficult but not impossible due to pain and muscle weakness.
b. grade 2
73
What are the first remedial exercise goals when treating a grade 1 or 2 strain?
a. maintain and progressively increase the range of motion of the strained muscles
74
A period of total inactivity should follow a strain because
c. a period of total inactivity is not recommended
75
If a person can return to the activity following a strain, she most likely has what grade(s) of strain?
d. grade 1 or 2
76
Chronic inflammation (not chronic stage of healing) can occur under which circumstances?
Select one:
a. when the strained muscle is subjected to an intense training program or specific repetitive movements
b. when the strain is not treated to reduce adhesions, allowing scar tissue to form which then results in micro-tearing when the muscle is used
c. when the strained muscle is overused without adequate healing time in the acute and subacute stages
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
77
During the interview, what are the most significant points that will help the therapist suspect that a strain has occurred and determine the grade of severity?
b. snapping noise, twinge, loss of function, mechanism of injury
78
What testing can be performed with an acute grade 1 strain?
d. range of motion and special orthopedic tests
79
What testing can be performed with an acute grade 2 or 3 strain?
c. AF ROM only
80
What testing can be performed with subacute and chronic grades 1 and 2 strain?
a. range of motion and orthopedic special tests
81
By definition, what structures are injured with a sprain?
a. ligaments
82
Which of the following scenarios is most likely to be a sprain?
Select one:
a. a client comes in with ankle pain that came on slowly over the last 6 months
b. a client comes in with ankle pain that is there in the morning, but not at night
c. a client comes in with ankle pain that occurred right after stepping off a curb
d. a client comes in with numbness and tingling in the ankle
c. a client comes in with ankle pain that occurred right after stepping off a curb
83
What grade of sprain produces the following signs and symptoms: several to many ligament fibre tears; snapping sound at time of injury; can continue activity, but with difficulty?
b. grade 2
84
What is the best description of effusion?
c. composed of synovial fluid and is intracapsular
85
Bleeding into the synovial space (intracapsular) is called?
a. Hemarthrosis
86
What is the best description of edema?
a. composed of inflammatory exudate, extracapsular
87
What is the best approach for home care remedial exercise for a chronic sprain (grade 1 or 2) once normal range of motion is restored?
d. isotonic strengthening and proprioceptive education
88
What is the major difference between tendinitis and strain?
c. strain is the result of acute trauma and tendinitis comes on gradually (overuse injury)
89
What best describes grade 2 tendinitis?
b. pain at the beginning of activity which disappears during activity then returns after activity
90
Several distinct tendon pathologies exist. These are tendinitis, paratendinitis, and tendinosis. They all are categorized as what type of injury?
c. overuse
91
The stages of healing for tendinitis are
b. acute and chronic
92
To reduce adhesions that have formed in chronic tendinitis, what techniques and order of applying these techniques would be most effective?
a. heat and myofascial release, followed by frictions, stretch, and ice
93
The function of the cruciate ligaments are
c. check motion at the knee
94
Where is the posterior cruciate ligament located?
c. runs from the posterior portion of the tibial intercondylar area to the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
94
When are the cruciate ligaments most taut?
c. when the knee is in extension
95
An anterior cruciate injury could be caused by which menchanisms
a. a blow to the posterior tibia
b. forced hyperextension with internal rotation of the tibia
c. a blow to lateral knee
96
Which structure is involved in a dashboard injury when the tibia is forced posteriorly?
a. posterior cruciate ligament
97
The medial meniscus is often damaged when what ligament is damaged?
b. medial collateral ligament
98
The common cause of meniscal injury is
d. twisting while the foot is weight bearing and anchored to the ground
99
An injury to an anterior or posterior cruciate ligament is considered what kind of injury?
b. sprain
100
The term whiplash is defined as acceleration-deceleration of the head in relation to the body. This can be the result of which of the following?
any forceful impact to the body from any direction
101
Which of the following conditions is likely to be caused by a whiplash associated disorder?
