Comp. Review Science Flashcards
(799 cards)
1
Q
What is an acute infection?
A
An infection with rapid onset and short duration
2
Q
Define antagonism in microbiology.
A
The inhibition of one organism by another
3
Q
What are antibodies?
A
A substance developed by the body in response to, and interacting specifically with, an antigen; also known as immunoglobulin
4
Q
What is an antigen?
A
Any substance that stimulates an immune reaction
5
Q
What does antisepsis refer to?
A
The prevention or inhibiting of the growth of causative microorganisms on living tissue
6
Q
Define attenuation in the context of microorganisms.
A
Reduction of the virulence of a microorganism
7
Q
What are autotrophic bacteria?
A
Self-nourishing bacteria
8
Q
Describe bacillus.
A
Rod-shaped bacteria
9
Q
What is bacteremia?
A
The presence of live bacteria in the blood
10
Q
Define bacteria.
A
A prokaryotic single-celled microorganism of the Kingdom Monera, existing as free-living organisms or as parasites, multiplying by binary fission
11
Q
What is a bacterial colony?
A
A visible group of bacteria, presumably arising from a single microorganism
12
Q
What is a bactericide?
A
An agent that destroys bacteria but not necessarily their spores
13
Q
What field of science studies bacteria?
A
Bacteriology
14
Q
What is binary fission?
A
Asexual reproduction in prokaryotic cells resulting in two individual cells with genetic consistency
15
Q
Define biological vector.
A
An infected arthropod in which the disease-causing organism multiplies or develops within the arthropod prior to becoming infective
16
Q
What is a capsule in microbiology?
A
A gelatinous coating that surrounds some bacterial cells that helps to protect against phagocytosis
17
Q
What is a cell wall?
A
A rigid layer outside the cell membrane of plants, fungi, and bacteria
18
Q
What characterizes a chronic infection?
A
An infection with slow onset and long duration
19
Q
What is a coccus?
A
The type of bacteria that is spherical
20
Q
Define commensalism.
A
The symbiotic relationship of two organisms of different species in which one gains some benefit and the other is not harmed or benefited
21
Q
What does communicable mean?
A
A disease that may be transmitted from one individual to another
22
Q
What is contamination?
A
The act of introducing pathogens or infectious material into or on an inanimate object
23
Q
What is a disinfectant?
A
A chemical or physical agent that kills vegetative forms of microorganisms
24
Q
What is disinfection?
A
A chemical or physical agent that kills vegetative forms of microorganisms on inanimate objects
25
Define drug-fast.
Bacterial resistance to the action of drugs
26
What is endemic disease?
Disease that occurs continuously in a particular region/population
27
What is an endogenous infection?
A form of infection caused by a pathogen or agent normally present in the body
28
What is an endospore?
A thick-walled body produced by a bacterium to enable it to survive unfavorable environmental conditions
29
Define endotoxin.
A bacterial toxin that is liberated only when the cell producing it disintegrates
30
What characterizes an epidemic?
Disease or condition that is currently in higher than normal numbers in a given population
31
What is an exogenous infection?
A form of infection caused by a pathogen or agent not normally present in the body
32
What is an exotoxin?
A bacterial toxin produced within a living cell and secreted into its surrounding medium
33
Define facultative aerobe.
A microorganism that prefers an environment devoid of oxygen but has adapted to live and grow in the presence of oxygen
34
What is a facultative anaerobe?
An organism that prefers the presence of oxygen but can live and grow in its absence
35
What is a facultative parasite?
Prefers dead organic matter as a source of nutrition but can adapt to using living organic matter under certain conditions
36
What is a facultative saprophyte?
Prefers living organic matter as a source of nutrition but can adapt to using dead organic matter under certain conditions
37
What is a focal infection?
An infection originally confined to one area but may spread to other parts of the body
38
Define fomite.
Any inanimate object that harbors a disease agent and may serve to transmit it
39
What is a fungicide?
A substance that kills fungi
40
Define fungus.
A group of diverse and widespread unicellular and multicellular organisms, lacking chlorophyll, usually bearing spores and often filamentous
41
What is a germicide?
A substance that destroys microorganisms
42
What are heterotrophic bacteria?
Organisms that must obtain their nourishment from complex organic matter
43
What are hypochlorites?
Chlorine-containing compounds
44
Define infection.
A condition in which the body or a part of it is invaded by a pathogenic agent that can multiply and produces injurious effects
45
What are iodophores?
A compound containing iodine
46
What is a local infection?
An infection confined to one area of the body
47
What is the maximum temperature for bacterial growth?
Temperature above which bacterial growth will not take place
48
What is a mechanical vector?
A vector in which the growth and development of the infective agent do not occur
49
Define mesophile.
Bacteria that prefer moderate temperatures and develop best at temperatures between 25℃ and 40℃
50
What is a microaerophilic organism?
An organism that grows best in an oxygen-reduced environment
51
What is microbiology?
Scientific study of microorganisms and their effects on other living organisms
52
What is the minimum temperature for bacterial growth?
Temperature below which bacterial growth will not take place
53
What is a mixed infection?
Infection caused by two or more organisms
54
Define mutualism.
A relationship in which organisms of two different species live in close association to the mutual benefit of each
55
What is mycology?
The branch of science concerned with the study of fungi
56
What are mycoplasmas?
A group of bacteria that lack cell walls and are highly pleomorphic
57
What is normal flora?
The microbial population that lives within or upon the host in a healthy condition
58
Define opportunist in microbiology.
An organism that exists as part of the normal flora but may become pathogenic under certain conditions
59
What is the optimum temperature for organism growth?
Temperature at which organisms grow best
60
What is osmotic pressure?
The force applied to a solution to inhibit inward movement of water across a semipermeable membrane
61
What is a pandemic?
An epidemic that has become very widespread or is worldwide
62
Define parasitism.
A symbiotic relationship between two organisms in which one is harmed and the other benefits
63
What is pathogenicity?
The state of producing or being able to produce pathological changes and disease
64
What is a primary infection?
An infection that develops in an otherwise healthy individual
65
What is a prion?
An infectious, self-replicating protein, involved in human and animal diseases of the central nervous system
66
What are protozoa?
Eukaryotic, animal-like, unicellular organisms
67
What is protozoology?
Science that deals with the study of protozoa
68
What is a psychrophile?
Bacteria that prefer cold, thriving at temperatures between 0℃ and 25℃
69
Define sanitation.
To reduce microbe populations to a safe level as determined by public health standards
70
What is a secondary infection?
An infection made possible by a primary infection that lowers host resistance
71
What is septicemia?
Growth and spreading of bacterial cells in the bloodstream
72
What is a spirillum?
Spiral-shaped bacteria having a rigid cell wall
73
What is a spirochete?
Spiral-shaped bacteria having a flexible cell wall
74
Define sporadic disease.
A disease which occurs occasionally in a random or isolated manner
75
What is staphylococcus?
Gram-positive, nonmotile, opportunistic bacteria which tend to aggregate in irregular, grape-like clusters
76
What is sterilization?
A process of completely removing or destroying all life forms and their products including endospores
77
What are streptobacilli?
Rod-shaped bacteria occurring in chains
78
What are streptococci?
Spherical-shaped bacteria occurring in chains
79
What is a strict (obligate) aerobe?
A microbe that can live only in the presence of free oxygen
80
What is a strict (obligate) anaerobe?
A microbe that can survive only in the absence of free oxygen
81
Define strict (obligate) parasite.
An organism that is completely dependent on its living host for survival
82
What is a strict (obligate) saprophyte?
An organism that can survive only on dead or decaying organic matter
83
What is symbiosis?
The living together in close association of two organisms of different species
84
Define synergism.
The relationship between two or more microorganisms of different species in which they grow better together but can survive alone
85
What is a systemic infection?
An infection in which the infecting organisms circulate throughout the body
86
What is a thermophile?
Bacteria that thrive best at high temperatures, between 40℃ and 70℃
87
What is toxemia?
The presence of toxins in the blood
88
Define toxin.
A poisonous substance of plant, animal, bacterial or fungal origin
89
What is a true pathogen?
An organism that due to its own virulence is able to produce disease
90
What is a vibrio?
Spiral bacteria which are curved or bent rods that resemble commas
91
What is a virucide?
An agent destructive to viruses
92
What is virology?
The study of viruses and viral diseases
93
Define virulence.
Relative power of an organism to produce disease
94
What is a virus?
An intracellular pathogen limited to replicating only in living cells, containing only one form of nucleic acid
95
96
What is general pathology?
Study of widespread processes of disease such as inflammation, degeneration, necrosis, and repair without reference to particular organs or organ systems.
97
Define goiter.
Enlargement of the thyroid gland.
98
What is gross pathology?
Study of changes in structure of the body that are readily seen with the unaided eye as a result of disease.
99
What does hematemesis refer to?
Vomiting of blood.
100
Define hematoma.
Tumor-like swelling of blood.
101
What is hematuria?
Blood in the urine.
102
What is hemophilia?
A hereditary bleeding disorder marked by a deficiency of blood-clotting proteins.
103
What does hemoptysis mean?
Blood in sputum.
104
Define hemorrhage.
Escape of blood from the vascular system.
105
What does hereditary mean?
