Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Clinical Neurosciences > Coma and Movement Disorders > Flashcards

Coma and Movement Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

loss of consciousness

A

coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

consciousness relies heavily on intact

A

cerebral hemispheres and the reticular activating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describing someone who is far from alert or oriented to time and space, and exhibits other signs being confused, a state just short of frank delirium

A

obtunded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

stupor

A

lack of critical consciousness and only responds to base stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

decerebrate posture indicates

A

midbrain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

decorticate posturing indicates

A

thalamus and hemisphere injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

common cause for cheyne stokes

A

heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is an abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasping inspiration with a pause at full inspiration followed by a brief, insufficient release

A

apneustic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

characteristics of thalamus or higher injury

A

cheyne stokes respiration
small reactive pupils
decorticate posturing
brainstem reflexes are intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

characteristics of mid-brain injury

A

central neurogenic hyperventilation
midposition fixed pupils
decererate posturing
EOM may be impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

characteristics of pons injury

A 
apneustic respiration
miotic puils 
absent EOM
absent corneal reflexes
flaccidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

characteristics of medulla injury

A

gasping, apenic respiration
flaccidity
absent gag reflex
blood pressure, heart rate irregularities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment

A 
ABC
IV blood draw
thamin
naloxone/romazicone
supportive
treat specific condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

herniation of the temporal lobe over the tentorial notch

A

uncal herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what Cranial nerve is commonly compressed by an uncal herniation

A

CN III (blown pupil, ptosis, and eye deviaion down and out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

glawcow coma scale eye response

A

1= eyes never open
2=eye open to pain
3= eyes open to verbal stimuli
4=eyes open spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

glascow coma scale verbal response

A 
1= no response
2=incomprehensible sounds
3=inappropriate words
4=disoriented and converses
5= oriented
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

glaswcow coma scale motor response

A 
1=one
2- decerebrae
3-decoritcate
4-flexion with withdrawal
5=localizes pain
6-obeys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

sustained contractions that may be rapid or reptetitive, focal or generalized or idiopthic/symptomatic

A

dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what three medications are associated with symptomatic dystonia

A

levodopa
haloperidol
phenothiazines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

begins focally with food inversion, facial grimacing and spasms that cause marked distortion of the body and often disappears with sleep

A

idiopathic torsion dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is idiopathic torsion dystonia diagnosied

A

history and physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how is idiopathic torsion dystonia treated

A

diazepam, anticholinergic meds, baclofen, and carbamazepine and possible thalamotoy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the causes of torticollis syndrome

A 
hyperthyroidism
antipsychotics
ocular imbalance
cervical spine disease
fragment of idiopathic torsion dystonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
treatment of torticollis
underlying cause botulinum toxin surgery
26
contraction of the orbicularis oculi and other facial muscles; increased blinking, gramacing, extension of the jaw and tongue
blepharospasm
27
what patients are typically more affected by blepharospasm
females
28
when is the onset of blepharospasm
over age of 50
29
how is blepharospasm treated
botulinum toxin
30
what is the most common movement disorder
essential tremor
31
demographics of pts with essential tremor
females and whites
32
essential tremor is most apparent when ?
stress and outstretched arms
33
differential diagnosis for essential tremmor
``` hyperthryoidism lithium valproic acid alcoholism tricyclic antidepressants low b12 level parkinson disease ```
34
how is essential tremor treated
``` alcohol beta blocker primidone diazepam, clonazepam, lorazepam surgery-pacemakers ```
35
most commonly drug induced movement disorder
tardive dyskinesia
36
what part of the body does tardive dyskinesia involve usually
lower face and the orolingual buccal muscles
37
chewing, tongue darting, piano playing fingers, and marching in place are indicative of
tardive dyskinesia
38
treatment for tardive dyskinesia
avoid the drug complication! eliminate cause reserpine
39
what drugs can cause drug induced parkinsonism
alpha methyl dopa and metoclopramide, antipychotic medications
40
inner feeling of restlessness, unable to sit still and is found more often in women
acute akathisia
41
most common reactions and often responds to injection of diphenyhydramine, benztropine and diazepam
acute dystonic reaction
42
neurolepdrometic malignant syndrome is most common in
young adults
43
symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
autonomic dysfunction, fever, rigidity, akinesia, altered mental status, acidosis and myogloburnia
44
what is the treatment of neurolpetic malignant syndrome
drug withdrawal, bromocroptine and dantrolene
45
what is a potential long term complication of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
renal failure
46
when do you get syndeham chorea
ages 5-15 years of age (self limiting but may persist)
47
______is a manisfestation of rheumatic fever
sydenham chorea
48
antibodies to the subthalamic and caudate nuclei is indicative of
syndeham chorea
49
sydenham chorea affects males or females more
females
50
darting tongue
syndeham chorea
51
treatment for sydenham chorea
sedatives phenothiazines, haloperidol valproic acid
52
genetics of huntington chorea
autosomal dominant, CAG trinucleotide repead coding for huntingtin
53
chromosome affected in huntington chorea
4p
54
loss of GABA and cholinergic neurons
huntington chorea
55
associated with atrophy of the caudate nucleus
huntington chorea
56
loss of GABA and cholinergic neurons
huntington chorea
57
age grp affected by huntinton chorea
35-40 years old
58
features of huntington chorea
choreoathetosis, personality disorder, dementia, milkmaid grps, EOM difficulties, dancing gait, and dystonia and rigidity in advanced cases
59
how do you diagnose huntington chorea
H and P genetic testing neuroimaging
60
treatment of huntington chorea
haloperidol, phenothiazine, and tetrabenzine
61
when does senile chorea begin
after the age of 60
62
violent form of chorea
violent form of chorea
63
lesion of contralateral subthalamic nucleus
hemiballism
64
causes of hemiballism
vascular, hemorrhage, tumor or iatrogenic
65
when are tics seen
seen between age 5-10
66
simple, highly personalized, idiosyncratic mannerism
tics
67
sniffing, clearing throat, protruding chin, blinking
tics
68
treatment of tics
remove exacerbating causes, ignore it or in adults (sedatives and psychotherapy to help control tics)
69
multiple tics with vocalizations
gilles de la tourette's syndrome
70
have anti-DNAase B antibodies
gilles de la tourette's syndrome
71
sexual impulses
gilles de la tourette's syndrome
72
is associated with OCD and ADD
tourettes syndrome
73
how do you diagnose tourette's
H and P
74
treatment of tourette's
``` remove preciptants clonidine haloperidol pimozide naltrexone marinol psychotherapy possibly a deep brain stimulator ```

Clinical Neurosciences (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions