CNS Regulation Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Define the concept of CNS regulation.

A

Mechanisms or conditions that impact cerebral (intracranial) processing and functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the metabolic requirements for regulating CNS function?

A

Metabolic requirements of the brain:
* Adequate blood flow (perfusion)
* Adequate blood oxygen levels (gas exchange)
* Adequate blood glucose levels (metabolic regulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the causes and risk factors for impaired CNS regulation?

A

Reduced perfusion, altered neurotransmission, insufficient glucose, degeneration, neoplasm, developmental defects.
Risk factors:
* Older adults
* Chronic diseases
* Younger adults
* Drugs
* Risky behavior
* Stressors/mental health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of the primary motor cortex?

A

Located in the frontal lobe, responsible for motor control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the role of the prefrontal cortex?

A

Responsible for reasoning, planning, problem solving, and judgement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the parietal lobe process?

A

Somatosensory information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A

Understanding spoken/written language and processing auditory information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the role of the occipital lobe?

A

Detection of visual information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Coordination of movement, posture, and balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the medulla oblongata control?

A

Control of vital functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the thalamus known for?

A

Relay station for sending sensory information to the cerebral cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the major arteries supplying the brain?

A

vertebral > basilar > PCA

internal carotid > MCA/ACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Circle of Willis?

A

A structure that diverts blood flow to areas of the brain in case there is a blockage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an ischemic stroke?

A

Caused by cerebrovascular obstruction by thrombosis or emboli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the penumbra in relation to stroke?

A

A band of minimally perfused cells that surround the dead/dying core.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Temporary stop of blood flow, could be caused by atherosclerotic arteries in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Rupture of a cerebral blood vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Compression of the brain, vomiting, headache.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

A bulge at the site of localized weakness in the wall of an arterial vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are common risk factors for stroke?

A
  • Diet
  • Exercise
  • Obesity
  • Smoking
  • Stress
  • Drugs & alcohol
  • HTN
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Diabetes
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Ethnicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the role of blood thinners in stroke prevention?

A

prevent clotting cascade

22
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A

A scale used to assess consciousness based on eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

23
Q

What does the NIH stroke scale assess?

A

Severity of stroke and helps to guide therapy.

24
Q

What is the difference in treatment for ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes?

A

Ischemic: tPA, repeat CT, endovascular thrombectomy. Hemorrhagic: monitor symptoms.

25
What are antiplatelet agents used for?
To decrease formation of the platelet plug and improve outcomes in TIA patients.
26
What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin?
Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
27
What is the significance of a TIA?
It is a warning sign of a potential future stroke.
28
What is the effect of hyperglycemia on ischemic damage?
It can worsen ischemic damage.
29
What is a lacunar stroke?
Small infarcts located in a single deep penetrating artery.
30
What is the management goal for the penumbra in stroke treatment?
Reperfusion therapy aimed at saving the penumbra.
31
Fill in the blank: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the _______.
parietal lobe.
32
What therapy is strongly recommended over antiplatelets for patients at risk for stroke?
Anticoagulant therapy ## Footnote Anticoagulants are preferred due to the risk of bleeding associated with antiplatelet therapy.
33
For patients with mechanical heart valves, which medication is recommended over DOACs?
Warfarin ## Footnote Warfarin is the standard anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves.
34
What is the first step in the treatment for ischemic stroke?
Get a CT to confirm ischemic stroke ## Footnote CT scans help differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes.
35
What are the criteria for administering medication for ischemic stroke?
Criteria: * <4.5 hours since symptom onset * BP <185/110 * Glucose within range * No recent history of bleeding ## Footnote These criteria ensure patient safety and optimize treatment outcomes.
36
What medication can be given if CT confirms an ischemic stroke?
tPA or TKA ## Footnote tPA is tissue plasminogen activator, while TKA is tenecteplase, a modified variant.
37
What is a key difference between TKA and tPA in administration?
TKA requires a single bolus dose ## Footnote tPA requires a bolus followed by a 60-minute infusion.
38
What outcomes does TKA have compared to tPA at 3 months post-treatment?
Better outcomes for reduced disability ## Footnote TKA has shown improved functional recovery in comparison to tPA.
39
What are indicators of adequate CNS regulation?
Indicators: * Able to sit up * Able to move both arms * No slurred speech * Adequate perfusion * Facial symmetry * Movement of both legs * Makes eye contact * Normal sensation * Bilateral grip * Gag reflex present ## Footnote These indicators reflect neurological function and consciousness.
40
What does the acronym FAST stand for in recognizing a stroke?
F- face (droop) A- arms (can they raise both) S- speech T- time (treated quickly) ## Footnote FAST is a quick assessment tool for stroke recognition.
41
How does gas exchange relate to CNS regulation?
Lower SpO2 causes acute confusion ## Footnote Adequate oxygenation is critical for cognitive function.
42
What effect does mobility have on stroke recognition?
Unequal movements indicate a potential stroke ## Footnote Mobility assessments can help identify neurological deficits.
43
What is one of the signs to check for when assessing orientation in a patient?
Are they able to follow directions? ## Footnote This helps assess cognitive function and responsiveness.
44
What should be assessed regarding pupil response during a stroke evaluation?
Equal pupil response ## Footnote Pupil reaction can indicate neurological function.
45
What can be affected by an MCA stroke?
- hand/arm/face control or sensation - Broca's area - Wernicke's area
46
What can be affected by an ACA stroke?
motor/sensation of the feet/legs - reasoning/planning/decision making
47
What can be affected by a PCA stroke?
visual info, learning, memory
48
What can be affected by a basilar/vertebral artery stroke?
balance, coordination, vital reflexes,
49
What are the characteristics of right brain damage?
left sided weakness, left visual field damage, left neglect, lack of awareness of deficits, quick/impulsive behaviours
50
What are the characteristics of left brain damage?
right sided weakness, right visual field damage, aphasia aware of deficits, slow and cautious behaviours