Genetic characteristics transmitted from parent to offspring.
106
What is a hernia?
Abnormal protrusion of part of an organ or tissue through a weak spot in the wall that normally contains it.
107
Define hydrocele.
Abnormal collection of fluid in any sacculated cavity in the body.
108
What is hydrocephalus?
Excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain.
109
What does hydronephrosis refer to?
Distention of the renal pelvis with urine as a result of obstruction.
110
Define hydropericardium.
Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the pericardial sac.
111
What is hydrothorax?
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the thoracic cavity.
112
What does hyperemia mean?
Excess of blood in an area of the body.
113
Define hyperplasia.
Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to excessive but regulated increase in the number of its cells.
114
What is hypertrophy?
Enlargement of an organ or structure due to the increase in size of cells composing it.
115
What does hypoplasia mean?
Underdevelopment of a tissue, organ or the body.
116
Define iatrogenic.
Any injury or illness that occurs as a result of medical care.
117
What does idiopathic mean?
Of unknown cause.
118
What is infarction?
Death of tissue due to a lack of blood supply.
119
Define infection.
A disease caused by microorganisms, especially those that release toxins or invade body tissues.
120
What does infestation refer to?
Presence in or on the body of macroscopic organisms.
121
Define infiltration.
The passage and accumulation of a substance into cells, tissues, or organs.
122
What is inflammation?
A tissue reaction to irritation, infection, or injury marked by localized heat, swelling, redness, pain, and sometimes loss of function.
123
What does intoxication refer to?
The state of being poisoned by a drug or toxic substance.
124
What is ischemia?
Reduction in arterial blood supply.
125
Define jaundice.
Yellowish discoloration of the tissues due to the presence of excessive bilirubin in the blood.
126
What is a lesion?
A circumscribed area of pathologically altered tissue; an injury or wound.
127
What does leukemia refer to?
A malignancy of the hematopoietic tissues characterized by a massive increase in the number of white blood cells.
128
What is leukocytosis?
Increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood.
129
Define leukopenia.
Abnormal reduction in the number of white blood cells in the blood.
130
What does lymphadenitis mean?
Inflammation of lymph nodes.
131
What is lymphedema?
Abnormal accumulation of tissue fluid in the interstitial spaces due to lymphatic disturbances.
132
Define lymphoma.
Malignancy of lymphoid tissue.
133
What is a malformation (anomaly)?
A defect or deformity.
134
What does medicolegal (forensic) pathology study?
Study of disease to ascertain cause and manner of death.
135
What is melena?
Blood in stool.
136
Define metaplasia.
Conversion of one kind of tissue into a form that is not normal for that tissue.
137
What does metastasis refer to?
Transfer of a disease from its primary site to a distant location.
138
What is microscopic pathology (histopathology)?
Study of microscopic changes that cells, tissues, and organs undergo as a result of disease.
139
What is moist (wet) gangrene?
Necrotic tissue resulting from inadequate venous drainage accompanied by the invasion of saprophytic bacteria.
140
What does morbidity rate indicate?
Number of cases per year of certain diseases in relation to the population.
141
Define mortality rate.
Number of deaths in a given time or place or proportion of deaths to a population.
142
What is necrosis?
Pathological death of cells, tissues, and organs while still a part of the living organism.
143
What is a neoplasm?
Abnormal, excessive, and uncontrolled multiplication of cells with the formation of a mass or new growth of tissue.
144
Define nosocomial.
Infection acquired in a healthcare setting.
145
What is an occupational disease?
A disease related to one’s working conditions.
146
What does osteomalacia refer to?
Abnormal softening of bones in adults.
147
Define osteomyelitis.
Inflammation of bone and bone marrow.
148
What is osteoporosis?
Loss of bone density.
149
What is a pandemic disease?
Widespread epidemic, possibly worldwide.
150
Define pathological anatomy.
Study of structural changes in the body caused by disease.
151
What is pathology?
The science that deals with the study of disease.
152
What does pathogenesis mean?
The origin and development of a disease.
153
What is petechia?
Antemortem, pinpoint, extravascular blood discoloration visible as purplish hemorrhages of the skin.
154
Define phocomelia.
Congenital condition in which the proximal portions of the limbs are poorly developed or absent.
155
What does physiological pathology study?
Study of functional changes in the body as a result of disease.
156
What is pigmentation?
Normal or pathological coloration of skin or tissues.
157
Define pneumoconiosis.
Infiltration of the lungs with various forms of dust.
158
What is pneumonia?
Inflammation of the lungs due to infection.
159
What does poliomyelitis refer to?
Inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord as a result of a viral infection.
160
Define polyp.
A growth or mass of tissue that protrudes from a mucous membrane.
161
What is prevalence?
Number of cases of disease present in a specified population at a given time.
162
Define prognosis.
Prediction of the outcome of disease.
163
What is prostatitis?
Inflammation of the prostate gland.
164
What does purpura mean?
Condition in which spontaneous bleeding occurs in the subcutaneous tissues, causing the appearance of purple patches on the skin.
165
What is a pustule?
A small elevation of the skin containing pus.
166
Define recurrent.
Reappearance of symptoms after a period of remission.
167
What does regeneration refer to?
Replacement of damaged cells with normal cells of the same type.
168
What is remission?
Cessation of the symptoms of disease.
169
Define repair.
Replacement of damaged tissue with fibrous connective tissue.
170
What is resolution?
Termination of the inflammatory response with the affected part returning to homeostasis.
171
What is rickets?
Disease of infants and young children caused by deficiency of vitamin D resulting in defective bone growth.
172
What does sarcoma refer to?
Malignancy of non-epithelial tissue.
173
What are signs in pathology?
Objective indications of the presence of disease.
174
What is special pathology?
Deals with the specific features of disease in relation to particular organs or organ systems.
175
Define spina bifida.
Congenital defect in which part of the vertebral column is absent or there is incomplete closure.
176
What does sporadic mean?
Disease that occurs in a random or isolated manner.
177
What is stenosis?
Abnormal constriction of a passageway or orifice.
178
What are symptoms in pathology?
Subjective indications of the presence of disease.
179
Define syndrome.
Set of signs and symptoms associated with a particular disease.
180
What is a teratoma?
A congenital tumor formed by various types of tissue.
181
What does thrombocytopenia mean?
An abnormal decrease in the number of platelets.
182
Define thrombosis.
Formation or presence of an attached blood clot.
183
What is an ulcer?
An open sore or lesion of skin or mucous membrane accompanied by sloughing of inflamed necrotic tissue.
184
What does uremia refer to?
A toxic condition caused by retention in the blood of waste products normally excreted in the urine.
185
What is valvular insufficiency (incompetence)?
Failure of a heart valve to close tightly, allowing for a backflow of blood.
186
Define vesicle.
Blister-like elevation of skin containing serous fluid.
187
What is moist gangrene?
Necrotic tissue resulting from inadequate venous drainage accompanied by the invasion of saprophytic bacteria
## Footnote
Moist gangrene can lead to severe tissue damage and requires immediate medical attention.
188
Define mold preventative.
Agent which prohibit the growth of mold
## Footnote
This is crucial in preserving bodies and preventing decomposition.
189
What does moribund mean?
In a dying state; in the agonal period.
190
What is mortuary putty used for?
Pliable compound to fix or fill.
191
What is a mouth former?
Feature-setting device placed in the mouth to provide shape and contour to the lips.
192
Describe multi-point injection.
Vascular injection from two or more sites.
193
What is a nasal tube aspirator?
Instrument used to aspirate the throat by means of the nostrils.
194
Define necrobiosis.
Antemortem, physiological death of the cells of the body followed by their replacement.
195
What is necrosis?
Pathological death of a tissue still a part of the living organism.
196
What is a needle injector?
Feature-setting device used for mouth closure designed to implant metal pins into bone.
197
What is nephritis?
Inflammation of the kidneys that can cause an increase in nitrogenous waste.
198
What are nitrogenous wastes?
Metabolic by-products such as urea and uric acid that contain nitrogen and tend to neutralize formaldehyde.
199
What is a non-cosmetic fluid?
Arterial fluid which does not contain active dyes and will not impart a color change upon the body tissues.
200
Define occupational exposure.
Reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of a worker's duties.
201
What is a one-point injection?
Injection and drainage from one location.
202
Define osmosis.
Passage of pure solvent from a solution of lesser concentration to one of greater solute concentration when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
203
What are packing forceps?
Embalming instrument used to fill the external orifices of the body with an absorbent material.
204
What does palpate mean?
To examine by touch.
205
What does parenteral refer to?
Introduced into the body by piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier.
206
What are petechia?
Antemortem, pinpoint, extravascular blood discoloration visible as purplish hemorrhages on the skin.
207
Define pharmaceutical agent.
Drug or medicine that changes the biochemistry of the blood.
208
What is pitting edema?
Condition in which interstitial spaces contain excessive amounts of fluid that the skin remains depressed after palpation.
209
What are plastic garments used for?
Used to contain leakage and manage odors.
210
What is a positioning device?
Equipment used to position the body throughout decedent care.
211
What does posterior mean in anatomical terms?
Denoting toward the back.
212
Define postmortem.
Period that begins after somatic death.
213
What is postmortem caloricity?