Select one:
a. herniated cervical discs and facet joint sprain
b. sprain
c. strain
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
102
Which of the following combined signs and symptoms best describes WAD I and WAD II categories?
neck pain, stiffness, and tenderness plus decreased range of motion and spasm
103
What is the recommended form of hydrotherapy for spasm due to reflex muscle guarding?
cold
104
What are the tests that a massage therapist can perform at the acute stage of a MVA WAD I or II?
pain-free active ROM
105
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates referral to a physician for any degree or stage of healing of a whiplash associated disorder?
positive vertebral artery test
106
During the initial interview, what question must you ask any client who has had any type of recent whiplash associated disorder due to a MVA?
Have you seen a primary health care provider?
107
The temporomandibular joint is an example of what type of joint structurally?
synovial
108
The temporomandibular joint is an example of what type of joint functionally?
diathrosis
109
What two motions occur at the TMJ?
rotation and glide
110
What structure is located between the articulating bones of the TMJ?
biconcave disc
111
What is the disc in the tempormandibular joint attached to anteriorly and posteriorly?
lateral pterygoid and retrodiscal tissue
112
What muscle(s) must relax in order for the jaw to open?
temporalis, masseter, and medial pterygoid
113
What three components must be present for TMJD to occur?
predisposition, tissue alteration, and stress
114
What are the actions of masseter?
elevate and protract the mandible bilaterally
115
What are the actions of temporalis?
elevate and retract the mandible
116
What are the actions of lateral pterygoid?
unilaterally: laterally deviate the mandible to the opposite side; bilaterally: protract the mandible
117
Which of the following is NOT a movement of the TMJ?
lateral rotation
118
What is the function of the ITB?
Select one:
a. provides medial knee support, especially when the knee is in flexion
b. provides lateral knee support, especiallly when the knee is in extension
c. provides medial knee support, especially when the knee is in extension
d. provides lateral knee support, especially when the knee is in flexion
provides lateral knee support, especiallly when the knee is in extension
119
What are the attachments of the ITB?
Select one:
a. tensor fascia latae and gluteus maximus; medial tibia
b. tensor fascia latae and gluteus maximus; medial fibula
c. tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus; lateral tibia
d. tensor fascia latae and gluteus maximus; lateral fibula
tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus; lateral tibia
120
Which form of bursitis may accompany ITB contracture?
Select one:
a. subacromial
b. calcaneal
c. trochanteric
d. patellar
trochanteric
121
What are the actions of tensor fasciae latae at the coxal joint?
Select one:
a. extension, lateral rotation, adduction
b. flexion, medial rotation, abduction
c. flexion, lateral rotation, abduction
d. extension, medial rotation, adduction
flexion, medial rotation, abduction
122
Which of the following is most likely to cause ITB contracture and friction syndrome?
Select one:
a. swayback or flatback posture
b. activities or positions that place the hip and knee in extension
c. posterior pelvic tilt
d. activities or positions that place the hip and knee in flexion
activities or positions that place the hip and knee in flexion
123
What is the best definition of hyperlordosis?
Select one:
a. increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion
b. increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip extension
c. decrease in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased posterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion
d. increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with decreased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion
increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion
124
In the condition hyperlordosis, which of the following muscles will be shortened?
Select one:
a. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
b. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
d. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
125
In the condition hyperlordosis, which of the following muscles will be inhibited?
Select one:
a. gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominis
b. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
d. gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, lumbar erector spinae
gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominis
126
In the condition hyperlordosis, how are the hamstrings affected?
Select one:
a. does not affect the hamstrings
b. hamstrings are phasic therefore inhibited and hypertonic
c. hamstrings are postural therefore short and hypertonic
d. hamstrings become adaptively stretched and hypertonic
hamstrings become adaptively stretched and hypertonic
127
Muscles that are postural typically respond to stress by shortening. Examples are
Select one:
a. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
b. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
d. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
128
Muscles that are phasic typically respond to stress by becoming inhibited. Examples are
Select one:
a. gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominus
b. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. hamstrings, external obliques, internal obliques, lumbar erector spinae
d. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominus
129
What is the likely result of Elys orthopedic test in a client with hyperlordosis?
Select one:
a. negative for short hamstrings
b. negative for short rectus femoris and iliopsoas
c. positive for short rectus femoris
d. positive for short hamstrings
positive for short rectus femoris
130
What is the likely result of the straight leg raise orthopedic test in a client with hyperlordosis?
