COMP Recalls Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

What values increase in COPD?

A

FRC, RV, TLC

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2
Q

What is the equation for accuracy?

A

TP + TN / everything

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3
Q

Dizygotic twins and the amnion, chorion, etc.:

A

Dizygotic have separate everything, 2 eggs, 2 different sperm, 2 separate amniotic sacs and 2 separate placentas (0-4 days)

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4
Q

Least addictive first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

Fluoxetine (SSRI)

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5
Q

Side effects of Finasteride?

A

Gynecomastia and sexual dysfunction

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6
Q

What is serum lipase most specific for?

A

Acute pancreatitis

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7
Q

Labs for a patient with anxiety that is hyperventilating:

A

Low PCO2, High pH, Normal HCO3

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8
Q

What is the treatment for Chron’s disease?

A

Inflixamab

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9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of anemia in CLL patients?

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia; a Warm-Aggultinin (IgG)

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10
Q

When does the trachea deviate away from the lesion?

A

Tension pneumothorax

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11
Q

Macrocytic anemia with the presence of seizures is due to what?

A

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) Deficiency

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12
Q

In Waardenburg Syndrome, what gene is deficient and how will this present?

A

Baby with two different colored eyes; PAX3 gene mutation.

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13
Q

Familial Hypercholestremia will have a defect with what problem?

A

Clartharin-coated vesicles

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14
Q

Liver cirrhosis will distend what vessel?

A

The IVC.

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15
Q

What are the features of Churg-Strauss?

A

Asthma, sinusitis, eosinophilia, and (+) p-ANCA

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16
Q

Labs of Graves disease?

A

Low TSH, High T3, and T4

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17
Q

Where does ADH work in the kidney?

A

At the collecting duct.

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18
Q

Patient lost in the desert for 10 days, other than liver, what is maintaining blood glucose?

A

The muscle.

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19
Q

How do you diagnose Legionella?

A

Antigen in the urine

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20
Q

What cannot be destroyed by autoclave?

A

Prions

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Gabapentin?

A

Inhibits voltage gated Ca2+ channels; is a GABA analog

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22
Q

What are the signs of PCP toxicity and treatment?

A

CF: Nystagmus, impulsitivity, agitation and psychosis
Tx: Benzodiazepines

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23
Q

Patient develops rash after beginning treatment for depression, what drug is it?

A

Clozapine, due to risk for agranulocytosis.

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24
Q

Where does aldosterone act in the renal tubule??

A

The collecting duct on principle cells.

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25
A patient with an absent gag reflex and difficulty swallowing most likely has what muscle effected?
Stylopharyngeus via CN IX which is formed by the the 3rd brachial arch
26
What association is atrial fibrillation closely associated with?
Hyperthyroidism
27
What disorder is CD20+, and CD 103+?
Hairy-Cell Leukemia; dry-tap on aspirate.
28
If you start a patient on an ACE inhibitor, what findings would correlate with this?
Increased Ang I, bradykinin, renin | Decreased Ang II, Aldosterone
29
What is the mechanism of action of Ethosuxamide?
Inhibits T-type Ca2+ channels at the thalamus.
30
If you give a patient with hyperthyroidism some radioactive iodine, what side effect could you see?
Hypothyroidism
31
What drug is used to treat Influenza A and B?
Oseltamivir, Zanamivir which inhibits viral neuramidase to decrease the release of the virion.
32
In a patient who took Sildenafil and then developed hypotension, what drug interaction could cause this?
Taking nitrates (such as nitroglycerin)
33
What are the lab findings for Iron Deficiency Anemia?
Low Iron, Low Ferritin, High TIBC | Opposite of hemochromatosis.
34
If you increase the testing requirements for PPD to be 15, from it's original 10, what would happen to incidence and prevalence?
Both would decrease
35
If the TATA box is mutated what enzyme would be rendered inactive?
DNA Polymerase.
36
What is the mechanism of action of Paclitaxel?
To stabilize microtubules and inhibit break down
37
What is the mechanism of action of Colichine?
To inhibit microtubule polymerization
38
What are the features of Sickle Cell Trait C?
Small size, 10% sickled, with 90% normal, and normal colour
39
What will you see in order to confirm Leishmaniasis, which presents with spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia (maybe skin ulcers too)
Macrophages with amastigotes inside them.
40
What is the ROT of Norovirus?
Fecal-oral
41
What Influenza causes a pandemic and through what mechanism?
Influenza A, and through antigenic shift.
42
What agar is used for Clostridium perfringes?
Anaerobic or Tryptose-Sulfite-Cycloserine Agar
43
What nerve is associated with mid-shaft humorous fracture, and what is the presentation?
Radial; presents as wrist drop
44
Where does the left renal vein drain into?
IVC directly
45
What does Clomiphene do?
Stimulates estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, causing an increased LH and FSH release; used to tx infertility and inovulation.
46
What type of hydrocephalus is seen in Parkinson's?
Normal pressure hydrocephalus; contrast with hydrocephalus ex-vacou in Alzheimer's
47
What vessel provides collateral circulation of the lungs?
Bronchial veins
48
Prostate surgery happened, then the man could not obtain erections, what nerve is effected?
Cavernous Plexus (S2-S4)
49
What are the LH and testosterone levels associated with Leuprolide?
Both decrease in constant secretion.
50
What is associated with increased fibrinogen levels on a bleeding problem?
Fibrinogen is an Acute Phase Reactant; can be seen in Stroke, Coronary Artery Disease, MI, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Glomerulonephritis, Peripheral Artery Disease, Trauma, etc.
51
What drug do you give to a breast cancer patient with ER (+) cells?
Tamofexin
52
What drug do you give to a breast cancer patient with ER (-) but Her-2 (+)
Trastuzamab "TrasTWOzumab"
53
What are the movement problems in the common peroneal nerve?
Inability to dorsiflex or evert
54
If the renal artery is down or ruptured, what is affected first?
Medulla.
55
What murmur increases intensity when laying down and passive leg raise?
Aortic Stenosis
56
What are the lab values for sideroblastic anemia, and it's presentation?
CF: Ringed-sideroblast, basophilic stippling Labs: Increased Iron and Ferritin Decreased (or Normal) TIBC
57
What are features of CML?
Decrease in RBCs, but Increase in Platelets | Mature and maturing granulocytes with splenomegaly.
58
What causes aortic dissection and how does it present?
Hypertension; presents with ripping pain tearing into the back.
59
What are the features of NF2?
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, ependymomas. Involved with loss of function of NF2 tumor suppressor gene on Chromosome 22
60
What is the presentation of TTP?
Low RBCs, and Low Platelets; presents with: Thrombocytopenia, MAHA, Acute Kidney Injury + Neurological symptoms. Typically seen in women; ADAMST13 def.
61
What are the PDA features associated in the heart?
Decreased systemic PO2
62
If the arcuate artery is stenosed, what region of the kidney is affected the most?
The cortex.
63
Patient without menstrual cycle in 4 months, who is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure, what labs would you see?
High FSH, LH | Low Estrogen
64
Chlamydia trachomatis in a pregnant patient is treated with what?
Azithromycin
65
What is methoxsalane, used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis, contraindicated in?
Poryphria Cutanea Tarda; because methoxsalane uses UV light
66
What cell has the most influence on a patient with osteoporosis?
Osteoclasts.
67
What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?
Inhibits binding of tRNA at A-side in the 30s ribosome; inhibiting translocation.