Rise in body temperature after death due to continued cellular metabolism.
214
What is a postmortem chemical change?
Change in the body's chemical composition that occurs after death.
215
What is postmortem stain?
Extravascular discoloration that occurs when heme seeps through the vessel walls into the body tissues.
216
Define potential pressure.
Pressure indicated by the injector gauge needle when the embalming machine is running and the rate of flow is closed.
217
What is a preparation room?
Area or facility wherein embalming, dressing, cosmetizing, or general decedent care is performed.
218
What is a preservative?
A chemical that inactivates saprophytic bacteria and attempts to arrest decomposition.
219
What is preservative powder?
Chemical in powder form typically used for surface embalming of the remains.
220
What is pressure filtration?
Passive transport system enabling the passage of arterial solution from the capillary to the tissue fluid.
221
What is primary dilution?
Strength of the arterial solution mixed in the embalming machine.
222
What is primary disinfection?
Disinfection carried out prior to the embalming process.
223
Define procurement.
The recovery of organs or tissues from a cadaver for transplantation.
224
What is protein?
Biochemical compound that is a polymer of many amino acids.
225
What is proteolysis?
Decomposition of proteins.
226
What is ptomaine?
Any one of a group of nitrogenous organic compounds formed by the action of putrefactive bacteria on proteins.
227
What is the pubic symphysis?
Fibrocartilage that joins the two pubic bones in the median plane.
228
Define purge.
Postmortem evacuation of any substance from an external orifice of the body as a result of pressure.
229
What is pus?
Liquid product of inflammation.
230
What is putrefaction?
Decomposition of proteins by the action of enzymes from anaerobic bacteria.
231
What is the rate of flow?
Speed at which solution is injected; measured in ounces per minute.
232
What is razor burn?
A darkened, air-dried area on the skin resulting from removal of the epidermis while shaving.
233
What is reaspiration?
Repeated aspiration of a cavity.
234
Define restoration.
Treatment of the deceased in the attempt to recreate natural form and color.
235
What is restricted cervical injection?
Method of injection wherein both carotid arteries are initially raised to control entry of arterial solution into the head.
236
What is rigor mortis?
Postmortem stiffening of the body muscles by natural body processes.
237
What is saccharolysis?
Decomposition of sugars.
238
Define sanitation.
Process to promote and establish conditions which minimize or eliminate biohazards.
239
What is saponification?
Conversion of fatty tissues of the body into a soapy waxy substance called adipocere or grave wax.
240
What are saprophytic bacteria?
Bacteria that derive their nutrition from dead organic matter.
241
What is a scalpel?
General embalming instrument used to make incisions and excisions.
242
What is a sealing agent?
Material used to provide a barrier or seal against leakage of fluid or blood.
243
What is secondary dilution?
Weakening of the strength of the arterial solution by vascular and interstitial fluids.
244
Define septicemia.
Condition characterized by the presence of bacteria in the blood.
245
What is a sequestering agent?
Chemical agent that isolates metal ions so they cannot adversely react with blood or water.
246
What is a sharps container?
OSHA-required, puncture-resistant, leak-proof receptacle for proper disposal of sharp objects.
247
What is shell embalming?
Vascular embalming in which only the skin and superficial portions of the body receive arterial solution.
248
Define solute.
A substance dissolved in a solvent to form a solution.
249
What is a solution?
A homogeneous mixture of one or more substances dissolved in a sufficient quantity of solvent.
250
What is a solvent?
A substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
251
What is somatic death?
Death of the organism as a whole.
252
What is a split injection?
Injection from one site and drainage from a separate site.
253
Define sterilization.
Process of completely removing or destroying all life forms and/or their products on or in a substance.
254
What does stillborn mean?
Dead at birth.
255
What does subcutaneous mean?
Situated or occurring beneath the skin.
256
Define superficial.
Anatomical term of position and direction denoting near the surface.
257
What does superior denote in anatomical terms?
Towards the head or elevated in place or position.
258
What is a supplemental fluid?
Fluid injected for purposes other than preservation and disinfection.
259
What is a surface compress?
A wet or dry cloth applied firmly to a body part.
260
What is surface embalming?
Direct contact of body tissues with embalming chemicals.
261
What is surface discoloration?
Discoloration due to the deposit of matter on the skin surface.
262
What is a surface pack?
Absorbent material or compress saturated with an embalming chemical and placed in direct contact with the tissue.
263
Define surfactant.
Chemical that reduces the molecular cohesion and surface tension of a liquid.
264
What are Tardieu spots?
Postmortem extravascular blood discoloration caused by the rupture of minute vessels.
265
What is terminal disinfection?
Disinfection carried out after the embalming process.
266
What is tissue gas?
Postmortem formation of gas associated with anaerobic gas forming bacilli.
267
What is topical disinfection?
Disinfection of the surface of the body or an object.
268
What does transverse mean in anatomical terms?
Lying at right angles to the long axis of the body.
269
What is a trocar?
Sharply-pointed aspirating instrument used in cavity embalming.
270
What is a trocar button?
Plastic, threaded screw-like device for sealing punctures.
271
What is a trocar guide?
An anatomical structure or a line visualized on the surface of the body used to locate internal structures.
272
What are universal precautions?
Approach to infection control treating all human blood and certain body fluids as if known to be infectious.
273
What is a vacuum breaker?
Apparatus that prevents the back-siphoning of contaminated liquids.
274
Define vehicle in the context of embalming.
Liquid that serves as a solvent for embalming fluids.
275
What does viscera refer to?
Internal organs enclosed within a cavity.
276
What is viscosity?
The thickness of a liquid.
277
What is a water conditioner?
Agent used to remove elements from the water supply.
278
What are work practice controls?
Procedures that reduce the likelihood of exposure to a hazard.
279
What is a recession?
A type of surface formed by the withdrawal of a part from its normal position.
280
Define rectangle in terms of facial shape.
A facial shape with a flat forehead, cheeks, and jaw that are all the same width, and the length is longer than it is wide.
281
What is reflection in the context of light?
The return of light waves from surfaces; the bending or folding back of a part upon itself.
282
What does restorative art involve?
The care of the deceased to recreate natural form and color.
283
What is a retrousse nose?
A nose which is turned up superiorly at its tip; a concave nasal profile.
284
What is the function of the risorius muscle?
The narrow superficial band of muscle which pulls the angle of the mouth laterally.
285
What are rods of the eye?
The long, rod-shaped sensory bodies of the retina of the eye responsive to light but not color.
286
Describe the Roman nasal profile.
The aquiline profile of the nose.
287
What is the root of the nose?
The apex (top) of the pyramidal mass of the nose which lies directly inferior to the forehead.
288
What characterizes a round (infantine) facial shape?
The vertical distance and the width between the cheekbones are equal, and the cheeks and chin are rounded.
289
What does ruddy refer to in terms of complexion?
Red complexion; having a healthy reddish color.
290
What is the sagittal anatomical plane?
The plane dividing the body into right and left sides.
291
What does sallow describe?
A yellowish, sickly color of the complexion.
292
Define saturation in visual terms.
A visual aspect indicating the vividness of the hue in the degree of difference from a gray of the same lightness.
293
What is the scapha?
Fossa between the inner and outer rims of the ear; the shallowest depression of the ear.
294
What is a sealer?
A quick-drying material which leaves a hard, thin transparent coat or layer through which moisture cannot pass.
295
What characterizes a second degree burn?
Those resulting in acute inflammation of the skin and blisters.
296
What is a secondary hue?
Equal mixture of two primary light colors that will produce pigmentary hues (orange, green, and purple).
297
What is the function of the septum?
Vertical cartilage dividing nasal cavity into two chambers, responsible for asymmetry of the nose.
298
What does severed mean?
To have been cut or broken apart; disjoined.
299
What is shade in color theory?
A hue into which various quantities of black are mixed; the darkened hue.
300
What is a shadow?
Surfaces which do not lie at right angles to the source of illumination or are obscured by other surfaces.
301
What does sheen refer to?
Shine; as of the reflection of natural oils of the skin.
302
What are the sides of the nose?
The lateral walls of the nose between the wings and the bridge.
303
What is a simple fracture?
Fractured bone which does not pierce the skin.
304
What is skin slip?
See Desquamation.
305
What is soft wax?
Wax that is softer and more pliable than modeling wax; less adhesive than lip wax.
306
What is a spatula used for?
A flat, blunt, knife-like instrument used for mixing cosmetics and modeling.
307
What does spectrum refer to in color?
Visible band; the progressive arrangement of colors (ROYGBIV) seen when a beam of white light is broken down.
308
What is a sponge in this context?
An elastic, porous mass of interlacing horny fibers which are permanently attached.
309
What is a squama?
The vertical surface of the temporal bone.
310
Describe a square facial shape.
A facial shape in which the vertical and horizontal measurements are equal, the hairline is straight, and the jaw is angled.
311
What does stain mean?
To discolor with foreign matter; an area so discolored.
312
What are stain removers?
Any substances or agents which will cause an external discoloration to be removed or lessened.
313
What is the sternocleidomastoid?
A muscle of the neck that is attached to the mastoid process of the temporal bone and by separate heads to the sternum and clavicle.
314
What is a stipple brush?
