coexisting disease Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

what are the s/s for thyroid storm?

A

high fever, tachycardia, agitation, severe dehydration

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2
Q

in a patient with hyperthyroidism, propranolol may exacerbate ___ following SAB

A

hypotension

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3
Q

patient with hyperthyroidism has an ____ response to prossors.

A

exaggerated

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4
Q

pheochromocytoma secretes excessive catecholamines including ____ and ____

A

norepinephrine and epi

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5
Q

pheochromocytoma: neuroendocrine tumor of the adrenal glands or ____ tissue that failed to involute

A

extra-adrenal chromaffin

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6
Q

a patient with a pheochromocytoma - anesthetic plan?

A
  • elective C-section

- preop therapy with a-blockers followed by b-blockers

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7
Q

B-blockade without prior A-blockade results in

A

unopposed a-stimulation, severe HTN

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8
Q

T/F: Pregnancy has no consistent effect on the course of bronchial asthma

A

TRUE

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9
Q

T/F: Bronchial asthma may be exacerbated during pregnancy d/t bronchoconstriction

A

FALSE: Bronchial asthma may improve during pregnancy d/t bronchodilation

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10
Q

anesthetic plan for pt with bronchial asthma?

A

continuous labor epidural

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11
Q

Why is an epidural preferable to spinal in bronchial asthmatic patient?

A

gradual onset- tolerate intercostal muscle weakness. reports of bronchoconstriction following SAB

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12
Q

avoid H2 blockers (cimetidine, ranitidine) because it increases sensitivity to ___ that causes ____

A

histamine, spasm

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13
Q

avoid GETA in asthmatic pt because ETT can trigger ____

A

bronchospasm

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14
Q

which drug on induction will cause bronchial relaxation

A

ketamine

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15
Q

which IH should you avoid in asthmatic?

A

desflurane

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16
Q

T/F paraplegia causes an increased incidence of preterm labor

A

TRUE

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17
Q

Paraplegia - consider autonomic hyperreflexia if lesion is above what spinal level?

A

T7

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18
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia - triggers

A

stimulation of skin, distention of hollow viscus (bladder, uterus)

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19
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia s/s

A

pilomotor erection, sweating, flushing, headache, severe HTN, bradycardia

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20
Q

paraplegic patient - avoid ___ d/t risk of hyperkalemia

A

succinylcholine

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21
Q

anesthetic plan for paraplegia: early ____ to prevent ____

A

early epidural analgesia to prevent hyperreflexia

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22
Q

which pattern of MS is characterized by attacks that appear abruptly and resolve over several months?

A

exacerbating remitting

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23
Q

what are the 2 general patterns of MS

A

exacerbating remitting and chronic progressive

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24
Q

how does MS manifest?

A

neurological defects that present as pyramidal, cerebellar, or brainstem symptoms

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25
T/F the etiology for MS is unclear
TRUE. but possible link to previous exposure to vial agent that may trigger autoimmune response. [loss of myelin in CNS]
26
motor weakness, impaired vision, ataxia, bladder/bowel dysfunction, and labile emotions are characteristic of what disease?
MS
27
How is MS treated?
symptomatically and by immunosuppression. often tx is marked by relapses and regression
28
T/F Pregnancy has no effect on progression Multiple Sclerosis
TRUE.
29
T/F Pregnancy decreases the risk of relapse of MS
FALSE - slight increase
30
T/F MS relapses are most often seen in the postpartum period
TRUE. approx 3x higher rate than non-pregnant
31
T/F Pregnancy does not have an overall negative effect on long-term outcome of MS
TRUE
32
MS - anesthetic plan should have a careful assessment of which two areas
neurological and respiratory
33
What is the concern with MS and neuraxial anesthesia?
- potential neurotoxic exposure of demyelinated spinal cord. | - concerns over relapse of symptoms
34
For an MS patient, do not exceed concentrations of >____% bupivacaine infusions.
0.25
35
T/F SAB is recommended over epidural for MS pt
FALSE - Epidural better tolerated than SAB for MS patient, however SAB has been successfully employed. CSE technique well tolerated with IT opioids
36
T/F GA Is contraindicated with MS
FALSE - but avoid succs with severe musculoskeletal involvement
37
What can happen with a dural puncture with a patient with a brain tumor?
brain herniation and death
38
Brain tumor patient: ____ blocks for first stage labor, ___ block for 2nd stage labor
b/l lumbar sympathetic blocks for first stage, pudendal block for second stage
39
Brain Tumor C section: GETA with generous narcs to blunt reflexes during laryngoscopy and avoid sudden inc in ___ and ____
BP and ICP
40
T/F Pseudotumor Cerebri - benign intracranial HTN is not mass related, and epidural or spinal block is okay
TRUE
41
T/F Epilepsy is shown to have an increased risk of convulsions with use of local anesthetics
FALSE. proceed as normal
42
Myasthenia Gravis is usually treated with anticholinergic agents such as ____ or ____
neostigmine or edrophonium
43
T/F women are 3 times more likely to develop MG than men
TRUE
44
Pregnancy can exacerbate MG symptoms, causing cholinergic crisis, which requires dose adjustment of ____
neostigmine
45
MG contraindicated drugs
-ABX: gentamycin, kanamycin, streptomycin, plymyxin, colistin, tetracycline, lincomyicn Tocolytics: Mag sulf Cardiac meds: quinidine, propranolol Beta Adrenergics: Ritodrine, Terbutaline Others: Quinine, Penicillamine, Lithium
46
IV dose of neostigmine is given in ratio of __:__ to oral dose
30:1. monitor fetal HR!
47
In an MG patient, ____ anesthesia is preferable to ____.
regional, general
48
MG patient is highly sensitive to which agents
depolarizing and NDNMB. intubation doses 1/2 to 1/3 normal
49
T/F MG patient is more resistant to effects of opioids and LA agents.
FALSE. more receptive to effects of opioids and LA.
50
Cholinergic crisis should be treated with which drug?
atropine - IV & IM
51
profound muscle weakness, resp failure, loss of bladder/bowel function, disorientation, diplopia are symptoms of?
Cholinergic Crisis (MG)
52
Normal Hgb= HgbA, Sickle Cell =
HgbS
53
Heteroxygous "sickle trait" =
HgbAS
54
Homozygous =
HgbSS
55
which Two forms of sickle cell dz have a higher incidence off preeclampsia?
HgbSS or HgbSC
56
6 things to avoid in sickle cell patient
hypoxia, HoTN, dehydration, hypothermia, acidosis, tourniquets
57
Sickle Cell: prefer epidural with adequate bolus with ___ prior to block
warmed IVF
58
Sickle Cell: spinal or epidural?
epidural. decreased risk of HoTN.
59
what is the most common hereditary coagulation abnormality
VonWillebrand Disease
60
VonWillebrand Disease: what is the most common type? how do you tx?
type 1, Rx with DDAVP 0.3mg/kg
61
Tachphylaxis can occur with DDAVP therapy at >___hr
48
62
T/F Neuraxial blockade is a relative contraindication to sickle cell, although can be considered if coagulation times are monitored and appropriately treated
TRUE
63
Factor V Leiden: variant of human coagulation factor __ that cannot be activated by ___ and therefore causes a ___coagulability disorder
V C hyper
64
Factor V Leiden: Patient on lovenox very early in pregnancy is converted to heparin at week __ to facilitate neuraxial blockade
38
65
Factor V Leiden: if prophylactic LMWH dose- hold >__hours before block
12
66
Factor V Leiden: if therapeutic LMWH dose- hold >__hours before block
24
67
Rheumatoid Arthritis - what are the resp concerns
restrictive lung dz, possible pleural effusions
68
RA - what is the preferred anesthetic
continuous labor epidural, but may fail d/t arthritis. for c-section, can use epidural or spinal. avoid potential difficult airway, may need awake fiberoptic intubation
69
SLE: Early implementation of ___ anesthesia is recommended
regional
70
T/F Due to the incidence of valve disorders and vegetation on SLE patient, prophylactic antibiotics are always recommended.
FALSE. only required if pt is high risk for endocarditis. (previous IE, unprepared cyanotic heart disease, implanted prosthetic devices, cardiac transplantation with cardiac valvulopathy)
71
vocal cord palsy is seen with which disorder
SLE
72
Maternal Addiction to amphetamines has what effect on catecholamines?
depletion. limited response to indirectly acting sympathomimietics such as ephedrine.
73
Maternal Addiction to amphetamines increases or decreases MAC for GA? what is the consequence?
increases. increased IH = inc risk for uterine atony.
74
Maternal Addiction - which drug can decrease plasma cholinesterase?
cocaine - prolongs duration of 2-chloroprocaine and succinylcholine
75
the vasoconstrictive effects of cocaine have what effect on the fetus?
decreased uteroplacental blood flow
76
Chronic cocaine - preferred anesthetic for C section
neuraxial - less HoTN - exaggerated HTN, tachycardia with ETT, severe tachyarryhtmias with GA
77
T/F There is little evidence that HIV or antiretroviral drugs increase the incidence of pregnancy complications, or that pregnancy alters the course of infection
TRUE
78
Pharyngeal lymphatic hypertrophy can create a potentially difficult airway in the patient with ___
HIV
79
Hypotension d/t decreased afterload will reverse a ____ shunt, with resulting ___ shunting and cyanosis.
L-->R, R-->L beware SAB!
80
cardiac output is highest in pregnancy when?
~80% above baseline immediately following delivery, this will be stressful for patient with cardiomyopathy
81
How does alcohol affect pregnancy/
increased risk of hemorrhage d/t esophageal varies, clotting abnormalities d/t hepatic dz, cardiomyopathy, neuropathy, increased gastric volume, acidity
82
Which drug causes an increased risk of PTL, abrupt placentae, congenital abnormalities, growth retardation, LBW?
cocaine
83
T/F Chronic cocaine use can cause increased clotting
FALSE - causes thrombocytopenia