COMPANY OPERATIONS MANUAL PART A Flashcards
1
Q
The Operations Manual is issued under the authority of the Senior Vice President
(Flight Operations). It contains
A
policies, procedures and guidance on all matters that are the responsibility of Flight operations.
2
Q
“Caution” is used when an operating procedure, technique, etc. may result in
A
damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
3
Q
“Warning” is used when an operating procedure, technique, etc. may result in
A
personnel injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
4
Q
The Operations Manual is divided into four parts in accordance with CAR on the
subject and CAP 8100. These are:
A
Part A: General (Operations Policy Manual)
Part B: Type specific aircraft operating information
Part C: Areas, routes and aerodromes
Part D: Training
5
Q
TRs must be inserted in the OM on yellow-colored pages for easy identification and
reference.
TRs may be used for two reasons:
A
a) When there is any change in regulations or operating procedures or there is a
need for implementation of new organizational policies; and publication is
desired before the next planned OM revision; or
b) When immediate amendments or revisions al required in the interest of safety
which have significant operational impact.
6
Q
ACARS:
A
Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System
7
Q
ACMS:
A
Aircraft Condition Monitoring System
8
Q
ADD:
A
Acceptable Deferred Defect
9
Q
AIMS:
A
Airline Information Management System
10
Q
ALAR:
A
Approach Landing & Accident Reduction
11
Q
ATIS:
A
Automatic Terminal Information Service
12
Q
CDFA:
A
Continuous Descent Final Approach
13
Q
CDL:
A
Configuration Deviation List
14
Q
CDLB:
A
Cabin Defect Logbook
15
Q
CFDS:
A
Centralized Fault Display System
16
Q
CIDS:
A
Cabin Intercommunication Data System
17
Q
CMP:
A
Configuration, Maintenance & Procedures
18
Q
CPDLC:
A
Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
19
Q
ECAM:
A
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring
20
Q
FANS:
A
Future Air Navigation System
21
Q
FATA:
A
Foreign Aircrew Temporary Authorisation
22
Q
FOQA:
A
Flight Operations Quality Assurance
23
Q
IRROPS:
A
Irregular Operations
24
Q
IOSA:
A
IATA Operational Safety Audit
25
LRU:
Line Replaceable Unit
26
LOSA:
Line Operations Safety Audit
27
MABH:
Minimum Approach Break off Height
28
MTBF:
Mean Time Between Failure
29
MSN:
Manufacturer's Serial Number
30
OEB:
Operations Engineering Bulletin
31
PAPI:
Precision Approach Path Indicator
32
PBE:
Protective Breathing Equipment
33
PCN:
Pavement Classification Number
34
RCAM:
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix
35
RESA:
Runway End Safety Area
36
SAFA:
Safety Assessment of Foreign Aircraft
37
TAWS:
Terrain Awareness and Warning System
38
UNM:
Unaccompanied Minor
39
VREF:
Landing reference speed
40
Adult: Male and female, is defined as person of an age of ___.
12 years and above
41
ATS airspaces are classified in ___
AIP India ENR 1.4
42
Take-off alternate: An alternate aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.
43
En-route alternate: An alternate aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route.
44
Destination alternate: An alternate aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
45
Approach ban point: The point on an approach segment where
the reported weather conditions at the runway must meet the applicable minima, so as to be able to meet regulatory requirements for continuing an instrument approach to a landing.
46
Aquaplaning (or hydroplaning): is a situation where the tyres of the aircraft are, to a large extent,
separated from the runway surface by a thin fluid film.
47
Ceiling: The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below
6000 m (20 000 ft) covering more than half the sky.
48
Children: Person who is of an age of
two years and above but who are less than twelve years of age.
49
Categories of aeroplanes: The categories of typical aeroplanes have been established based on the
indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat) in the landing configuration at maximum certificated landing mass.
50
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA): A technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, for flying the
final approach segment (FAS) of an instrument non-precision approach (NPA) procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare maneuver begin for the type of aircraft flown; for the FAS of NPA procedure followed by circling approach, the CDFA techniques applies until circling approach minima (circling OCA/H) or visual flight maneuver altitude/height are reached.
51
Converted Meteorological Visibility (CMV): A value equivalent to an RVR which is derived from
the reported meteorological visibility, as converted in accordance with the specified requirements
52
Contaminated runway: A runway is considered to be contaminated when
more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:
- Surface water more than 3 mm (0.125 in) deep, or slush, or loose snow, equivalent to more than 3 mm (0.125 in) of water; or
- Snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or ice, including wet ice.
53
Contingency fuel: A quantity of fuel carried to compensate for items such as:
- Deviations of an individual airplane from expected fuel consumption data
- Deviations from forecast meteorological conditions
- Deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitude
54
Crew Resource Management (CRM): A program designed to
improve the safety of flight operations by optimizing the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources, hardware, and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination.
55
Critical phases of flight: Those portions of operations involving:
taxiing, take-off, landing and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
56
Decision altitude/height (DA/DH): A specified altitude or height (A/H) in a 3D instrument approach procedure at which:
a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established
57
EDTO critical fuel: The fuel quantity necessary to fly to:
an en-route alternate aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure.
58
Fail-Operational flight control system: A flight control system is fail-operational if,
in the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing, can be completed automatically. In the event of a failure, the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system.
59
Fail-Passive flight control system: A flight control system is fail-passive if,
in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the pilot assumes control of the airplane after a failure.
60
Final reserve fuel: An amount of fuel for all turbine powered airplanes, calculated to fly
30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the alternate or the destination, when no alternate is required.
61
Infant: A person who has not yet reached his ___ birthday.
second
62
Low Visibility Operations (LVO): Approach operations in RVRs less than ___ or Low Visibility Take-Off (LVTO) in RVRs less than ___.
550m and/ or with a DH less than 60m (200 ft)
400m
63
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or Minimum descent height (MDH): A specified altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
64
RESA: An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to
reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.
65
Special VFR: Flights under VFR rules, permitted up to ___ visibility. These are subject to specific authorisation from ATC.
1500M
66
MAINTENANCE
RELEASE/CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE TO SERVICE
A CRS is valid till
CRS will be issued after snag rectification, and previous CRS will not be valid. Similarly, after every Check a new CRS is issued and is valid till next maintenance action. If a layover check is carried out, the previous CRS is no more valid and a new CRS is issued. This is the reason after every lay over, check a new CRS is signed off in the Tech Log.
A CRS is not required to be issued after Transit/ Pre-flight inspection.
67
A document, if missing or requiring replacement; flight crew should inform Centralized Flight Dispatch and fill up the relevant
"Missing Documentation form", which is kept inside the on board 'Notice File'. Missing documentation will be replaced at the earliest opportunity.
