Communication in Aerospace Management Flashcards

(135 cards)

1
Q

The piston moves away from cylinder head, the intake port opens, fuel/air mixture is drawn in the cylinder.

A

Intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The piston moves back toward the cylinder head, intake port close, fuel/air mixture is compressed.

A

Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The spark ignites the compressed fuel/air mixture forcing the piston down the cylinder and revolving the crankshaft

A

Power/Ignition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

As the piston moves towards the cylinder head for the second time, the exhaust port opens, burnt gases are forced out of the cylinder.

A

Exhaust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

abnormally rapid combustion due to low octane grade fuel, too lean fuel/air mixture, high cylinder head temperature

A

Detonation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gasoline powered piston is most common propulsion system used in general aviation. Similar to automobile engine but it is lighter burns more highly refuse fuel and is aircooled.

A

The Reciprocating Engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Types of Engine

A

Piston engine and Turbine engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Turbine engine

A

Turbo jet – missile, Concorde, jet
Turbo fan – used by commercial aircraft
Turbo props – with propeller
turbo shaft - helicopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

There are three axes about which an aircraft rotates. All three go through the ___

A

centre of gravity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The lateral axis generally runs from ___. Remember: L A T – Links Aerofoil Tips.

A

wingtip to wingtip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The lateral axis generally runs from wingtip to wingtip. The aircraft moves in the ___ plane about this axis.

A

pitching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ____ axis runs from nose to tail. Remember: aLONG the length of the aircraft. The aircraft moves in the ___ plane about this axis.

A

longitudinal, rolling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ___ axis runs vertically downwards.
The aircraft moves in the ___ plane about this axis.

A

normal, yawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

VLF – Very Low Frequency

A

0 – 30 KHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

LF – Low Frequency

A

30 KHz – 300KHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MF – Medium Frequency

A

300KHz – 3,000KHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HF – High Frequency

A

3MHz - 30 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

VHF – Very High Frequency

A

30 MHz – 300MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

UHF – Ultra High Frequency

A

300-3,000 Mhz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SHF - Super High Frequency

A

3-30 Ghz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EHF – Extremely High Frequency

A

30-300 Ghz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

similar to DME for military and naval operation

A

TACAN – (Tact. Air Nav)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

similar to VOR/DME but for military use

A

VORTAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

precision navigation guidance for exact alignment and descend of a/c on approach to runway it provides azimuth, elevation and distance