A small, rounded, stiff brush used to simulate pores on wax.
315
What characterizes a straight nasal profile?
A nasal profile in which the dorsum exhibits a straight line from the root to the tip.
316
What does subcutaneous mean?
Situated or occurring beneath the skin.
317
What is a sublingual suture?
Type of mouth closure that anchors inferior to the tongue.
318
Define submandibular.
Describing those portions which lie immediately inferior to the mandible.
319
What is the submental sulcus?
The junction of the base of the chin and the submandibular area, which may appear as a furrow.
320
What is the subtractive method?
Method of diminishing the wave lengths of light by superimposing color transparencies.
321
What is a sulcus?
A furrow, wrinkle, or groove.
322
What are superciliary arches?
The inferior part of the forehead just superior to the median ends of the eyebrows.
323
What does supercilia refer to?
Eyebrows.
324
What does superficial mean?
Closer to the surface.
325
Define superior in anatomical terms.
More elevated in place or position; higher; upper.
326
What is the superior palpebral sulcus?
The furrow of the superior border of the upper eyelid.
327
What is the supraorbital area?
Region between the supercilium and the superior palpebrae.
328
What are supraorbital margins?
The superior rim of the eye sockets.
329
What is surgical reduction?
Restoration to a normal position or level through surgical excision.
330
What is suspension in terms of materials?
A substance in which particles of ground pigments are mixed with a fluid but are undissolved.
331
What is a suture?
Act of sewing; also the completed stitch.
332
What does swarthy describe?
Dark-colored complexion.
333
What is symmetry?
Correspondence in size, shape, and relative position of parts that are on opposite sides of the face.
334
What does taper refer to?
A form which receded away from a given point.
335
What are temporal bones?
Inferior portion of the sides and base of the cranium.
336
What is the temporal cavity?
The concave surface of the head overlying the temporal bone.
337
What is the temporalis muscle responsible for?
Muscles of mastication which help to close the mandible.
338
Define tertiary hue.
The hue which results from the mixture of two secondary pigmentary hues.
339
What is a texturizing brush?
A brush with a relatively large tuft of good quality, fine bristles used to blend and stipple cosmetics.
340
What characterizes a third degree burn?
Destruction of cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues; seared or charred tissue.
341
What is a three quarter view in photography?
A view which reveals the fullness of the cheeks.
342
What is a tint?
A hue into which various quantities of white are mixed.
343
What does tip refer to in anatomy?
The extremity of anything which tapers.
344
What is a tissue builder?
See feature builder.
345
What is tone in color theory?
A hue mixed with either a small quantity of gray or the complement of the hue.
346
What is a toupee?
A small wig or patch of false hair covering a bald spot.
347
What is the tragus?
Elevation protecting the ear passage.
348
What does translucent mean?
Transmitting light but causing sufficient diffusion to eliminate perception of distinct images.
349
What does transparent mean?
Having the property of transmitting rays of light through its substance.
350
What are transverse frontal sulci?
Furrows which cross the forehead.
351
What is trauma?
A physical injury or wound caused by external force or violence.
352
What characterizes a triangle facial shape?
A facial shape in which the forehead is pointed, the sides widen inferiorly, and the jaw is the widest point.
353
What is a triangular fossa?
Depression between the crura of the ear.
354
What is a tumor?
A spontaneous new growth of tissue forming an abnormal mass.
355
What is an undercut in surgical terms?
The angled cut of the borders of an excision.
356
What are undertones in skin color?
Underlying colors in the skin.
357
What does value refer to in color?
The lightness or darkness of a hue.
358
What is a vehicle in cosmetic application?
A material combined with pigments so they may be applied more easily.
359
What does vertical mean in anatomy?
Perpendicular to the plane of the horizon.
360
What is a vertical-concave profile?
One in which the forehead and the eyebrows project equally to a vertical line and the chin protrudes more than the upper lip.
361
What is a vertical-convex profile?
One in which the forehead and the eyebrows project equally to a vertical line and the chin recedes from the projection of the upper lip.
362
What is a vertical (balanced) profile?
One in which the forehead, upper lip, and chin project equally to an imaginary vertical line.
363
What is the vomer?
Bone of the nasal cavity situated between the nasal passages on the median plane.
364
What are warm color areas?
Areas of the skin surface which, during life, are naturally reddened.
365
What is a warm hue?
A color which makes an object appear closer and larger.
366
What is wax in restorative applications?
A restorative modeling or surfacing material composed of beeswax, spermaceti, paraffin, starch, and a coloring pigment.
367
What is a weather line?
The line of color change at the junction of the wet and dry portions of each mucous membrane.
368
What is white light?
A ray of light which contains all the hues of the visible spectrum.
369
What does width refer to?
The dimension of an object measured across from side to side.
370
What are the wings of the nose?
Lateral lobes of the nose.
371
What is wire bridging?
The length of wire employed to connect two structures which are undamaged.
372
What is a worm suture?
A method of sewing an incision along the edges without entering the opening.
373
What is the zygomatic arch?
The processes on the temporal and zygomatic bones; determines the widest part of the face.
374
What is zygomatic arch depression?
One of the lesser concavities of the face located on the lateral portion of the cheek.
375
What are zygomatic bones?
Bones of the cheeks.
376
What is the zygomaticofrontal process?
The lateral rim of the eye socket formed by a process of the frontal bone and a process of the zygomatic bone.
377
What is the function of the zygomaticus major muscle?
Muscles of the face which draw the superior lip posteriorly and superiorly.
378
What is the function of the zygomaticus minor muscle?
Muscles of the face which draw the superior lip superiorly and anteriorly.
379
What is an accessory?
An accessory is a lesser structure that resembles a similar organ in structure and function, such as the accessory pancreatic duct.
380
What is albumin?
Albumin is a protein found in blood plasma.
381
What is the alimentary canal?
The alimentary canal is the digestive system tube from the mouth to the anus, including the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and intestines.
382
What is anatomy?
Anatomy is the branch of science dealing with the study of the structure of the body.
383
What are anastomoses?
Anastomoses are connections between vessels; the union of two vessels going to the same body part.
384
What does anterior (ventral) refer to?
Anterior (ventral) refers to before or in front of; it indicates the front side of the body or structure.
385
What is the appendicular skeleton?
The appendicular skeleton consists of the 126 bones that make up the pectoral girdle, upper extremities, pelvic girdle, and lower extremities.
386
What is an articulation?
An articulation is the connection between two or more bones; a joint.
387
What is the axial skeleton?
The axial skeleton is composed of the 80 bones of the skull, vertebrae, thorax, and hyoid bone; it is the central structure to which the appendicular skeleton is attached.
388
What is bilateral symmetry?
Bilateral symmetry refers to the symmetry of paired organs or to an organism whose right and left halves are similar images of each other.
389
What does biliary pertain to?
Biliary pertains to bile.
390
What is the biliary tract?
The biliary tract includes the organs (liver and gall bladder) and ducts that participate in the secretion, storage, and delivery of bile to the duodenum.
391
What is a bladder?
A bladder is a membranous sac or receptacle for a secretion or excretion.
392
What does buccal relate to?
Buccal relates to the cheek or mouth.
393
What is cardiology?
Cardiology is the study of the heart.
394
What is the carotid canal?
The carotid canal is the passageway in the temporal bone through which the internal carotid artery passes.
395
What does central refer to?
Central refers to something situated at or pertaining to a center or central point.
396
What is the colon?
The colon is the part of the large intestine beginning with the ascending colon and ending with the sigmoid colon.
397
What are conchae?
Conchae are ridges in the walls of the nasal cavity.
398
What is a condyle?
A condyle is a curved protuberance at the end of a bone forming part of an articulation.
399
What is curvature?
Curvature refers to a normal or abnormal bending away; an arc.
400
What does cystic pertain to?
Cystic pertains to a sac-like structure.
401
What does deep mean in anatomy?
Deep means below the surface, or toward the central part of a structure.
402
What is detoxification?
Detoxification is the reduction of the harmful properties of a poisonous substance.
403
What does distal mean?
Distal means farther away from the point of attachment or from the trunk; opposite of proximal.
404
What does dorsal refer to?
Dorsal refers to posterior; toward the back; opposite of anterior.
405
What is an eminence?
An eminence is a prominence or projection.
406
What does endocrine mean?
Endocrine pertains to a ductless gland that secretes directly into the bloodstream.
407
What does exocrine mean?
Exocrine pertains to a gland that delivers its secretion through a duct.
408
What does external refer to?
External pertains to the exterior; the opposite of internal.
409
What is the external auditory meatus?
The external auditory meatus is the lateral, outer opening of the ear or auditory canal.
410
What is a fontanel?
A fontanel is a temporarily unossified area on the surface of the cranium of an infant.
411
What is a fossa?
A fossa is a shallow depression.
412
What is a gland?
A gland is a secretory organ or structure that can manufacture a secretion.
413
What is a heterocrine gland?
A heterocrine gland has both endocrine and exocrine functions.
414
What is histology?
Histology is the study of tissues.
415
What are nares?
Nares are openings of the nose; nostrils.
416
What is the nasal septum?
The nasal septum is the partition that divides the nasal cavities.
417
What is neurology?
Neurology is the study of the nervous system.