68
NOTAC (Notice To Air Crew): Information in a NOTAC is
of more permanent nature and may effect a revision of the Operations Manual.
69
Technical Notice: Guidance and/or compliance of
technical nature and is related to aircraft systems with information on crew actions in case of ECAM; which will also spell out the distinction on actions BEFORE ECAM or AFTER ECAM.
70
Operations Notice: Changes in
Standard Operating procedures, Training Procedures, Information, guidance and/or compliance of technical nature and is related to aircraft systems, technical explanations, modification being progressively carried out on airline fleet etc.
71
Administrative Notice: Administrative issues with regard to
duties and obligations of Flight Operations will be notified in Administrative notices.
72
C-NOTAM (Company Notice to Airmen) Information and guidance to Crew on various flight operation related aspects that are of
a temporary nature not covered in the Operations Manual will be provided in Company NOTAMs. These can be either Informatory or mandatory in nature.
73
Flight Operations Brief (FOB): Issues regarding
air traffic management are issued as Flight Operations brief, including any aeronautical information published by state as AIP/ AIP amendments, including AIRAC, not incorporated in route guide/ Jeppesen/ NavBlue.
74
Any notice that is removed and requires to be retained for general information shall be shifted to
archive folder available on Flight Operations 6E portal.
75
The Company Mission is dedicated to providing
On-time, Hassle-free, Courteous and Affordable air transport service.
76
The Air Operator Certificate (AOC) is obtained by the Company from
DGCA after fulfilling all the laid down requirements.
(Note: Requirements and guidance for issue of Air Operator Certificate are given in CAR Section 3, Series C and CAP 3100)
77
Safety Management & Accident Prevention Activities
The aim of an accident prevention program is:
a) To review safety results and identify significant safety issues
b) To develop and implement safety action plans and review implementation and effectiveness
c) To oversee accident prevention activities of all department involved with the operation of aircraft
d) To review safety impacts of any project (new destination, increase in fleet size, etc.)
78
Chapter 34 for details of the Safety Management and Accident Prevention program.
Accident Prevention is achieved by
Flight Data Trend analysis, investigation of the causes of occurrences, developing preventive methods, encouraging reporting of occurrence, hazard and incidents with non-punitive programs.
79
The incidents/ occurrences affecting aircraft design, maintenance and/ or operation, are mandatorily reported upon to the authorities. List of reportable incidents/ occurrences as per DGCA CAR is reproduced in ___.
Chapter 34
80
Under PIC's Emergency Authority;
The PIC retains full authority to take any action in an emergency or under unusual circumstances, in order to preserve the safety of the aircraft, its occupants, mail and freight.
81
Company uses a method of Operations Coordination OCC which engages:
Executive/ Controllers, Maintenance Control, Meteorologists and other services available.
82
___ is responsible for the flight until the PIC takes the responsibility of the flight.
Airport Manager
83
PIC can override the suggestions of the Operations controller by use of ___.
Emergency Authority
84
Any use of Emergency authority by a PIC is to be reported to ___
the Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) on termination of the flight.
85
In addition to setting and maintaining a high standard of self-discipline, the PIC is responsible to ensure that
his/ her crew maintain an equally high standard. He must ensure that correct orders are given and are always promptly obeyed and do his utmost to develop a high level of "Espirit de Corps".
86
Espirit de Corps
enthusiastic devotion of members to a group and strong regard for the honor of the group
87
Period of Command
The designated PIC assumes command the moment he
accepts/ signs the aircraft acceptance (Flight Report Book/ Technical log book) and/or enters the aircraft with the intention of carrying out a flight, whichever is earlier until the termination of his flight duty when he/ she completes all the post flight documentation and leaves the aircraft.
88
PIC Responsibility
The PIC is responsible for
- the safe execution of the flight and for the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, baggage and freight during the flight.
- He is also responsible for discipline on board and orderly conduct of the flight.
- overall responsibility for the flight execution; be the representative of the company when dealing with other crew members during flight duty time and at layovers
- promote an atmosphere for optimum crew co-operation
- flight preparation and execution in compliance with legal and company regulations;
- whether handling the controls or not is responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with Rules of the Air except that he may depart from these rules in circumstances that render such departure absolutely necessary in the interest of safety.
- The PIC is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are fully briefed on safety procedures and that all emergency exits are kept clear during flight.
- The primary responsibility of the PIC is that he must not commence a flight when in his judgment the aircraft is not in a satisfactory condition and to conduct the flight in a safe manner in order to maintain a high level of safety.
- In the absence of Company Ground Personnel, the PIC during his period of command is also responsible for the safety of the aircraft passengers, crew and their comfort while on the ground.
89
PIC Authority
PIC has the authority to take such measures as necessary for the safety of the flight and in this connection he may take such reasonable measures as are necessary for
order and discipline on board. These measures may include the restriction of freedom of one or more occupants until they are delivered to the competent authorities.
90
The term 'flight as used in the law may in general be assumed to represent the period between
'doors closed' and 'door open'.
91
Pilot in Command's Emergency Authority
Take any action in an emergency or under unusual circumstances, in order to preserve the safety of the aircraft, its occupants, mail and freight.
92
No contact period
Lead Cabin Crew, No calls will be made from
commencement of take-off roll till the retraction of landing gear.
&
extension of landing gear till the end of landing roll.
93
VIP Passengers Handling
The Lead will check with the PIC if he would like to greet/ pay his compliments to the VIP passenger/s before departure. Time and duties permitting, it is expected that
PIC will personally meet the VIP passenger/s and welcome him/ her before doors close. If this is not possible, the PIC must ask the Lead to do so on his behalf.
94
On Time Performance
___ has a major role to ensure that the controllable reasons of delays are kept effectively under check.
Flight Operations
95
Pilots are 'NOT' repeat 'NOT' to insist that passenger boarding is
delayed or interrupted except for reasons affecting safety of aircraft operations.
96
Crew reporting late is an avoidable reason of delay. Crew must contact OCC ASAP and advise of the situation. Reporting Sick at last minute causes irreparable damage to
'On Time Performance'.
97
Crew Scheduling is responsible to ensure that operating crew has minimum ___ total cockpit experience on type wherein PIC hours are considered from release on type and Co-pilot hours are considered after endorsement on type".
500 hrs
98
All Operational Flight Plan (OFP) will be retained in the Flight Planning System for a period of
forty-eight (48) hours.
99
Copies of flight release signed by PIC are sent by respective airports to central flight dispatch and saved for a period of
three (03) months.