A

Microwave Landing System ( MLS )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
provide heading, total time to reach station and destination, direction and ground speed
Global Position System (GPS)
26
use for landing aid rather than sequencing and spacing of a/c It is similar to an instrument landing system (ILS) but requires control instructions. 
Precision Approach Radar ( PAR )
27
low or med frequency radio beacon transmits non directional signal whose pilot of aircraft can define his bearing and home on the station.
Non Direct Beacon ( NDB )
28
designed to provide an approaching path for exact alignment and descent of A/C on final approach to runway ILS range up to 20 NM radius.
Instrument Landing System ( ILS )
29
___ are most commonly used as markers or "locators" for an instrument landing system (ILS) approach or standard approach. a localizer is the lateral component of the instrument landing system (ILS) for the runway centreline when combined with the vertical glide slope, not to be confused with a locator, although both are parts of aviation navigation systems.
NDB
30
3 parts of ILS
- Guidance info - Localizer , glideslope - Range info - marker beacon, DME - Visual info – approach light, touch down, center light, runway light.
31
If both transmitters and receivers are inoperative what will you do?
Fly Triangular Pattern
32
Steady Green (ground)
cleared for take off
33
Steady Green (air)
cleared to land
34
Flashing Green (ground)
cleared for taxi
35
Flashing Green ( air)
return to landing position
36
Steady Red ( ground )
Stop
37
Steady Red ( air )
Give way
38
Flashing Red ( ground )
clear the runway
39
Flashing Red ( air )
do not land
40
Flashing white
Return to starting point
41
Alternating Red and Green
Proceed with caution
42
also called air terminal, aerodrome, or airfield, site and installation for the takeoff and landing of aircraft. An ___ usually has paved runways and maintenance facilities and serves as a terminal for passengers and cargo.
Airport
43
Is a location where aircraft such as fixed-wing aircraft, helicopter and blimps take off and land. Aircraft may be stored or maintained at an ____
airport
44
An ____ is consisting of at least one surface such as a runway for a plane to take off and land, and often includes building such as control tower, hangar and terminal building.
airport
45
include parking lots, public transportation, and access roads.
LANDSIDE AREAS
46
include all areas accessible to aircraft, including runways, taxiways, and ramps.
AIRSIDE AREAS
47
Is a strip of land at an airport on which aircraft can take off and land. ____ may be a man-made surface (often asphalt, concrete or a mixture of both) or a natural surface (grass, dirt, gravel or salt).
Runway
48
Is a path on an airport connecting runways with ramps, hangar, terminals and other facilities. The mostly have hard surface such as asphalt or concrete.
Taxiway
49
___ is part of an airport. It is usually the area where aircraft are parked, unloaded or loaded, refueled or boarded.
Airport Ramp
50
Known as a car park in countries such as Malaysia, Australia, United Kingdome and Ireland). Also known as car lot. Is a cleared area that is more or less level and is intended for parking vehicles.
Parking Lot
51
Comprises passenger transportation services which are available for use by general public as opposed to modes for private use such as automobiles or vehicle for hire
Public Transport
52
Provides critical links between public use airport facilities and the public roadway network serving the surrounding area. The design and construction of ____ built within airport property boundaries are eligible for federal capital improvement funding and state funding through the Airport Capital Program.
access road
53
Provides restricted access within airport’s airfield. These roads are used by airport and FAA staff to conduct business activities such as security checks and maintenance work on an airport.
Perimeter Roads
54
Is a building at an airport where passenger transfer between ground transportation and the facilities that allow them to board and disembark from aircraft. Within the terminal, passengers purchase tickets, transfer their luggage and go through security.
Airport terminal/terminal building
55
Is an airport typically equipped with customs and immigration facilities to handle international flights to and from other countries.
International Airport
56
Such airport are usually larger, and often feature longer runways and facilities to accommodate the large aircraft commonly used for international or intercontinental travel.
International Airport
57
Many ___ airports also serve as HUBS-or a place where non direct flight may land and passenger switch planes.
International Airport
58
Is an airport which handles only domestic flights or flights within the same country.
Domestic Airport
59
It don’t have customs and immigration facilities and are therefore incapable of handling flights to or from a foreign airport.
Domestic Airport
60
These airports normally have shorts runways which are sufficient to handle short/medium aircraft and regional air traffic.
Domestic Airport
61
They serve business charter and private planes. Many are small and can be used only by propeller-driven light aircraft and helicopters.
General Aviation Airport
62
Types of Airport and its difference
Controlled Airport – Has an operating control tower. Uncontrolled Airport – Does not have an operating control tower.
63
Airport Facilities: (first 6)