418
What does oral pertain to?
Oral pertains to the mouth.
419
What is an orifice?
An orifice is the entrance or outlet of any anatomical structure; an opening.
420
What are ossicles?
Ossicles are any small bones.
421
What does parietal refer to?
Parietal pertains to, or forms, the wall of a cavity.
422
What does pectoral mean?
Pectoral pertains to the front of the chest.
423
What does peripheral refer to?
Peripheral refers to something located at, or pertaining to, the outer surface of the body or body part; located away from the center.
424
What does perpendicular mean?
Perpendicular means at right angles to another surface.
425
What is pH (potential of hydrogen)?
pH is a number signifying the acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
426
What is a portal?
A portal is an entrance to an organ.
427
What does posterior (dorsal) refer to?
Posterior (dorsal) refers to behind or in back of; it indicates the back side of the body or structure; opposite of anterior.
428
What is a protuberance?
A protuberance is an anatomic landmark that appears as a blunt projection.
429
What does proximal mean?
Proximal means nearest to the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk of the body; opposite of distal.
430
What is the pubic symphysis?
The pubic symphysis is the slightly movable junction of the anterior portion of the os coxae.
431
What is the pyloric sphincter?
The pyloric sphincter is the smooth muscle around the exit of the stomach into the duodenum.
432
What does respiratory refer to?
Respiratory refers to the organ system that carries out gas exchange.
433
What does salivary pertain to?
Salivary pertains to, or the formation of saliva.
434
What is a salivary gland?
A salivary gland is one of the three pairs of glands that secretes saliva into the mouth.
435
What is a septum?
A septum is a wall dividing two cavities.
436
What is serum?
Serum is blood plasma, excluding the clotting factors; the watery, amber-colored portion of the blood after coagulation occurs.
437
What is a sesamoid bone?
A sesamoid bone is shaped like a sesame seed; a bone embedded in a tendon.
438
What is a sinus?
A sinus is a paranasal cavity within a bone; a dilated channel for venous blood.
439
What is a sphincter?
A sphincter is a circular muscle constricting an orifice.
440
What does superficial mean?
Superficial pertains to or is situated near the surface of the body or body part.
441
What does superior refer to?
Superior means toward the top of the head; a structure situated above another structure; opposite of inferior.
442
What does suprarenal (adrenal) mean?
Suprarenal (adrenal) refers to something located on the superior portion of the kidney.
443
What does sutural relate to?
Sutural relates to the line of union in an immovable articulation, such as between the cranial bones.
444
What is a symphysis?
A symphysis is a joint in which the bones are connected by fibrocartilage.
445
What is a system in anatomy?
A system is a group of organs arranged for the performance of a specific function.
446
What is a tunic?
A tunic is a covering or layer.
447
What does urinary pertain to?
Urinary pertains to the secretion or storage of urine.
448
What is the urinary system?
The urinary system is composed of the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra, which function to filter wastes from the blood stream.
449
What is a valve?
A valve is any one of various membranous structures in a hollow organ or passage that temporarily closes to permit the flow of fluid in one direction only.
450
What does vascular mean?
Vascular pertains to or is composed of vessels.
451
What is the vascular system?
The vascular system includes the blood vessels, such as arteries, capillaries, and veins, and lymphatics.
452
What does ventral refer to?
Ventral refers to something located toward the front of the body; anterior.
453
What is the vermiform appendix?
The vermiform appendix is a narrow, worm-shaped tube connected to the cecum.
454
What does visceral mean?
Visceral pertains to the internal organs contained within a cavity.
455
What is viscosity?
Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a liquid.
456
What does zygomatic refer to?
Zygomatic pertains to the cheek bone.
457
What are accessory chemicals?
Any chemical used in the preparation of human remains that is not injected into the arterial system or cavities.
458
What are acids?
Substances that yield hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution.
459
What is adipocere (gravewax)?
A wax-like material produced by saponification of body fat.
460
What are alcohols?
An organic compound containing one or more hydroxyl (-OH) groups.
461
What is an aldehyde?
An organic compound containing one or more –CHO groups.
462
What are amides?
Derivatives of carboxylic acids in which a hydroxyl group is substituted with an amine or ammonia having the general formula of R-CONH-R’.
463
What are amines?
An organic compound containing nitrogen with the general formula of R-NH2.
464
What is an amino acid?
The building blocks of proteins that contain an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl (-COOH) group.
465
What is amphoterism?
Any compound that can act as both an acid and a base in aqueous solution.
466
What are anticoagulants?
Chemical agents that retard the tendency of the blood to become more viscous.
467
What is arterial fluid?
Concentrated preservative chemicals used primarily for arterial embalming.
468
What is an arterial solution?
Mixture of arterial fluid and water used for arterial injection with the possible inclusion of supplemental fluids.
469
What is an atom?
The smallest particle of an element that has all the properties of the element.
470
What is autolysis?
Self-digestion or self-destruction of the body by enzymes.
471
What are bases?
Substances that yield hydroxide ions in an aqueous solution.
472
What is biochemistry?
That branch of chemistry dealing with compounds produced by living organisms.
473
What is boiling?
Conversion of a liquid into the vapor state through the action of heat.
474
What is a bond?
An attractive force that holds together the atoms, ions or groups of atoms in a molecule or crystal.
475
What are buffers?
Substances capable of maintaining a constant pH by neutralizing both acids and bases.
476
What are carbohydrates?
A compound of hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen that is an aldehyde or ketone derivative of polyhydroxyl alcohol.
477
What is a carboxylic acid?
An organic compound that contains a carboxyl group (C(=O)OH).
478
What is cavity fluid?
Concentrated preservative chemicals used in cavity embalming.
479
What is a chemical change?
A change that results in the formation of a new chemical substance(s).
480
What are chemical properties?
Characteristics of a substance observed during or after a chemical reaction.
481
What is chemistry?
The study of matter and the changes it undergoes.
482
What is coagulation?
The process of converting soluble protein to insoluble protein by physical or chemical means.
483
What is a colloid?
A solute that can pass through filters but not membranes.
484
What is combustion?
Rapid oxidation that produces heat and light.
485
What is a compound?
A substance consisting of two or more elements combined chemically in definite proportions by mass.
486
What is a concentrated solution?
A solution containing a relatively large amount of solute.
487
What is concentration?
The ratio of a solute to the solution or solvent.
488
What is condensation?
A change of state of matter from a gas to a liquid.
489
What is covalent?
A chemical bond formed between two atoms by the sharing of electrons.
490
What is a crystalloid?
A solute that can pass through a membrane.
491
What is decay?
The gradual decomposition of dead organic matter by the enzymes of aerobic bacteria.
492
What is dehydration?
The removal of water from a substance.
493
What is denaturation?
The disruption and breakdown of a protein by heat or chemicals.
494
What is desiccation?
A complete or nearly complete deprivation of moisture.
495
What is a dialdehyde?
An organic compound containing two aldehyde (-CHO) groups.
496
What is diffusion?
The movement of molecules or other particles in solution from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration until uniform concentration is reached.
497
What is a dilute solution?
A solution containing relatively small amount of solute.
498
What is a disinfectant?
An agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate/surfaces objects to kill most disease-causing microbial agents, excluding bacterial spores.
499
What is a dye?
Natural or synthetic compounds that are used to impart color to another material.
500
What are elements?
Simple substances which cannot be decomposed by ordinary chemical means.
501
What is embalming chemistry?
The study of those types of matter and changes in matter related to the disinfection, preservation and restoration of human remains.
502
What is an enzyme?
A protein that acts as a biological catalyst.
503
What is an ester?
An organic compound with the general formula RCOOR’.
504
What are fats?
A combination of saturated fatty acids and glycerol that is a semisolid at room temperature.
505
What is fermentation?
The microbial decomposition of carbohydrates under anaerobic conditions.
506
What is formalin?
Formaldehyde gas dissolved in water at 37% by weight and 40% by volume.
507
What is a formula?
A symbolic expression of the chemical composition or constitution of a substance.
508
What is freezing?
A change of state of matter from a liquid to a solid by the loss of heat.
509
What are gases?
A state of matter that has no definite shape or volume.
510
What is hardness of water?
The condition of water that results from dissolved minerals and metallic ions.
511
What is a humectant?
Chemicals that increase the capability of tissues to retain moisture.
512
What is a hydrate?
A compound in which there is a union between water and certain substances when they crystallize.
513
What is hydrolysis?
A chemical reaction in which a substance is broken down or dissociated by water.
514
What is a hydrogen bond?
A non-chemical bond that creates surface tension.
515
What is a hypertonic solution?
A solution having a greater concentration of dissolved solute than the solution to which it is compared.
516
What is a hypotonic solution?
A solution having a lesser concentration of dissolved solute than the solution to which it is compared.
517
What is imbibition?
The swelling and softening of tissues and organs as a result of absorbing moisture from adjacent sources.
518
What is an index?
The strength of embalming fluids indicated by the number of grams of pure formaldehyde gas dissolved in 100 ml of solution.
519
What is inorganic chemistry?
That branch of chemistry that studies the properties and reactions of elements, excluding organic or certain carbon-containing compounds.
520
What is an ion?
An atom or group of atoms with a positive or negative electrical charge.