Select one:
a. positive for short rectus femoris
b. positive for short rectus femoris and iliopsoas
c. positive for short hamstrings
d. negative for short hamstrings
negative for short hamstrings
131
What massage techniques are most effective on shortened muscles?
Select one:
a. heat followed by stretch
b. tapotement followed by cool
c. tapotement followed by heat
d. stretch followed by heat
heat followed by stretch
132
What techniques are most effective on inhibited muscles?
Select one:
a. stretch followed by cool
b. stretch followed by heat
c. tapotement followed by cool
d. tapotement followed by heat
tapotement followed by cool
133
Structural curves may be corrected by what techniques?
Select one:
a. voluntarily altered or reversed by positional changes
b. passive soft tissue stretching, joint mobilization, and strengthening exercises
c. both b. and c.
d. cannot be corrected, except possibly by surgical intervention
cannot be corrected, except possibly by surgical intervention
134
What is the definition of SPAN in reference to scoliosis?
Select one:
a. area of greatest angulation
b. distance on the spine that the curve covers
c. curve farthest from midline
d. the vertebra that marks the end of one curve and the beginning of the next
distance on the spine that the curve covers
135
What is the definition of APEX vertebra in reference to scoliosis?
Select one:
a. The vertebra that marks the end of one curve and the beginning of the next
b. the vertebra in any curve that is farthest from midline
c. the vertebra in the major curve of an S-curve scoliosis
d. the vertebra in the minor curve of an S-curve scoliosis
the vertebra in any curve that is farthest from midline
136
What is the definition of Wolff's principle?
Select one:
a. when a muscle receives an impulse to contract, its antagonist simultaneously receives an impulse to relax
b. the bodys attempt to establish a centre of gravity
c. the bodys attempt to establish the eyes on a horizontal plane
d. remodelling of connective tissue along the lines of force that are placed on it
remodelling of connective tissue along the lines of force that are placed on it
137
In scoliosis, muscles on the concave side of a curve will be in what position?
Select one:
a. inhibited
b. in an eccentric contraction
c. shortened
d. lengthened
shortened
138
In scoliosis, muscles on the convex side of a curve will be in what position?
Select one:
a. shortened
b. in an isometric contraction
c. inhibited
d. in a concentric contraction
inhibited
139
What type of scoliosis is caused by a small hemipelvis?
Select one:
a. structural
b. idiopathic
c. functional
d. iatrogenic
functional
140
What type of scoliosis is caused by vertebral wedging?
Select one:
a. iatrogenic
b. structural
c. idiopathic
d. functional
structural
141
What are the three areas that are most commonly involved in TOS (thoracic outlet syndrome)?
Select one:
a. between middle and posterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and cervical rib
b. between middle and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis major; between clavicle and first rib
c. between posterior and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and second rib
d. between middle and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and first rib
between middle and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and first rib
142
Describe the brachial plexus
Select one:
a. nerve roots C3 to C8; innervation to entire upper limb; travels with subclavian artery; interscalene space; joined by subclavian vein; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand
b. nerve roots C5 to C8 (T1); innervation to entire upper limb; travels with subclavian artery; interscalene space; joined by subclavian vein; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand
c. nerve roots C1 to C8; innervation to upper arm; travels with carotid artery; goes above clavicle; under pectoralis minor; ends at elbow
d. nerve roots C5 to C8 (T1); innervation to upper arm; travels with subclavian vein; interscalene space; joined by subclavian artery; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand
nerve roots C5 to C8 (T1); innervation to entire upper limb; travels with subclavian artery; interscalene space; joined by subclavian vein; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand
143
What is a double crush syndrome
Select one:
a. a syndorme in which one nerve is compressed in more than one location
b. a syndrome in which the symptoms of nerve compression affect the client bilaterally
c. a syndrome in which more than one nerve is compressed tn the same location
d. a syndrome in which TOS and CTS occur at the same time
a syndrome in which one nerve is compressed in more than one location
144
Signs and symptoms of neuronal compression in TOS (thoracic outlet syndrome) are
Select one:
a. ischemic changes
b. numbness and tingling on ulnar side; aching, throbbing pain in shoulder, forearm, and hand
c. edema
d. cyanosis
numbness and tingling on ulnar side; aching, throbbing pain in shoulder, forearm, and hand
145
Signs and symptoms of vascular compression in TOS (thoracic outlet syndrome) are
Select one:
a. hypothenar muscle wasting
b. aching in the shoulder
c. ischemic changes, distension of blood vessels, edema in hand
d. pain is triggered by letting the arm hang down
ischemic changes, distension of blood vessels, edema in hand
146
Compression of the brachial plexus in TOS causes numbness and tingling of which digits?