100
Post-flight documents for flights are collected and stored at CFD on daily basis for a period of
current plus six (06) months.
101
All flight documents for a flight involved in an accident or in an incident are retained until the termination of the accident or incident investigation. These documents thereafter are retained for a period of
an additional six (06) months.
102
EZFW based on booked load & assumed cargo are automatically updated in the Flight Planning Software through
Reservation system (Navitaire)
103
To achieve minimal variations in ZFW prior departure, Computerized Flight Plan (CFP) is auto generated for any variation in ZFW by
+/500 Kg
104
ONLY, If the increase in ZFW is greater than ___ for A320/ 321, a fresh OFP will be computed and issued.
three (03) tons
105
The following conditions will render a Flight Release automatically void, and will require that a New Flight Release be issued by company Flight Dispatch:
a) Whenever a revised OFP is issued
b) When a flight is delayed beyond a release void time specified in the remarks section of that release.
c) When an operational condition set forth in that release cannot be met.
d) Invoking of MEL having a performance impact etc.
e) Any time there is a change of a PIC/ Tail No.
f) A Flight release should be issued for multiple legs. New FRC is required to be issued when CFP of any leg is beyond validity time mentioned on the CFP.
106
Hand Amendment for the PIC name on an unsigned FRC is
valid and does not require issue of new Flight Release.
107
When for the reasons other than flight safety, there arises a disagreement between PIC and Flight Dispatcher; ___ shall provide necessary resolution.
Chief Pilot (Line)
108
If no reply is received from aircraft for ___, it will be considered as an abnormal situation.
15 minutes
109
Acclimatised means a state in which a crew member's circadian biological clock is synchronised to the time zone where the crew member is. A crew member is considered to be acclimatised to a ___ wide time zone surrounding the local time at the point of departure. When the local time
3-hour
110
When the local time at the place where a flight duty commences (departure time zone) differs by more than 3 hours from the local time at the place where the next duty starts, the crew member shall be considered acclimatized to the local time where the crew member starts his/her next duty after:
48 hours
111
Local Night
A period of 8 hours falling between ___ local time on the A320/A321
0000hrs to 0800hrs
112
Night Duty
Any Duty Period encroaching upon any portion of the time period between ___ in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatized.
0000 hrs and 0500 hrs
113
Window of Circadian Low (WOCL)
WOCL means a period between ___ in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatized.
0200h and 0600h
114
When the FDP starts in the WOCL, the maximum FDP shall be reduced by
100% of its encroachment up to a maximum of 2 hours.
115
When the FDP ends in or fully encompasses the WOCL, the maximum FDP stated shall be reduced by
50% of its encroachment.
116
When a crew has undertaken flights in consecutive nights, then for transition to flights beyond period 0000 to 0500 hrs, he/ she should not be scheduled for a flight which is
commencing prior to, at least 24 hrs including one local night from arrival of the flight and prior to Company local night plus 2 hrs.
117
Crew scheduling shall ensure there is a period of ___ between two instances of consecutive nights.
168 hours
118
Flight Time, 'Flight Duty Period' and "landing" may be extended due to unforeseen operational circumstances as follows:
a) Flight Time by maximum of 1½ hours.
b) FDP by maximum of 3 hours.
c) Only one extra landing may be carried out in the event of a diversion to complete the flight, including a consecutive night for completion of the flight.
119
RNAV is defined as
"a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these."
120
RNAV removes the restriction imposed on conventional routes and procedures where the aircraft must
over fly referenced navigation aids, thereby permitting operational flexibility and efficiency.
121
RNAV allows "point-to-point" navigation, the aircraft position being determined by the on-board navigation systems using the information from several navigation aids such as
VOR/DME, DME/DME or GNSS (GPS).
122
An RNP system is an RNAV system whose functionalities support
on-board performance monitoring and alerting.
123
The three main errors in the context of on-board performance monitoring and alerting are
Path Definition Error (PDE), Flight Technical Error (FTE), and Navigation System Error (NSE).
124
Navigation data is updated once every ___ as per notified AIRAC cycles.
28 days
125
The Flight Planning function performs the creation and assembly of the lateral and vertical flight plan used by the guidance function. A key aspect of the flight plan is the specification of flight plan waypoints using
latitude and longitude, without reference to the location of any ground navigation aids.
126
ILS localizer coverage sector extends from the localizer antenna to distances of
25 NM within 10° of the front course and 17 NM within 35° of the front course.
127
Crew are to crosscheck navigation accuracy as 'High' in terminal areas/ en-route i.e. a comparison of
actual navigation performance to the required navigation performance on FMGS
128
GPS segments: Space, Control, and User.
The Space Segment consists of ___ operational satellites in six circular orbits 20,200 km (10,900 NM) above the earth. The satellites are spaced in orbit so that at any time a minimum of 6 satellites will be in view to users anywhere in the world.
24
129
Airplane using GPS systems, active monitoring by the flight crew is only required when
the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost.
130
Airplane navigating the GPS is considered to be ___. Therefore, the appropriate equipment suffix must be included in the ATC flight plan.
RNAV aircraft
131
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPERATION MINIMUM (RVSM) airspace where, a reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) of 1000 ft) is applied between
FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive
132
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPERATION MINIMUM (RVSM)
Providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight level. The threshold for the alert shall not exceed
-/+ 90 m (300 ft);
133
An RVSM approval is valid ___ on the understanding that any operating procedures specific to a given region will be stated in the operations manual or appropriate crew guidance.
globally
134
EDTO (Extended diversion time operations) are Operations by turbine engine aeroplanes to fly beyond ___, approved by the Regulator (DGCA).
a threshold time, and up to a maximum diversion time
135
Aeroplanes with two engines, to fly beyond one hour of flight time (approved threshold time by DGCA) at a one-engine-inoperative cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in ___ using the actual take-off mass, and up to a maximum diversion time, approved by DGCA.
ISA and still-air conditions
136
DGCA has granted operational approval for extended diversion time operations to operate beyond threshold time of 60 minutes and up to a maximum diversion time of
90 and 120 minutes.
137
En-route alternate aerodromes may also be the
take-off and/or destination aerodromes.
138
EDTO ALTERNATE AERODROME VALIDITY PERIOD/TIME WINDOW
The validity period is the time window during which a designated EDTO alternate aerodrome should be assessed for EDTO dispatch purposes to have the necessary conditions to allow
a safe approach and landing in the event of an en-route EDTO diversion.
139
EDTO ALTERNATE AERODROME VALIDITY PERIOD/TIME WINDOW
The validity period for a given EDTO alternate aerodrome is typically determined based on
a diversion from the first and last EDTO ETPs for this alternate.