- Pasalubong shops - Check-in counter - Passenger boarding bridge - Baggage x-ray machine - Departure hallway - Baggage handling system
64
A spacious hallway provides comfort and convenience to passenger
Departure Hallway
65
Airport Facilities: (last 6)
- Cargo road area - Cargo loading equipment - Departure road/entrance gate - Flight Information System - Departure lobby - Departure arrival area
66
____includes conveyor, forklift, palletized container used to load/unload baggage’s to and from aircraft.
Cargo loading equipment
67
a computerized flight relay information on flight status information display (FID) was provided so that passenger within the terminal could see code shared flights.
Flight Information System
68
The first use of the term “AIRPORT” originated in ___ when the flying boats landed and departed from port of __, it was named “air-port” by the mayor of it.
Southampton, England
69
is the administration of airports and airlines. It includes the activities of setting the strategy of airports to gather and provide information on airline commercial and operational priorities.
Airline and airport management
70
____ is another critical factor in managing an airline company. It is one vital way to inform the public about the airline company.
Marketing
71
The ____ (the Kitty Hawk, often retrospectively referred to as Flyer I or 1903 Flyer) was the first successful heavier-than-air powered aircraft.
Wright Flyer
72
The Air Mail Act of 1925, also known as the __ was a key piece of legislation that intended to free the airmail from total control by the Post Office Department.
Kelly Act 1925
73
In short, it allowed the Postmaster General to contract private companies to carry mail. The Act was sponsored by ___, and became legislation in February that year.
Clyde Kelly
74
It was signed by ____ on May 20, 1926. The object of this is to promote the development and stability of commercial aviation in order to attract adequate capital into the business and to provide the fledging industry with the assistance and legal basis necessary for its growth.
President Coolidge, Air Commerce Act of 1926
75
An administrative order established in 1934 separately constituted Bureau of the Department of Commerce to promote and regulate aeronautics.
Bureau of Air Commerce
76
The Bureau of Air Commerce consisted of two division:
Division of Air Navigation Division of Air Regulation
77
On June 23, 1938, it was approved by President Roosevelt. Created one administrative agency responsible for the regulation of aviation and in air transportation.
Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938
78
Under reorganization in ___, two separate agencies were created the ___
1940, Civil Aeronautics Board and Civil Aeronautics Administration.
79
2 Entities of Civil Aeronautics Authority
- Civil Aeronautics Board - Civil Aeronautics Administration
80
Responsible for the economic regulation of the certificated air carriers during the period from 1940 to 1985.
Civil Aeronautics Board
81
Forerunner to the FAA, responsible for supervising the construction, maintenance and operation of the airway system including enforcement of safety regulations. It is responsible for safe operation of the airway system. The CAA which originally meant Civil Aeronautics became the _____.
Civil Aeronautics Administration
82
5 basic parts of an aircraft
Empennage, Wing, Fuselage, Landing gear, Powerplant
83
one of the major aircraft components with its long hollow tube that’s also known as the body of the airplane, which holds the passengers along with cargo.
Fuselage
84
commonly known as foils, are aircraft parts that are imperative for flight. The airflow over the ____ is what generates most of the lifting force necessary for flight.
wings
85
can be used to generate a rolling motion for an aircraft. ___ are small hinged sections on the outboard portion of a wing. It is usually work in opposition: as the right aileron is deflected upward, the left is deflected downward, and vice versa.
Ailerons
86
are small, hinged plates on the top portion of wings. It can be used to slow an aircraft, or to make an aircraft descend, if they are deployed on both wings. and it can also be used to generate a rolling motion for an aircraft, if they are deployed on only one wing.
Spoilers
87
The part on the leading edge is called a ___, while the part on the trailing edge is called a ___. These move along metal tracks built into the wings.
slat, flap
88
moved up and down to control the altitude movement.
flaps
89
these are generally slotted for generating proper air flow around the wing during takeoff and landing.
slat
90
The ____ is the tail end of the aircraft. It helps with the stability of the plane and has two main components called the rudder and the elevator.
empennage
91
The ___ helps the aircraft steer from right to left
rudder
92
the ___ helps with the up and down movement.
elevator
93
Used to prevent the airplane from pitching up or down.
Horizontal Stabilizer
94
Used to prevent the aircraft from yawing back and forth.
Vertical Stabilizer
95
Is the rear section that controls the up and down motion of aircraft nose.
Elevator
96
It is a movable airfoil that is used to turn the aircraft.
Rudder
97
The ___of an airplane structure includes the engine and the propeller. The engine itself is a complicated system comprised of many smaller parts like cylinders, fans, and pistons.
power plant
98
You cannot have a safe plane without having the ___ Not only are these parts imperative in order to land, but it is also used to help an aircraft take-off and taxi. These includes shock absorbers for a smooth landing and takeoff as well as the wheels on the plane.