Select one:
a. 4th and 5th digits and the ulnar side of the forearm and hand
b. 4th and 5th digits and the radial side of the forearm and hand
c. lateral 3 and one half digits and the ulnar side of the forearm and hand
d. lateral 3 and one half digits and the radial side of the forearm and hand
4th and 5th digits and the ulnar side of the forearm and hand
147
What is the sensory distribution of the median nerve?
Select one:
a. hypothenar eminence
b. palm and third digit
c. lateral three and one half digits
d. medial three and one half digits
lateral three and one half digits
148
What is one distinguishing feature of CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome)?
Select one:
a. posterior wrist pain
b. nocturnal pain
c. no nocturnal pain
d. elbow and forearm pain
nocturnal pain
149
Persistent CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome) can lead to
Select one:
a. thenar muscle wasting
b. pronator teres syndrome
c. thoracic outlet syndrome
d. hypothenar muscle wasting
thenar muscle wasting
150
What connective tissue structure supports the carpal tunnel on the anterior aspect?
Select one:
a. supraspinous ligament
b. flexor retinaculum
c. fascia latae
d. extensor retinaculum
flexor retinaculum
151
What structures travel through the carpal tunnel?
Select one:
a. median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus
b. median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor pollicis brevis
c. median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, palmaris longus, and flexor pollicis longus
d. median nerve, ulnar nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus
median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus
152
What factors may contribute to the compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel?
Select one:
a. size of the structures going through the tunnel
b. acute trauma
c. the size of the tunnel
d. all of the above
a. size of the structures going through the tunnel
b. acute trauma
c. the size of the tunnel
d. all of the above
153
What conditions might contribute to CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome) ?
Select one:
a. diabetes, pregnancy
b. diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis
c. rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy
d. all of the above
a. diabetes, pregnancy
b. diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis
c. rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy
d. all of the above
154
Because of its origin on the anterior surface of the sacrum, a hypertonic piriformis muscle may result in which of the following?
Select one:
a. lumbar spinal stenosis
b. increased internal rotation of the hip
c. displacement of the sacroiliac joint
d. facet joint irritation
c. displacement of the sacroiliac joint
155
A symptom of piriformis syndrome may be which of the following?
Select one:
a. pain often decreases with external rotation of the hip
b. pain often decreases with internal rotation of the hip
c. pain increases with external rotation of the hip
d. pain increases with both internal and external rotation of the hip
a. pain often decreases with external rotation of the hip
156
In pirformis syndrome, the symptoms of pain in the posterior thigh, calf and sole of the foot and numbness in the foot are usually the result of what mechanism?
Select one:
a. compression of nerve roots L4-S1
b. facet joint irritation
c. lumbar spinal stenosis
d. compression of the sciatic nerve by the piriformis muscle
d. compression of the sciatic nerve by the piriformis muscle
157
In pirformis syndrome, what will the results of the piriformis length test will reveal?
Select one:
a. positive for short piriformis on the unaffected side
b. negative for short piriforimis on the affected side
c. positive for weakness on the affected side
d. positive for short piriformis on the affected side
positive for short piriformis on the affected side
158
What must be taken into consideration when using the elbow at the lateral border of the sacrum during a massage treatment for piriformis syndrome?
Select one:
a. avoid compression of the sciatic nerve
b. avoid compression of the trochanteric bursa
c. use just enough force to recreate numbness and tingling into the foot
d. use the elbow techniques before any hot hydrotherapy
avoid compression of the sciatic nerve
159
Which muscle originates on the anterior surface of the sacrum?
Select one:
a. obturator externus
b. piriformis
c. quadratus femoris
d. gemellus superior
piriformis