521
What is ionic?
A chemical bond formed between oppositely charged atoms.
522
What is an isotonic solution?
A solution having an equal concentration of dissolved solute as the solution to which it is compared.
523
What is a ketone?
A class of organic compounds with the general formula R(CO)R’ formed by the oxidation of a secondary alcohol.
524
What is a liquid?
A state of matter having a definite volume but no definite shape.
525
What is matter?
Anything that has mass and occupies space.
526
What is melting?
A change of state of matter from a solid to a liquid by the addition of heat.
527
What is a metal?
An element marked by luster, malleability, ductility, and conductivity of electricity and heat.
528
What is a mixture?
A combination of two or more substances not chemically united and that exist in no fixed proportion to each other.
529
What is the minimum lethal dose (MLD)?
The smallest dose of a poison that produces death.
530
What is a modifying agent?
Chemicals incorporated into commercial preservative fluids to meet the varying demands of embalming procedures.
531
What is a molecule?
A group of two or more atoms joined by chemical bonds.
532
What is neutralization?
The reaction of an acid and a base to produce salt and water.
533
What is a nonmetal?
Any element that is generally dull in appearance, has a low density, has a low melting point and is not a good conductor of heat or electricity.
534
What are oils?
A combination of unsaturated fatty acids and glycerol that is a liquid at room temperature.
535
What is organic chemistry?
That branch of chemistry that deals with certain carbon-containing compounds.
536
What is osmosis?
The passage of a solvent from an area of lesser concentration to an area of greater concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
537
What is an oxide?
A compound consisting of oxygen combined with only one other element.
538
What are parts per million (ppm)?
A method of expressing low concentrations; 1 ppm is equivalent to 1 milligram per liter.
539
What is a peptide bond?
A bond formed from a dehydration reaction between the amino group on one amino acid with the carboxyl group on another amino acid.
540
What is the periodic table?
A tabular arrangement of the elements, ordered by their atomic number, electron configurations, and recurring chemical properties.
541
What is pH?
The measure of hydrogen ion concentration of a solution.
542
What is a physical change?
A change in the form or state of matter without any change in chemical composition.
543
What are physical properties?
Characteristics of a substance that are observed or measured without a change in chemical composition.
544
What is a poison?
A substance capable of causing illness or death to an organism.
545
What is polymerization?
A chemical reaction in which two or more molecules combine to form larger molecules that contain repeating structural units.
546
What is pre-injection/capillary wash?
The introduction of a non-preservative solution to prepare the vascular system before the injection of the preservative solution.
547
What is pre-injection fluid?
Fluids designed to clear the vascular system of blood and enable the arterial solution to distribute more effectively.
548
What is a preservative?
Substances used to inhibit protein decomposition and inactivate enzymes.
549
What is preservative demand?
The amount of preservative necessary to properly embalm human remains.
550
What is a protein?
A biological component that is a polymer of many amino acids.
551
What is a perfuming agent (masking agent)?
Chemicals having the capability of altering an unpleasant odor.
552
What is putrefaction?
The decomposition of proteins by the enzymatic activity of anaerobic bacteria.
553
What is a quaternary ammonium compound?
Surface disinfectants that are generally used for disinfection of skin, oral and nasal cavities, as well as instruments.
554
What is salt?
Any group of substances that result from the reaction between acids and bases other than water.
555
What is saponification?
The hydrolysis of a fat and a strong base to produce glycerol and the salt of a fatty acid.
556
What is a saturated solution?
A solution containing the maximum amount of solute a solvent is able to hold at a certain temperature and pressure.
557
What is a solid?
A state of matter having a definite shape and volume.
558
What is solubility?
The measure of how well a solute mixes with a solvent.
559
What is a solute?
A substance dissolved in a solvent to form a solution.
560
What is a solution?
A homogeneous mixture of one or more solutes dissolved in a sufficient quantity of solvent.
561
What is a solvent?
A substance that dissolves a solute in a solution.
562
What are states of matter?
A physical property of matter (solid, liquid, or gas).
563
What is sublimation?
A physical change of state during which a substance changes directly from a solid to a gas.
564
What is a supplemental fluid?
Fluids injected for purposes other than preservation and disinfection that will enhance the actions of the arterial solution.
565
What is a substrate?
The material upon which an enzyme acts.
566
What is surface tension?
The molecular cohesion at the surface of a liquid forming a membrane-like layer.
567
What is a surfactant?
Chemicals that will reduce the molecular cohesion of a liquid and thereby enable it to flow through smaller openings.
568
What is a suspension?
A solute that will not pass through filters or membranes.
569
What is thanatochemistry?
The study of those physical and chemical changes in the human body that are caused by the process of death.
570
What is a thiol (mercaptan)?
An organic compound containing the group -SH.
571
What is a toxin?
A poisonous substance that is organic in nature.
572
What is an unsaturated solution?
A solution containing less than the maximum amount of solute a solvent is able to hold at a certain temperature and pressure.
573
What is urotropin?
The neutralization product of formaldehyde and ammonia.
574
What is a vehicle?
Liquids that serve as solvents for the components of embalming fluids and solutions.
575
What is viscosity?
The measure of the resistance to flow of a liquid.
576
What is wax?
A type of lipid formed from the combination of unsaturated and/or saturated fatty acids and high molecular weight alcohols.
577
What is the typical setting for an Adventist funeral service?
Held at either the church or the funeral home with the deceased present
## Footnote
Variations are allowed according to family preferences. Adventists may choose cremation.
578
What is the role of the funeral director in Amish funerals?
To assist with embalming and dressing the body
## Footnote
The family may wash the body before its removal, and the funeral director will dress the body in long underwear.
579
How are coffins typically constructed for Amish funerals?
Six-sided with two pieces on hinges that fold down to reveal the body from the chest up
## Footnote
The family or funeral director may place the lining in the coffin, which is made by the family.
580
What attire is used for dressing the deceased in Amish funerals?
White clothing, specific to gender:
* Men: white pants, vest, and shirt
* Women: white dress, cape, and apron
## Footnote
The white cape and apron may be the same worn on their wedding day.
581
How is the death notification communicated in Amish communities?
By word-of-mouth and an obituary in the local newspaper
## Footnote
Friends and neighbors view the body at the home prior to the funeral service.
582
What language is often used during Amish funeral sermons?
A dialect of German
## Footnote
The custom is not to eulogize the deceased but to praise God.
583
What does the grave marker in Amish cemeteries typically include?
Name, birth date, death date, and age in years, months, and days
## Footnote
Gravestones are fairly uniform, avoiding extravagant displays of wealth.
584
What is the preferred location for Anglican funeral services?
In a church building
## Footnote
The family consults with the clergyperson about the final decision for the service location.
585
What is the protocol regarding the casket at an Anglican funeral service?
The casket should be closed before the service begins
## Footnote
A funeral pall may be used to cover the casket.
586
What is the typical flower policy at Anglican funeral services?
A few flowers are permissible, but their number and location are at the discretion of the clergyperson
## Footnote
Some churches may restrict flowers to those used at the altar.
587
What is the significance of the committal in Anglican funerals?
It is a committal to a final resting place
## Footnote
The clergyperson conducts the committal at the graveside.
588
What is the Baha'i stance on cremation?
Cremation is forbidden
## Footnote
Bodies must be buried within one hour's journey from the place of death, with exceptions for contagious diseases.
589
What is recited at Baha'i funeral services?
The 'Prayer for the Dead' revealed by Baha'u'llah
## Footnote
This prayer is said before burial, with specific phrases for men or women.
590
What symbols are appropriate for a Baha'i grave marker?
A nine-pointed star or the word 'Baha'i'
## Footnote
Quotations from Baha'i sacred scripture may also be used.
591
What is the traditional practice for Buddhists regarding burial and cremation?
Cremation is traditional, but burial is also accepted
## Footnote
Cremation is generally followed by interment in urn spaces or columbaria.
592
What is the custom for placing flowers during a Buddhist interment service?
Family members place a flower on top of the urn or casket
## Footnote
The casket is generally not lowered until after the family has left the area.
593
What are the funeral customs for Calvinists?
No specific funeral or burial rites are established
## Footnote
Families consult their clergyperson to decide on the procedure.
594
What format do Coptic funerals follow?
The same format as the Eastern Orthodox Church
## Footnote
Specific practices may vary according to local customs.
595
What is the traditional practice for the Church of Christ regarding funerals?
Basic Protestant funeral practices with variations for family preference
## Footnote
The Church of Christ is one of the 'Seven Sisters' of mainstream Protestantism.
596
What is the cremation practice in Confucianism?
Cremation is traditional, but burial is accepted
## Footnote
Similar practices regarding interment as in Buddhism.
597
What is the procedure for funeral directors when dealing with Eastern Orthodox members?
No 'last rites' are administered; the funeral director does not need to contact the priest unless requested
## Footnote
The family has autonomy over the funeral arrangements.
598
What is administered to members of the Orthodox Church when death is imminent?
Prayers
## Footnote
The funeral director does not need to contact the priest unless requested by the family.
599
What are the restrictions concerning the removal of remains by the Orthodox Church?
There are no restrictions
## Footnote
Removal may be subject to civil law if further investigation is required.