140
EDTO CRITICAL FUEL
The fuel quantity necessary to fly to
an en-route alternate aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure.
141
EDTO ENTRY POINT
The first point on the route of an EDTO flight; determined using a one-engine inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air that is
more than the threshold from an en-route alternate airport.
142
EDTO EXIT POINT
The last point on an EDTO flight, under standard conditions in still air, that is
beyond the DGCA established threshold time from an Enroute alternate aerodrome.
143
ISOLATED AERODROME
A destination aerodrome for which there is
no destination alternate aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type.
144
Maximum diversion time =
Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point on a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome.
145
Point of no return =
The last possible geographic point at which an aeroplane can proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate aerodrome for a given flight.
146
Threshold time =
The range, expressed in time, to an enroute alternate aerodrome, whereby any time beyond requires an EDTO approval.
147
The operation is considered to be an extended diversion time operation (EDTO) when,
the diversion time exceeds the threshold time
148
The maximum diversion time should not exceed the value of the EDTO significant system limitations), for extended diversion time operations reduced with an operational safety margin, commonly ___, specified by the
DGCA.
15 minutes
149
EDTO SIGNIFICANT SYSTEMS
Cargo Fire & Suppression Variant Time Limit
A320-232 205 MIN
A320-271 205 MIN
A320-251 205 MIN
A321-271 135/150 MIN
A321-251/252 150 MIN
150
In flight ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE performance data can be calculated using
EFB-FLYSMART-INFLIGHT MODULE.
151
EDTO Speed Schedule
DESCENT MCT/VMO
CRUISE MCT/VMO
DESCENT TO LDG M.78/300KT , 250KT
152
Distance covered during authorized maximum diversion time of 90 and 120 minutes:
A320 P&W - 600 to 631 NM (90 min)
A320 LEAP - 789 to 795 NM (120 min)
A321 LEAP - 768 to 778 NM (120 min)
153
EDTO area of operation is determined in ___, considering the relevant aircraft performance with one engine inoperative, the remaining engine being on MCT or less.
still air and ISA conditions
154
EDTO area of operation is determined once and does not need to be reassessed for each flight (considering the en-route weather forecast or the aircraft performance depending on the T/O weight) unless
one or more suitable diversion airports happen to be unsuitable.
155
EDTO EN-ROUTE ALTERNATE AIRPORT
It has to be noted that for an EDTO en-route alternate aerodrome, a published Rescue and Fire Fighting services (RFFS) category equivalent to ___ is mandatory.
ICAO category 5
156
THE EARLIEST ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL
The earliest estimated time of arrival at the nominated EDTO en-route alternate airport(s) is computed considering a two-engine diversion from
the first Equal Time Point (ETP) along the outbound route associated with the considered en-route alternate, at the normally planned cruise altitude and speed (i.e. assuming a diversion for any reason other than an engine or pressurization failure).
157
THE LATEST ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL
The latest estimated time of arrival is computed considering a two-engine diversion from
the second Equal Time Point (ETP) associated with the considered en-route alternate, at FL100 or at the MORA and at the LRC speed (i.e. considering a pressurization failure only).
158
To perform an EDTO flight the aircraft must carry a sufficient quantity of fuel and oil: To comply with the standard fuel policy, and
To perform a diversion from any point along the EDTO segment of the planned route (between the EDTO Entry Point and the EDTO Exit Point) to a nominated EDTO en-route alternate airport taking account of the EDTO fuel requirements.
159
The Critical Point is usually, but not necessarily,
the last ETP within the EDTO segment.
The critical point (CP) is the point along the EDTO segment for which the difference between the standard fuel quantity expected to be on board (fuel to continue) and the fuel quantity required to perform an EDTO diversion (EDTO fuel scenario) is minimum or negative.
If this difference of quantities of fuel is negative, the EDTO fuel policy requires the carriage of additional EDTO fuel reserves.
160
The EDTO fuel policy applied at the flight preparation stage to determine the minimum quantity of fuel required to plan a diversion to an EDTO en-route alternate airport must consider the following 3 scenario:
Scenario 1:
A rapid decompression followed by descent to 10,000 ft or a higher altitude if sufficient oxygen is provided in accordance with the applicable operational requirements.
Scenario 2:
Fly at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed assuming a rapid decompression and a simultaneous engine failure followed by descent to 10,000 ft or a higher altitude if sufficient oxygen is provided in accordance with the applicable operational requirements.
Scenario 3:
Fly at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed assuming an engine failure, followed by a descent to the one-engine-inoperative cruise altitude.
161
THE FINAL RESERVE
The final reserve is the quantity of fuel needed upon reaching the nominated EDTO en-route alternate, to
hold at 1500 ft above field elevation for 15 minutes, and then conduct an instrument approach and landing.
162
THE WIND FORECAST:
To take account of possible gap between actual wind and forecasted wind, the following correction is applied to the forecasted wind used to determine the air distance in the fuel computation:
Add a 5% wind speed factor (i.e., an increment to headwind or a decrement to tailwind) on the actual forecast wind used to calculate fuel in the greater of the scenarios (1), (2) or (3)
163
The EDTO icing fuel reserve is always limited by
Fuel quantity consumed for Total Anti-Ice (engine and wing) during the entire time during which icing is forecast
164
Airbus recommends to includes a contingency fuel provision from departure to Critical Point, when computing
the EDTO critical Fuel Planning. (Fuel consumption of 80kg/h (APU GEN ON, APU BLEED OFF),
165
EDTO fuel policy is applicable to any point along the EDTO segment. But the fuel required for EDTO diversion is computed only at
each Equal-Time Point (ETP) to determine the critical point. The fuel required at the critical point is used to determine the minimum quantity of fuel that must be carried.
166
EDTO fuel policy is applicable to any point along the EDTO segment. But the fuel required for EDTO diversion is computed only at
each Equal-Time Point (ETP) to determine the critical point. The fuel required at the critical point is used to determine the minimum quantity of fuel that must be carried.
167
The EDTO Computerized Flight Plan provides following additional data:
- Fuel & time required to plan a diversion to an EDTO en-route alternate airport considering 3 scenarios.
- The additional EDTO fuel reserve
- The location of the EDTO segment (EEP, EXP) and ETP's (CP)
- The earliest and latest time of arrival on EDTO en-route alternate airports
168
MORA values clear all terrain and obstructions:
By 1,000 ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5,000 ft MSL or lower;
By 2,000 ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5,001 ft MSL or higher;
The grids considered by software are 1° latitude by 1° longitude.