landing gear
99
Frequency Allocation: Non-direct beacon (low power) and radio
200 – 415 KHz
100
Frequency Allocation: NDB (Standard)
200 – 1 750MHz
101
Frequency Allocation: VOR (VHF omni-directional range)
108 – 117.95MHz
102
Frequency Allocation: VOR Test Facility
108 – 118.0 MHz
103
Frequency Allocation: ILS locator
108.10 – 111.95MHz
104
Frequency Allocation: ILS glide slope
329.15 – 335.610MHz
105
Frequency Allocation: DME & TACAN
960.0 – 1215.0MHz
106
Frequency Allocation: ATC tower
118.0 – 135.975MHz
107
Frequency Allocation: Airport Utility Frequency (ground control)
121.6 – 121.925MHz
108
Clearance Delivery
125.1
109
Ramp Control
121.7
110
Ground Control
121.8
111
Tower
118.1
112
Radar
121.1/119.7
113
You are the tower controller, what gun light signal should you use for the following: An Aircraft with dead radio wants to land but 2 aircrafts collided on the runway
do not land (flashing red)
114
You are the tower controller, what gun light signal should you use for the following: An aircraft with a dead radio was cleared for take off and now needs to be aware of sudden gusts of wind
alternating red and green (proceed with extreme caution)
115
Which part of aircraft departure flow is occurring and what frequency should you call for the following scenario Your aircraft had just finished boarding and refueling
Ramp Control - 121.7
116
Which part of aircraft departure flow is occurring and what frequency should you call for the following scenario You’re holding short and waiting for take off clearance
Tower Control - 118.1
117
___ has a number of operational advantages, including a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with other nearby airports, excellent performance in all weather, and wide vertical and horizontal "capture" angles that allowed approaches from wider areas around the airport
Microwave Landing System
118
AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides ATC Clearance Flight level, route , Squawk code.
Clearance Delivery ( 125.1 )
119
AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides taxi clearance.
Ground Control (121.8)
119
AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides start-up/ push back clearance.
Ramp Control (121.7)
119
______, Washington, United States, was built to accommodate planes in 1905 and airships in 1911, and is still in use as of January 2020.
Pearson Field Airport in Vancouver
119
AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides take-off clearance
Tower (118.1)
119
AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Controls aircraft within 60 NM radius
Radar Departure (121.1 / 119.7)
119
____ opened in January 1911, making it the oldest commercial airport in the world which is still in operation
Hamburg Airport
119
The title of "world's oldest airport" is disputed. ____ in __ established in 1909 by Wilbur Wright, is generally agreed to be the world's oldest continuously operating airfield, although it serves only general aviation traffic.
College Park Airport in Maryland, US
119
____, which was built to accommodate planes in 1904, and airships in 1907, opened in 1910. It was in operation until September 2019.
Beijing Nanyuan Airport in China
119
____ opened in 1913 and remains in use, although it served as an American military field between 1945 and 1949
Bremen Airport
120
_____ opened on September 16, 1916, as a military airfield, but has accepted civil aircraft only since December 17, 1920, allowing Sydney Airport—which started operations in January 1920—to claim to be one of the world's oldest continuously operating commercial airports.
Amsterdam Airport Schiphol
121
____ in the US opened in 1920 and has been in continuous commercial service since. It serves about 35,000,000 passengers each year and continues to expand, recently opening a new 11,000-foot (3,355 m) runway. Of the airports constructed during this early period in aviation, it is one of the largest and busiest that is still currently operating.
Minneapolis-Saint Paul International Airport
122
___, opened 1916, is also a contender, as well as the ____ near Bangkok, Thailand, which opened in 1914. Increased aircraft traffic during World War I led to the construction of landing fields. Aircraft had to approach these from certain directions and this led to the development of aids for directing the approach and landing slope.
Rome Ciampino Airport & Don Mueang International Airport
123
Following the war, some of these military airfields added civil facilities for handling passenger traffic. One of the earliest such fields was Paris ____ near Paris
Le Bourget Airport at Le Bourget,
124
The first airport to operate scheduled international commercial services was ____ in August 1919, but it was closed and supplanted by Croydon Airport in March 1920.
Hounslow Heath Aerodrome
125
The first lighting used on an airport was during the latter part of the 1920s; in the 1930s ____ came into use. These indicated the proper direction and angle of descent.
approach lighting
126
In the 1940s, the ___ was introduced. This consisted of two rows of lights that formed a funnel indicating an aircraft's position on the glideslope. Additional lights indicated incorrect altitude and direction.
slope-line approach system
127
In 1922, the first permanent airport and commercial terminal solely for commercial aviation was opened at ____ near what was then Königsberg, East Prussia. The airports of this era used a paved "apron", which permitted night flying as well as landing heavier aircraft.
Flughafen Devau