600
Who determines the method of preparation for the body of an Orthodox Church member?
The family
## Footnote
Embalming is usually chosen for traditional funerals.
601
What is the typical attire for the deceased in Orthodox funerals in the United States?
Own clothing or clothing purchased by the family
## Footnote
In contrast, the European custom is to shroud the body.
602
What begins the rites of a member of the Orthodox Church?
The Trisagion
## Footnote
The first part is usually held the evening before the funeral service.
603
What is typically placed at each end of the casket during the Trisagion?
Candles
## Footnote
A clear cross and an icon are also part of the arrangement.
604
How long does the Trisagion service usually last?
Five to ten minutes
605
How is the casket positioned in the church during the funeral service?
Feet first
## Footnote
The casket is placed in the Solea nearest the altar.
606
What is the booklet used during the Orthodox funeral service?
Parastas or Great Panacida
607
What happens during the Ceremony of the Last Kissing?
Attendees kiss the Icon before passing the casket
## Footnote
The Icon is moved from the foot to the head end of the casket.
608
What is generally prohibited in Orthodox funerals?
Cremation
609
What is the typical mode of disposition for married individuals in Hinduism?
Cremation
610
Who presides at the cremation in Hindu custom?
The eldest son
611
What is the immediate response of a Muslim upon hearing of a death?
'To God we belong and to Him is our return.'
612
What is the time frame for burial in Islam?
Within 24 hours of death
613
What is the obligation of every Muslim regarding the burial of a deceased?
To ensure it is done with all religious requirements
614
What is the customary practice for filling a grave in Islam?
Each person present should fill the grave with at least three handfuls of earth
615
What is the traditional mourning period for female relatives in Islam following a funeral?
Visiting the grave every Friday for 40 days
616
What is the typical structure of a Jehovah's Witness funeral service?
A prayer followed by a short scripture talk and a closing prayer
617
What is forbidden by Jewish law regarding the disposition of the body?
Cremation
618
What is the rite of Keriah in Jewish mourning practices?
Making a slight tear in clothing as a sign of mourning
619
What is the waiting period for a Jewish funeral?
Usually within 24 hours of death
620
What is the Tachrichin in Jewish funerals?
A simple white shroud
621
What is the significance of the Kaddish prayer in Jewish mourning?
A prayer in honor of the dead that praises God
622
What is the memorial stone called that is set up in memory of the deceased after the first year in Judaism?
Matzevah
623
What is the typical duration of Lutheran graveside services?
About 20 minutes
624
What is the typical approach to funerals in the Methodist tradition?
Typical Protestant funeral with no special restrictions
625
What is the nickname commonly associated with the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints?
Mormons
626
What is required for clothing for a man who has been through the temple in the LDS church?
White undergarments, socks, shirt, trousers, tie, and robe
627
What is the key principle regarding the use of religious symbols in LDS funerals?
Simplicity is key; items like crosses and candles are not permitted
628
What is the preferred method of disposition in the LDS church?
Earth burial is customary, but other methods are permitted
629
What does the Church of the Nazarene emphasize in their funeral services?
Comfort for the living and reflection on their own needs
630
What is the primary purpose of funeral services in the Church of the Nazarene?
To comfort the living and help them think of their own soul needs
## Footnote
Services typically include hymns and a sermon, lasting about half an hour.
631
What is the belief of Pentecostalism regarding the afterlife?
All persons have an eternal soul that will live forever in either heaven or hell
## Footnote
Their doctrine emphasizes being 'born again' to attain eternal life.
632
How is death viewed in Pentecostalism?
As sealing one's eternal fate, making prayer for the dead pointless.
633
What typically occurs before a Pentecostal funeral?
The deceased is waked for two or three days.
634
Where are Pentecostal funerals usually held?
Preferably at the church rather than the funeral home.
635
What is the Pentecostal Assembly's 'living fund' used for?
To finance special mission projects in memory of the deceased.
636
What is the central purpose of funerals in Presbyterianism?
To give glory to God and celebrate the eternal love of Jesus Christ.
637
What is the recommended practice regarding cremation and embalming in Presbyterianism?
There are no restrictions; families are encouraged to avoid extravagance.
638
What is a typical structure of a Presbyterian funeral service?
Includes hymns, scripture, meditation or a short sermon, and prayers.
639
How do Quaker funeral services differ from traditional ones?
They are characterized by silence and allow for spontaneous speaking.
640
What indicates the conclusion of a Quaker meeting?
Two elders shaking hands.
641
What is the ecclesiastical burial process in Roman Catholicism?
Transfer of the body to the Church, celebration of funeral services, and interment in a consecrated cemetery.
642
What does the Roman Catholic Church recommend regarding cremation?
The Church recommends burial but does not forbid cremation unless chosen for reasons contrary to Christian teaching.
643
What is the significance of the Mass of Christian Burial in Roman Catholic funerals?
It provides spiritual nourishment and places the body at the service of the soul.
644
What is the typical structure of Seventh-Day Adventist funerals?
Includes sacred music, prayer, scripture reading, sermonette, and benediction.
645
What options do Unitarians typically have regarding burial rites?
They may choose simple and inexpensive rites or recognize their original religious tradition.
646
What is the traditional practice regarding cremation in Zen Buddhism?
Cremation is traditional, followed by interment in cremorial units or columbaria.
647
What unique burial practice is followed by Zoroastrians?
They leave their dead in Towers of Silence for vultures, as earth, fire, and water are considered sacred.
648
How do fraternal organizations typically participate in funerals?
They may hold a ceremony separately or in conjunction with the religious funeral service.
649
What is the role of the funeral director regarding fraternal organization ceremonies?
To coordinate participation of the fraternal organizations in the funeral service.
650
What is the historical background of the Fraternal Order of Eagles?
Founded in 1898 by theater owners, originally a social club.
651
What is the main focus of the Order of the Eastern Star?
Based on teachings from the Bible, open to both men and women.
652
What is the purpose of the National Grange?
To promote the economic and political wellbeing of the community and agriculture.
653
What is the Buffalo organization?
A major American fraternal, charitable, and service order with more than a million members in the U.S. and former territories.
654
When was the National Grange of the Order of Patrons of Husbandry founded?
1867
655
What is the primary goal of the Grange?
To promote the economic and political wellbeing of the community and agriculture.
656
What major accomplishments are credited to Grange advocacy?
* Passage of the Granger Law
* Establishment of rural free mail delivery
657
How many communities did the Grange have organization in as of 2005?
3,600 communities in 37 states
658
Who commissioned Oliver Kelley to improve Southern agricultural conditions?
President Andrew Johnson
659
What was the first Grange established?
Potomac Grange #1 in Washington, D.C.
660
When was the Knights of Pythias founded?
19 February 1864
661
What ideals are central to the Knights of Pythias?
* Loyalty
* Honor
* Friendship
662
How many lodges did the Knights of Pythias have in 2003?
Over two thousand lodges
663
What does the term Maccabees refer to?
A Jewish rebel army that took control of Judea and founded the Hasmonean dynasty.
664
What is Freemasonry?
A fraternal organization with origins in the late 16th to early 17th century.
665
How many members does Freemasonry have worldwide?
Approximately six million
666
What is the administrative structure of Freemasonry?
Independent Grand Lodges govern their own jurisdictions.
667
What is the Modern Woodmen of America?
The third-largest fraternal benefit society based on assets.
668
What type of products does the Modern Woodmen of America sell?
* Life insurance
* Annuity
* Investment products
669
When was the Independent Order of Odd Fellows founded?
April 26, 1819
670
What is the Rebekah Degree?
The first national fraternity degree to include both men and women.
671
What is the purpose of the International Association of Rebekah Assemblies?
A service-oriented organization and branch of the IOOF.
672
What is the Royal Neighbors organization known for?
Offering affordable life insurance primarily to women.
673
What is Woodmen of the World?
A fraternal benefit society based in Omaha, Nebraska.
674
Who founded Woodmen of the World?
Joseph Cullen Root
675
What is one of the nature of services provided by fraternal organizations?
Conduct entire service or participate in a portion in conjunction with religious ceremony.
676
What is required for family requests for services from a fraternal organization?
Family should make a request for the organization to provide a service.
677
True or False: Military funerals are similar to standard funerals.
True
678
What document is needed to determine eligibility for military funeral services?
DD214 (discharge)
679
What is the composition of a complete military funeral detail?
* Chaplain - 1
* Bugler - 1
* Color bearers - 2
* Color Guard - 2
* Casketbearers (Pallbearers) - 6
* Firing squad - 7
* Commander of firing squad - 1
* Detail commander - 1
680
What is the lineup for a military funeral?
* Band
* Escort
* Color Guard
* Honorary Pallbearers (if any)
* Chaplain
* Casket & Casketbearers
* Family
* Friends & Neighbors
681
What is the role of the funeral director in military funerals?
Must contact the specific branch of service to coordinate details at the request of the family.
682
What is anatomy?
The study of structure of the human body.
683
What is physiology?
The study of function of the human body.
684
What is gross anatomy?
The study of the human body with the naked eye.
685
What is microscopic anatomy also known as?
Histology.
686
What does cytology study?
The cell.
687
What is systemic anatomy?
Study of specific systems of the body such as the nervous or respiratory system.