169
On a practical point of view, the single-engine diversion "without pressurization failure" is never fuel limiting. The minimum required block fuel for dispatching an EDTO flight is, therefore, defined as the greater of the following fuel quantities:
- Standard fuel planning
- EDTO fuel planning considering "an engine failure and a pressurization failure" occurring at the critical point
- EDTO fuel planning considering "a pressurization failure only" occurring at the critical point.
170
Additional EDTO fuel reserves are determined and added to the standard fuel requirements as
"Dispatch Fuel (ETP)"
171
Re-routed flight with Non-EDTO conditions.
Due to the aircraft technical status the flight dispatcher may need to re-route the flight to a
non-EDTO route.
172
The EDTO plotting chart indicates the following information:
- EDTO area,
- Planned route/track
- EDTO segment and significant points: EEP, ETP(s), CP, EXP.
173
EDTO en-route alternate needs to be filled in Item 18 as
RALT/ ICAO four letter indicator(s).
174
EDTO STATUS
EDTO APPROVED: COMPANY CHECK:
EDTO APPROVED: AIRCRAFT CHECK:
AOP & AFM
175
The applicable en-route minima at each alternate airport (ceiling & visibility) for route decision are the normal company minima. The EDTO dispatch minima do not apply with
the commencement of flight.
176
Prior to EDTO entry point, ___ must be evaluated.
forecast weather (WX), aero-plane status, runway surface conditions, LDA, aerodrome services and facilities at en-route alternate
177
During EDTO cockpit preparation, the flight crew performs:
The EEP, ETPs (the CP) and the EXP are not stringed to the FMS FPLN but are entered as
STORED WAYPOINTS and Wind entries are performed on all the relevant FMS WIND pages.
178
In the case of a diversion to an EDTO en-route alternate airport and after completion of a safety assessment of the situation, the PIC has the authority to deviate from
the planned one-engine out operating speed, even if the resulting diversion time exceeds the EDTO diversion time granted by the Authority. The most important consideration is to safely conduct the flight to the alternate airport.
179
EDTO PILOT'S GUIDE
ABV FL 100:
- PASS EEP/ETP/EXP TIMES VIA CO-FREQ (FROM CFP)
- INSERT 15MIN TIME MARKER BEFORE EEP
180
EDTO PILOT'S GUIDE
BEFORE EEP:
CHECK EDTO ALTERNATES ARE WITHIN AOM OR CREW MINIMA BEFORE EEP (IF NONE OF THE ALTERNATES ARE WITHIN MINIMA THEN REROUTING IS REQUIRED)
181
EDTO PILOT'S GUIDE
AFTER EEP:
EDTO ALTERNATE BELOW AOM MINIMA IS NOT A
REQUIREMENT TO
DIVERT OR REROUTE
182
In-Flight APU Reliability Check
APU running in EDTO segment is not mandatory on Company EDTO approved aircraft. To establish APU reliability data on sampling basis, the APU of each EDTO Approved aircraft shall be started in-flight once in ___ months.
03
183
In-Flight APU Reliability Check
The in-flight starts can be performed on non-EDTO sectors. On EDTO Sector, in-flight start shall be attempted on return leg. To achieve this, APU is to be started just short of descent after adequate cold soak or at such time that will ensure
a two (02) hr cold soak before start attempt and let APU run for 5 min.
184
VFR Flights within a control zone shall not be conducted if
the ground visibility is less than 5 Km or if the ceiling is less than 1500' at the aerodrome concerned except when authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
185
VFR Flights outside controlled airspace shall not be conducted
at a height of less than 1000' above the ground or water and shall maintain sight of the ground or water.
186
VFR flights shall not be operated:
- Above FL 150
- more than 100NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace
- between 20 min after sunset and 20 min before sunrise
187
In India, the minimum flight altitude on the ATS routes as presented in AIP, AIP supplements or NOTAMs have been determined so as to ensure
at least 1000ft vertical clearance above the highest obstacle within 10NM on each side of the centre line of the route.
188
IFR flight shall not be flown at a level that is below the established minimum flight altitude or where no such minimum flight altitude has been established:
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 2000 Ft above the highest obstacle located within ___ of the estimated position of the aircraft.
Elsewhere than as specified above, at a level which is at least 1000 Ft above the highest obstacle located within ___ of the estimated position of the aircraft.
8KM
189
A route MORA provides reference point clearance within ___ of the route centreline (regardless of the route width) and end fixes.
10 NM
190
MORA values clear all reference points by ___ in areas where the highest reference points are 5000 ft MSL, or lower.
1000 ft
191
MORA values clear all reference points by ___ in areas where the reference points are above 5000 ft MSL.
2000 ft
192
When a MORA is shown along a route as "unknown" or within a grid as "un-surveyed" a MORA is not shown due to
incomplete or insufficient information.
193
MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (MOCA)
The lowest altitude, as derived by Jeppesen and depicted on Jeppesen en-route charts, in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airways routes, or route segments, which meets obstacle clearance requirements for
the entire route segment.
194
MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE (MSA)
Altitude depicted on instrument approach, SID or STAR charts and identified as the minimum altitude which provides a 1000 ft obstacle clearance within a ___ (or other value as stated) radius from the navigational facility upon which the MSA is predicated. This altitude does not necessarily guarantee NAVAID reception.
25 NM
195
Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)
The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR flight can be vectored by a radar controller, for
radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR Obstacle clearance criteria, it may however be lower than the published MEA along an airway.
196
Decision Altitude/ Height (DA/H)
A specified altitude or height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if
the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
197
Decision Altitude (DA) is referred to Mean Sea Level (MSL) and Decision Height (DH) is referred to the ___ and is used in conjunction with CAT II and CAT III approaches. For CAT I and non-precision approaches term MDA is used on airbus family aircraft.
threshold elevation
198
The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the Pilot to
assess the airplane position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path.
199
Minimum Descent Altitude/ Height (MDA/H)
A specified altitude/height in a non-precision approach, CAT ILS (For Airbus aircraft) or circling approach below which
descent may not be made without the required visual reference.
200
Where the minimum flight altitudes are not determined by Airports Authority of India or the responsible State in which the route to be flown over lies, such minimum flight altitudes shall not be lower than as prescribed below.
a) For IFR flights over high terrain or in mountainous areas and at 7000 feet and above, at a level which is at least ___ above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of the estimated position of the aircraft in the route.
2000 feet
201
Where the minimum flight altitudes are not determined by Airports Authority of India or the responsible State in which the route to be flown over lies, such minimum flight altitudes shall not be lower than as prescribed below.
b) For IFR flights elsewhere than as specified in a) above at a level which is at least ___ above the highest obstacle located within 10 nm of the estimated position of the aircraft in the route.
