Combo Test Flashcards

1
Q

The construction of a Knight LSO consists of:

A

Paraspinal bars, lateral bars, pelvic band, thoracic band

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2
Q

Four part burst fracture of C1 is commonly called:

A

Jeffersons Fracture

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3
Q

A wrist driven wrist hand orthosis is designed to mechanically assist patients to achieve what type of prehension?

A

Three Point Prehension

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4
Q

The forces applied by traction systems are:

A

Distractive

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5
Q

When seating a patient, the first priority should be to stabilize:

A

The pelvis and torso

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6
Q

To prevent pin penetration through the skull and not the brain:

A

Properly adjusted torque drivers should be used

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7
Q

The cardinal plane that evenly divides the human body from front to back is:

A

The coronal plane

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8
Q

The null vertebra is:

A

Level at/near the center of the curve

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9
Q

An appropriate foot orthosis for a rigid subtalar varus foot would:

A

Include a medial wedge

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10
Q

Appropriate treatment for T11-L2 compression fractures include:

A

The Jewett hyperextension orthosis

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11
Q

Dynamic forces are introduced to orthotic intervention for two primary purposes. What are these two primary purposes?

A

Substitute and correct motion

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12
Q

What wrist position is considered to be the resting position?

A

10 degrees of extension

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13
Q

The radial extension component of the short opponenes hand orthosis comes in contact primarily with what part of the hand?

A

The 2nd metacarpal joint

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14
Q

Genu valgum describes a knee joint that

A

Is excessively angled medially

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15
Q

The demonstrated MMT grade of 4 would indicate:

A

The patient is able to move against gravity and some manual resistance

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16
Q

The ratchet wrist hand orthosis assists quadriplegics in achieving prehension to perform some tasks. What spinal cord injury level is appropriate for consideration of a ratchet versus a wrist driven WHO?

17
Q

Which fibular landmark is of particular interests in relation to the peroneal nerve?

18
Q

The Denis 3 Column System includes consideration of:

A
  • the severity of spinal injury
  • the location of spinal injury
  • the stability of spinal injury
19
Q

The largest bones of the pelvic extremity are:

A

The femur, the tibia, and the fibula

20
Q

The goals of orthotic treatment are to control:

A
  • pain
  • motion
  • deformity
21
Q

Foot pronation is a combination of:

A

Calcaneal eversion, calcaneal abduction, calcaneal dorsiflexion

22
Q

Proper AFO design must:

A

Correct flexible deformity

23
Q

Which cervical thoracic orthosis is particularly well-suited for application on supine patients?

24
Q

MRI technology is used primarily for imaging:

A

Soft tissue

25
The Ortolani Test involves:
Relocation of a dislocated hip
26
Intrinsic stability of the spinal column is provided by:
Bones, discs, and ligaments
27
Fluctuating edema can be accommodated by:
A conventional AFO with custom shoes
28
What advantages does a fracture orthosis offer over a fracture cast?
- it can be opened for hygiene - it can be opened for dressing changes - it can be adjusted for edemous changes
29
One disadvantage of offset knee joints is
The possible unintentional unlocking on uneven terrain
30
The distal palmar trim line for the plastic WHO is trimmed to:
A point just proximal to the distal palmar crease
31
Name the knee joint ligament that is most often injured in athletic activities that involve planting the foot and turning or twisting.
Anterior Cruciate
32
Many spinous processes align:
With the level of the next inferior vertebral body
33
Spinal orthoses offer biomechanical control including:
- three point pressure systems - fluid compression and distraction - skeletal fixation and kinesthetic reminders
34
The primary function of the intervertebral disc is
Absorption of compressive forces in spinal column