688
What does regional anatomy focus on?
Study of a specific region of the body such as the head or chest.
689
What is pathological anatomy?
The study of changes in structure and function due to disease.
690
What does topographical anatomy study?
Study of surface forms to locate deeper lying structures.
691
Define anterior in anatomical terms.
Towards the front.
692
Define posterior in anatomical terms.
Towards the back.
693
What does medial refer to?
Towards the midline of the body.
694
What does lateral mean?
Further from or away from the midline.
695
What does superior refer to?
Towards head, in a cephalic direction.
696
What does inferior mean?
Away from head or in a caudal direction.
697
What does proximal refer to?
Nearer to the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk.
698
What does distal mean?
Further from the attachment of a limb to the trunk.
699
What does internal refer to?
On the inside of the body.
700
What does external mean?
On the outside of the body.
701
What does parietal refer to?
Pertaining to or forming the outer wall of a body cavity.
702
What does visceral mean?
Pertaining to the organs.
703
What does superficial mean?
Toward or on the surface of the body.
704
What does deep refer to?
Away from the surface of the body.
705
Define ipsilateral.
Located on the same side of the body.
706
Define contralateral.
Located on opposite sides of the body.
707
What is a cell?
The basic building blocks of life.
708
What is tissue?
A group of related cells working together to carry out a specific function.
709
What is an organ?
A group of related tissues working together to carry out a specific function.
710
What is a system in biological terms?
A group of related organs working together to carry out a specific function.
711
What is an organism?
A group of related systems working together to carry out a specific function.
712
What is the anatomical position?
The subject stands erect, facing the observer, feet flat, arms at sides, thumbs out, palms forward.
713
What is the rationale for the anatomical position?
Allows directional terms to be clear.
714
What is a sagittal plane?
A vertical plane that divides the body or an organ into right and left portions.
715
What is a mid-sagittal plane?
A vertical plane that divides the body or organ at the midline.
716
What does the transverse plane do?
Divides the body into superior and inferior portions.
717
What does the frontal (coronal) plane divide?
Divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
718
What is the vertebral column?
The 26 vertebrae of an adult that protect the spinal cord.
719
What is bilateral symmetry?
Correspondence in size, shape, and position of body parts on opposite sides of a dividing line.
720
What is the cranial cavity?
A subdivision of the dorsal body cavity containing the brain.
721
What does the spinal canal contain?
The spinal cord and the beginnings of the spinal nerves.
722
What is the thoracic cavity?
Superior portion of the ventral body cavity containing pleural and pericardial cavities.
723
What is the mediastinum?
A median partition found between the pleurae of the lungs.
724
What is the abdomino-pelvic cavity?
Inferior component of the ventral body cavity subdivided into abdominal and pelvic cavities.
725
List the nine regions of the abdominal-pelvic cavity.
* Right hypochondriac
* Epigastric
* Left hypochondriac
* Right lumbar
* Umbilical
* Left lumbar
* Right iliac
* Hypogastric
* Left iliac
726
What is the head region also known as?
Cephalic.
727
What does the trunk refer to?
The part of the body to which the upper and lower limbs are attached.
728
What is the largest organ of the body?
The skin.
729
What composes the epidermis?
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
730
What is the deepest layer of the epidermis?
Stratum Basale.
731
What is the function of stratum granulosum?
Where cells die; flattened cells that have lost their nuclei.
732
What is the role of the nucleus in a cell?
Houses most of a cell’s DNA.
733
What is cytoplasm?
All cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus.
734
What is the function of the plasma membrane?
Regulates the flow of materials into and out of the cell.
735
What is the muscular system responsible for?
Produces motion in response to muscle action potentials.
736
What are the four basic types of tissue?
* Epithelial
* Connective
* Muscular
* Nervous
737
What is the role of nervous tissue?
Initiates and transmits nerve impulses to coordinate homeostasis.
738
What is a typical cell's structure?
* Cell membrane
* Cytoplasm
* Nucleus
739
Fill in the blank: The bones are a part of the _____ system.
Skeletal.
740
What does the acronym MURDERS INC stand for?
* Muscular System
* Integumentary System
* Urinary System
* Nervous System
* Respiratory System
* Circulatory System
* Digestive System
* Endocrine System
* Reproductive System
* Skeletal System
741
What is the outermost layer of the epidermis called?
Stratum Corneum
## Footnote
Up to 25 layers of dead, dry keratin-rich cells that serve as a barrier.
742
What is the deepest layer of the epidermis that is capable of mitosis?
Stratum Basale/Germinativum
## Footnote
Made up of keratinocytes.
743
What layer of the epidermis contains flattened cells that have lost their nuclei?
Stratum Granulosum
## Footnote
This is where cells die.
744
Which layer of the dermis is highly vascular?
Reticular region
## Footnote
Contains many blood vessels.
745
What are the two regions of the dermis?
* Reticular region
* Papillary region
746
What is the study of bones called?
Osteology
747
What are the main functions of bones?
* Provides support
* Protection
* Assists in movement
* Site of blood cell production
748
How many bones are in the adult human skeleton, excluding sutural and sesamoid bones?
206 bones
749
What is the axial skeleton composed of?
* Head (28 bones)
* Vertebrae (26 bones)
* Sternum (1 bone)
* Ribs (24 bones)
750
What is the largest and strongest facial bone?
Mandible
751
What are the three parts of the sternum?
* Manubrium
* Body
* Xiphoid process
752
What is the function of the hyoid bone?
Supports the tongue and provides attachment for some neck and pharynx muscles.
753
Which two bones form the upper extremities and pectoral girdle?
* Clavicle
* Scapula
754
What are the three types of ribs based on their attachment to the sternum?
* True ribs
* False ribs
* Floating ribs
755
What are the seven tarsal bones of the ankle collectively referred to as?
Tarsals
756
The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of how many vertebrae?
7 vertebrae
757
What is the primary function of the vertebral column?
Supports the head and protects the spinal cord.
758
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the longest and largest bone of the upper limb.
Humerus
759
True or False: The mandible is the only movable bone in the skull.
True
760
What is the term for the dome-like superior portion of the cranium?
Calvaria/Calvarium
761
What part of the skull is known as the 'keystone' of the cranial floor?
Sphenoid
762
What is the function of the ethmoidal sinus?
Contains several air spaces and gives the bone a sieve-like appearance.
763
What is the name of the triangular bone that forms the inferior, posterior part of the nasal septum?
Vomer
764
What are the two small bones forming the arch of the nose?
Nasal bones
765
What is the term for the area where each ramus meets the body of the mandible?
Angle
766
What is the largest and heaviest bone in the body?
Femur
767
What are the two bones of the forearm?
* Ulna
* Radius
768
The patella is commonly known as the _______.
Kneecap
769
What is the name of the process on the medial surface of the distal end of the tibia?
Medial malleolus
770
What is the significance of the foramen magnum?
It is where the medulla oblongata connects with the spinal cord.
771
What is the fibula compared to the tibia?
The fibula is considerably smaller than the tibia.
772
Where does the proximal end of the fibula articulate?
With the inferior surface of the lateral condyle of the tibia inferior to the level of the knee joint.
773
What is the projection at the distal end of the fibula called?
Lateral malleolus.
774
What bone does the lateral malleolus articulate with?
The talus bone of the ankle.
775
What forms the prominence on the lateral surface of the ankle?
Lateral malleolus.
776
What is the collective term for the seven tarsal bones of the ankle?
Tarsals.
777
Which is the most superior tarsal bone?
Talus.
778
How many metatarsals are there in the foot?
10.
779
What do metatarsals articulate with proximally?
The first, second, and third cuneiform bones and with the cuboid.
780
How many phalanges are there in the toes?
28.
781
How many phalanges does the great toe have?
Two.
782
What is arthrology?
The scientific study of joints.
783
What type of joints are immovable?
Synarthroses.
784
What is a suture?
A fibrous joint composed of a thin layer of dense fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones of the skull.
785
What is a gomphosis?
A fibrous joint in which a cone-shaped peg fits into a socket.
786
What is a synchondrosis?
A cartilaginous joint in which the connecting material is hyaline cartilage.
787
What is an example of a cranial suture?
Coronal suture between the frontal and parietal bones of the skull.
788
What type of joints are slightly movable?
Amphiarthroses.
789
What is the pubic symphysis?
The joint between the two hipbones, consisting of a pad of fibrocartilage.
790
What does the sacro-iliac articulation connect?
The sacrum and the innominate bone of the pelvis.
791
What type of joints are freely movable?
Diarthroses.
792
What is contained in a synovial joint?
A space that separates the articulating bones.
793
What covers the surfaces of the articulating bones in freely movable joints?
Articular cartilage.
794
What does articular cartilage do?
Reduces friction at the joint when the bones move and helps absorb shock.
795
What are examples of freely movable joints?
* Shoulder
* Hip
* Elbow
* Knee
796
What forms the shoulder joint?
The region of the proximal humerus, clavicle, and scapula.
797
What forms the hip joint?
Upper part of thigh, formed by the femur and innominate bones.
798
Where is the knee joint located?
At the articulation of the femur and tibia.
799
What covers the anterior aspect of the knee articulation?
Patella or kneecap.