1500 feet
202
Whenever, temperature deviates significantly from the standard temperature, the indicated altitude correspondingly deviates from the true altitude, as follows:
Extreme high temperature:
True altitude is higher than the indicated altitude,
203
Whenever, temperature deviates significantly from the standard temperature, the indicated altitude correspondingly deviates from the true altitude, as follows:
Extreme low temperature:
True altitude is lower than the indicated altitude, thus creating a lower than anticipated terrain separation and a potential obstacle clearance hazard.
204
Aviation Golden Rule:
Temp/Pressure
High to Low
Look Out Below
205
The altitudes that typically require temperature correction are:
- MEA, MSA
- Transition routes altitude
- Procedure turn altitude (as applicable)
- FAF altitude
- Missed approach altitude during all approaches.
206
Aerodrome Operating Minima are established in order to ensure
the desired level of safety in Airplane Operations at an Aerodrome by limiting these operations in specified weather conditions.
207
In determining the values of aerodrome operating minima, a large number of factors are involved which fall primarily into three groups as follows:
- The ground environment and the design, maintenance and operation of ground equipment,
- The characteristics of the aeroplane and its equipment; Aircraft capability as given in the Airplane Flight Manual defines the lowest minima for which an aircraft has been certified.
- The Company procedures, flight crew training and experience.
208
DA (DH) or MDA (MDH) depends upon the ___ specified in the Instrument Approach Procedure.
OCA (OCH)
209
The value of Visibility (RVR) minima depends upon
Decision Height Minimum Descent Height and Approach Lighting System (Nil, Basic, Intermediate or full facilities). Higher the DH/MDH, higher would be the corresponding visibility/
RVR minima.
210
Minima Classification
The highest of the minima is ___.
The Lowest of the minima is ___.
Crew Minima
Operator's Minima
211
RVR is horizontal visual range, not slant visual range. It is based on measurement of distance by a ___ located near the touchdown point, midpoint or roll out end of the instrument runway and is reported in metres. RVR is required to be
transmissometer
212
RVR is required to be reported when the prevailing visibility or RVR is ___.
less than 1500 meters
213
Restricted AOM consists of additives of height and visibility to the normal AOM and is to be applied by PICs (For pilots on 1st command or change of aircraft type) till
they have gained command experience of 100 hours on type.
- DA(H) or MDA(H) + 100 ft
- Approved VIS/RVR + 400 meters,
- PIC with restricted minima will not exercise LVTO
214
All non-precision approaches shall be flown using the Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) technique unless otherwise approved by the authority. When calculating the minima, the applicable minimum RVR is increased by ___ for Category C aeroplanes for approaches not flown using the CDFA technique, provided that the resulting RVR/ CMV value does not exceed 5000 m.
400m
215
A take-off alternate aerodrome shall be selected and specified in the operational & ATS flight plan if
either the meteorological conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the established aerodrome landing minima for that operation or if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for other reasons.
216
The take-off alternate aerodrome should be located within the following distances from the aerodrome of departure:
One hour of flight time at a one-engine inoperative cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in ISA and still air conditions using the actual take-off mass
217
TABLE 1: RVR/VISIBILITY FOR TAKE-OFF (COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT AEROPLANES)
Facilities
Adequate Visual reference (Day only)
RVR/VIS 1
Cat A, B, C & D
500m
218
TABLE 1: RVR/VISIBILITY FOR TAKE-OFF (COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT AEROPLANES)
Facilities
High intensity Runway edge lights and Runway centre line lights (spacing 15 m or less) and relevant RVR information
RVR/VIS 1
Cat A, B, C & D
125 m
219
The TDZ RVR/VIS may be assessed by the pilot by counting number of
edge/centre line lights
220
For night operations at least ___ lights are available.
runway edge lights or centre line lights and runway end lights
221
The required RVR must be achieved for all relevant RVR reporting points (touchdown, midpoint and stop-end/roll-out). The governing RVR shall be the
lowest of the reported RVRs
222
6. Take-off shall not be conducted with visibility/RVR less than Category I conditions (550m RVR or 800m Visibility when RVR is not reported) unless
low visibility procedures are enforced.
223
RVR assessment is applicable only at a runway threshold where runway identifying markings and number(s) are visible from the takeoff position (e.g., not applicable to
intersection takeoffs
224
Pilot assessment of touchdown zone RVR is to be made only when the mid and roll out zone RVR are reported and both these are not less than
200m
225
RVR is typically assessed at a height of ___ of the runway. The flight crew should take into account Cockpit cut of angle (obscured segment) plus the runway lights ahead of the aircraft (visual segment).
15 ft (Cockpit eye height) above the centre line
226
*An assessment of TDZ RVR can be done by the pilot based on any of the following visual cues:
- Runway Centerline Lights (15m/ 30m spacing)
- Touchdown Zone Lights Barrettes (30m spacing)
- Runway Edge Lights (60m spacing)
227
For an RVR assessment of 125m and runway light with 15m spacing.
RVR assessment = Obscured segment + Visual segment
Airbus: 12.5 m (approx.) + 09 centre line lights (8 segments x15) 120 = 132.5 m.
228
- Pilot's Eye Level Above Ground?
- Cockpit Cut Of Angle?
- Obscured Segment?
- 15FT
- 20°
- 12.5m / 41ft
229
Non-precision approach (NPA)
A non-precision approach (NPA) operation is an instrument approach using any of the facilities described in Table 2 (System minima), with a MDH or DH not lower than ___ and an RVR/CMV of not less than ___, unless accepted by
DGCA.
250 ft / 750 m
230
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA)
A technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment (FAS) of an instrument non-precision approach (NPA) procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the
final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare maneuver begin for the type of aircraft flown;
231
Category I
A Category approach operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS, MLS, GLS (GNSS/GBAS) or PAR with a decision height not lower than ___ and with visibility/rvr not less than ___.
200 ft / 800 m or an RVR not less than 550 m
232
SYSTEM MINIMA Vs INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES
Instrument Approach Procedure Lowest DH / MDH ILS/MLS/GLS CAT I
200 ft
233
SYSTEM MINIMA VS
INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURES
Instrument Approach Procedure Lowest DH / MDH
RNAV with Baro-VNAV/ LNAV
250 ft
234
SYSTEM MINIMA VS
INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURES
Instrument Approach Procedure Lowest DH / MDH
VOR/DME
250 ft
235
Cat I, APV and non-precision approach
A pilot may not continue an approach below MDA/MDH unless at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
a) elements of the approach light system,
b) the threshold,
c) the threshold markings,
d) the threshold lights,
e) the threshold identification lights,
f) the visual glide slope indicator,
g) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings,
h) the touchdown zone lights,
i) runway edge lights,
236
APPROACH LIGHTING SYSTEMS
IALS
Intermediate Approach Light System
237
To qualify for the lowest allowable values of RVR/CMV detailed in Table 4 (applicable to each approach grouping) the instrument approach shall meet at least the following facility requirements and associated conditions:
Instrument approaches with designated vertical profile up to and including 3.77° for Category C; where the facilities are:
i) ILS/MLS/GLS/PAR, or
ii) RNAV, and
where the final approach track is offset by not more than 5° for Category C aeroplanes.
