final review Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

T/F Compensatory metabolic acidosis by excretion of bicarb maintains normal pH

A

True

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2
Q

how does vital capacity and TLC change in pregnancy

A

it doesnt

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3
Q

p50 of hb ____ from __ to ___

A

increases 27 to 30

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4
Q

dead space ___

A

decreases

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5
Q

airway resistance ___

A

decreases

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6
Q

Hyperventilation - alkalosis causes uterine ___ and ___ placental blood flow

A

vasoconstriction decreased

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7
Q

alkalosis will shift HgbO2 curve to the ___, ___ the release of O2 to the fetus

A

left, decrease

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8
Q

response to adrenergic drugs is ____, and plasma colloid osmotic pressure ___

A

blunted, declines

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9
Q

RBF and GFR are ____ by about ___ by 16th week, remains elevated until delivery

A

increased , 50%

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10
Q

BUN and Cr are ____

A

mildly reduced

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11
Q

T/F Mom has a decrease in pseudocholinesterase levels, but simultaneous increase in VOD counters any clinically significant prolongation of NMB with succs

A

TRUE

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12
Q

Fetal oxy-hemoglobi curve is ___ shifted and maternal is ___ shifted

A

left, right

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13
Q

transfer of CO2 occurs by

A

simple diffusion

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14
Q

first stage of labor

A

onset of true labor until complete cervical dilation

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15
Q

2nd stage of labor

A

time from complete dilation until infant delivered

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16
Q

third stage of labor

A

time from silvery of infant until placenta delivered

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17
Q

high serum LA levels can result in uterine ____

A

vasoconstriction

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18
Q

dermatomes for first stage of labor

A

T10-L1

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19
Q

dermatomes for second stage of labor

A

S2-S4

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20
Q

T/F Nearly all opioids cross the placenta and depress the fetus

A

TRUE

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21
Q

neonatal depression is unlikely if demerol is given….

A

less than 1h prior to delivery

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22
Q

whats the major side effect of IH

A

decreased uterine tone

23
Q

paracervical block is used for

A

first stage of labor

24
Q

pudendal block is used for

A

second stage of labor

25
A1 acid glycoprotein = ___ affinity, ___ capacity
high, low
26
albumin = ___ affinity, ____ capacity
low , high
27
___ amounts of LA are required in mom, and ____ onset
smaller, faster
28
what drugs for labor epidural
bupiv, ropiv, lido
29
what drugs for operative epidural
lido, 2choloro
30
what drugs for spinal
tetra, bupiv
31
which drug isnt great for continuous infusion bc it has a lot of motor block
lidocaine
32
which drug has a rapid onset, very short duration, lot of motor block, low risk of toxicity, very rapidly metabolized
2-cholor
33
which drug has a long duration but less of a motor block
bupiv
34
rank the drugs in terms of CV toxicity
ropiv < levobupiv < bupiv
35
what spinal levels do you wanna cover
T10-S4
36
in adults the spinal cord ends at
L1
37
turns out most providers are actually ___ than they think
higher
38
T/F Drugs delivered via spinal route are __x more potent and ____ needles are used
10x, smaller
39
____ paCO2 and ____ lowers seizure threshold
increased acidosis
40
acidosis decreases protein binding so you have _____
more free LA
41
what type of drug is sodium citrate? why is it given? how long does it last?
antacid. raises gastric pH. lasts 15min.
42
what type of drug is ranitidine? when is the max effect?
H2 blocker, usually used in addition to antacids as it does nothing for acid already there. 50mg IV dose. max effect seen 2h after admin.
43
reglan effects may be inhibited by ___
opioids
44
which drug is useful in the face of maternal hemorrhage, decreases risk of bronchospasm, but has side effects of htn and dysphoria
ketamine
45
____ causes more neonatal depression than other agents
midazolam
46
avoid block for ___ if therapeutic anti coagulated, avoid block for ___ if prophylactic anti-coagulated
24, 12
47
for neruaxial block an LWMH - remove catheter at least __h after last dose, and dont administer LWMH until ___h after block is placed or catheter is removed
2-4
48
epidural abscess - if an infection is present it takes ___days for sx (usually pain; loss of function) to occur. treatment (abx and lammy) have a ___hr window before permanent damage
4-10. 6-12
49
where is the conus
T12-L3
50
stop injecting for epidural blood patch when
patient says HA is gone or they have a pressure sensation in the ears
51
causes of total spinal
migrated epidural cath, unrecognized dural puncture, SAB after failed epidural
52
deficiency of protein C&S make a person ____coaguable
hyper
53
T/F Hypotension d/t dec. afterload will reverse a left to R shunt, with resulting R to L shunting and cyanosis - beware SAB in these patients
true