238
The minimum RVR/CMV/Visibility is governed by the
DH and the approach lighting and runway lighting/marking availability.
239
Outage of lighting system CAT I, APV and NonPrecision Approach operations
A lighting system is deemed to be on outage when:
a) In the case of a lighting system comprising 6 to 13 lights (e.g. threshold lights) more than 2 lights become unserviceable or 2 adjacent lights become unserviceable.
b) In the case of a lighting system comprising more than 13 lights, more than 15% of the lights become unserviceable, or two adjacent lights become unserviceable.
240
A Category II operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS with:
i) A decision height below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft; and
ii) A runway visual range of not less than 300 m.
241
Flight crew to follow ___ values for CAT II / CAT III approaches.
"RA"
242
A pilot may not continue an approach below either the Category II decision height determined in accordance with Para 7.5.1.2 above unless visual reference containing a segment of
at least 3 consecutive lights being the centre line of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centre line lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a LATERAL ELEMENT OF THE GROUND PATTERN, i.e. an approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.
243
A CAT III precision instrument approach and landing using ILS with:
i) A Decision Height lower than 100 ft or no decision height; and
ii) A Runway Visual Range less than 300 m or no runway visual range limitations.
244
For Category III (with DH) operations conducted with fail-passive flight control systems a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height determined in accordance with Para 7.5.2.2. above unless a visual reference containing a segment of
at least 3 consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.
245
The lowest minima to be used for Category Ill operations depend on the Decision Height and aeroplane systems as shown in Table 7 below:
CAT III (with DH)
CAT III
Decision Height: Less than 100 ft & Roll-out control/ guidance system: Not required : RVR 175 m
Decision Heigh: No DH & Roll-out control/ guidance system: Fail-operational ; RVR : 75 m
246
RVR Reported and Relevant
Touch-down zone RVR needs to be reported for Cat I operations, touch-down and mid zone RVR for Cat II operations, touch-down, mid and roll-out zone RVR for Cat III operations. In all cases, ___ will always be controlling, however if any other RVR is reported then it becomes relevant
touch-down zone
247
Minimum RVR of 75m corresponds to ___ limitations.
AFM roll-out guidance system
248
For A320: Company has been granted operational approval to conduct CAT II & CAT III operations without considering relevance of END (Roll out) RVR for
VECC RWY 01R/ 19L & VIDP RWY 10/ 28.
249
Low visibility take-off (LVTO). A term used in relation to flight operations referring to a take-off on a runway where the RVR is
less than 400 m and is applicable whenever the reported RVR in any zone (touch-down/mid/roll-out) is below 400 m.
250
Low visibility take-offs shall not be carried out in less than 400 m RVR unless approved by DGCA. The Company has specific approval for LVTO minima of up to
125 m
251
7.5.4.2 Low Visibility Operations Minimum Equipment (Aircraft)
Following aircraft systems equipment listed below are critical for Low Visibility Operations shall be fully serviceable, (WWAT)
i) Windshield wipers for both PIC and Co-pilot during actual or forecast precipitation conditions
ii) Window heat system for all heated cockpit windows
iii) Anti-skid system
iv) Thrust reversers for all engines
252
For a visual approach, higher of the associated nonprecision approach minima or minimum visibility/RVR of ___ for Category C aeroplanes is applicable.
3200 m
253
7.8.2 ALTERNATE AERODROME PLANNING MINIMA FOR DISPATCH
To ensure that an adequate margin of safety is observed in determining whether or not an approach and landing can be safely carried out at each alternate aerodrome, appropriate incremental values as described in Table 9 for
height of cloud base and visibility should be added to the established aerodrome operating minima.
254
Alternate aerodrome operating minima is to be used only as a planning tool for dispatch of a flight. After commencement of flight, ___ may be used.
the authorized DA/H or MDA/H for the approach and associated visibility/ RVR
255
TABLE 9: ALTERNATE (Destination and En-route) AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA FOR DISPATCH
In the context of Table 9, a "different runway is a
runway with a different runway number and can be different ends of the same runway.
256
Take-off and Landing at aerodrome having no instrument approach procedure
These aerodromes are termed as
VFR aerodromes.
VFR criteria has to be satisfied, i.e. Visibility not below 5 KM and cloud ceiling not below 1500 ft.
257
7.8.9 Prohibition of landing below minima
All operations below the filed minima are strictly prohibited. No airplane shall commence an approach to landing at an aerodrome if the reported visibility /RVR and ceiling is below minima except as stated in chapter 27. Landing below the minima is only permissible in
an emergency. In such cases a report shall be made to Senior Vice President Flight Operations within 24 hours.
258
Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR/ CMV
In cases where the RVR is not reported, a pilot may derive RVR/CMV by using a mathematical conversion depending upon
the type of approach lighting and day/night conditions.
259
It should be ensured that a meteorological visibility to RVR conversion is not used:
- For take-off,
- For calculating any other required RVR minimum less than 800m,
- For visual/ circling approaches,
- When reported RVR is available,
- When reported visibility is below 800 m and RVR (instrumented or human observation) is not available.
260
The minimum length of approach lights for application of CMV is
420m,
261
CMV is meant to be used by pilots in flight and not as
a planning tool for dispatch of a flight.
262
If the RVR is reported as being above the maximum value assessed by the aerodrome operator, e.g. "RVR more than 1500 meters". it is not considered to be
a reported value for the purpose of CMV.
263
Example for CMV computation:
1 If the AOM is specified as visibility 800m/ RVR 550m for a runway and reported visibility is 700m and RVR is not reported or available, then CMV
cannot be applied against the reported visibility.
264
Example for CMV computation:
If the AOM is specified as RVR 1600m for a runway with HIALS and reported visibility is 1200m (1200 X1.5=1800) and RVR is not reported or available during daytime, then CMV
can be applied depending on runway lighting conditions.
265
FAILED OR DOWNGRADED EQUIPMENT Effect on landing minima
OM A Ch 7 Table 11
266
DESCRIPTION OF FUELING PROCEDURE
A320/ 321: AMM TASK 12-11-28-650-003-A (Pressure Refuel with Automatic Control)
267
SAFETY PRECAUTIONS DURING REFUELING AND DEFUELING WHEN PASSENGERS ARE EMBARKING, ON BOARD OR DISEMBARKING
At least two step ladders (one each at the front and rear exit) or one aerobridge and one step ladder are available at the doors for A320/ 321. In the absence of a ladder, that door must be closed and disarmed (and manned by a cabin crew).
268
For departures from major bases, Airport Services must ensure that full complement of Cabin Crew should be on board failing which at least ___ Cabin Crew should be on board before passenger boarding is permitted in the absence of the Pilot in Command. The Cabin crew will man the exits for any emergency evacuation.
two
269
The flight crew shall inform the Cabin crew about the commencement and completion of fuelling/ refuelling. In addition, ___ signs shall be illuminated as an indication to the Cabin crew that fuelling is in progress while passengers are on board.
"NO PED"/ "NO DEVICES" and 'EXIT'
270
If cockpit crew member is on board, he shall be informed by the Engineering staff regarding the commencement of refuelling via Intercom (draw attention through Mech Call, if required) using verbiage "Commencing refuelling".
If Crew member is to remain in the cockpit, he will respond
"Proceed with refuelling".
271
In the case of a fire resulting from fuelling operations or from a large fuel spillage (covered area greater than ___) felling operations will stop.
5 square meters
272
9.2.1.1 Infants
Children below the age of 2 years are considered Infants as per company policy. Infants are not allocated any seat in the passenger cabin. Infant less than ___ old is not permitted to fly.
02 days
273
Number of Infants that may be permitted on board (each accompanied by one adult in person) is dependent on
the number of Infant life jackets and additional oxygen masks available on board.
274
Maximum number of infants on company aircraft is limited to:
A320/ 321: 19 over land (one in each row even no seats on left hand side (A, B, C) and odd no seats on right hand side (D, E, F) limited by oxygen) and 12 over water (can go up to 19 limited by number of infant life jackets). Row no 1, 2, 3, 30 & 31 shall not be used for carriage of infants. In addition, after every three rows there shall be an infant free row.
275
No passenger carrying an infant shall be seated
near any emergency exit/ row with an emergency exit.
276
9.2.1.2 Carriage of Expectant mothers
The company policy on travel of expectant mothers is as follows:
Single uncomplicated Pregnancy
Multiple uncomplicated Pregnancy
277
A Person with Reduced Mobility (PRM): Any person whose mobility when using transport is reduced due to
any physical disability (sensory or locomotor; permanent or temporary), intellectual disability or impairment, or any other cause of disability, or age, and whose situation needs appropriate attention and the adaptation to his or her particular needs of the service made available to all passengers.
278
Passengers who are elderly and request the use of a wheelchair because of their age or inability to walk quickly are not to be considered as ___.
immobile
279
The PIC should satisfy himself that the carriage of persons with reduced mobility (PRM) will not cause
inconvenience/ discomfort to other passengers and that emergency evacuation and safety during the flight will be guaranteed.
280
9.2.1.3.6 Carriage of persons with reduced mobility (PRM)
The restrictions on PRM:
Ambulatory passengers:
Non ambulatory passengers:
281
Exemption regarding the maximum total number of PRM may be obtained from Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) when
wheelchair sport teams, special schools, etc. are travelling. On these flights, the number of PRM must never exceed the number of escorts.
282
Two copies of the Braille Safety Instruction are placed in
the stowage area above row 1 along with the Cabin Defect Logbook.
283
A trained guide dog may be carried in the cabin if it accompanies a passenger who is dependent upon it and if it is properly harnessed. The passenger and the guide dog will normally be seated at
a bulkhead seat, where there is sufficient floor space for the dog in A320/ 321 aircraft.
284
If the passengers prefer to use their own wheelchair within the airport, they shall
be permitted to use it up to the aircraft, whereupon it may be stowed at an appropriate place in the aircraft.
285
9.2.1.3.9 Stretcher Patients Policy
a) A320/ 321
A maximum of ___ passengers on a stretcher maybe carried and the PIC will be informed of the carriage.
01
286
The stretcher passenger will be classified as an escorted non ambulatory passenger.
The AME will ensure that the stretcher is placed and secured at:
A320 LHS aft rows 28, 29 and 30 AB.
A321 LHS aft rows 35, 36 and 37 AB
287
The patient will be secured by an adequate harness to the stretcher. Approval of carriage to be obtained from the Company Medical Officer (CMO) ___ prior to departure.
48 hours
288
The Company does not accept ___ carried by passengers who have the potential need for it throughout the course of flight.
supplemental oxygen
289
The company does not insist on ___ from persons with disability who wish to travel without escort and require assistance at an airport and a reasonable accommodation in flight.
medical certificates/ special forms
290
___ is a standardised form for medical clearance and handling. This information is used by Company Doctor to decide whether a medical transport can be accepted or not.
The Medical Information Form (MEDIF)
291
Layover Bags are not permitted in the cockpit. In D, H and K series stow the bags in
overhead bins other than row 1,2 & 3.
292
9.2.3.4 Maximum number of passengers
It is airline policy that no passenger or crew member shall travel unless he has been provided a seat with a safety belt. Present seat configuration as authorised by the DGCA, the passenger carrying capacity of company aircraft is:
A321 222/ 232
A320 180/ 186
293
The seat near the exit row should not be allotted to:
- Persons who are invalid/disabled.
- Persons below 15 years of age.
- Persons who are not able to read and understand instructions related to emergency evacuation provided in printed, handwritten or graphic form or do not have the ability to understand oral crew commands.
294
If the PIC suspects that an airplane is not loaded in accordance with the laid down procedure and limitation, he may order
weighing of all Commercial load. If the airplane is found overloaded, it shall be re-loaded as per the PIC's instructions. In such cases the PIC shall file a report to the Senior Vice President (Flight Operations).
295
Engineering spares are sometimes required to be carried on company flights. Some of these spares may be classified under Dangerous Goods. The company will carry all types of Engineering Spares including those which are classified as Dangerous Goods as ___.
COMAT
296
A ___ shall be provided to crew along with the Load & Trim sheet which will indicate the location and UN Number of the DG COMAT.
Special Load Notification (SLN)
297
9.2.4.3 Off Loading Priority
The following is the guideline for off-loading to meet load and trim requirements.
15 items
i) Company Stores/ mail
ii) Free Passengers
iii) Ordinary Cargo
iv) Excess baggage
v) Short shipped cargo
vi) Valuable Cargo
vii) Perishable Cargo
viii) Newspapers
ix) Post Office Mail
x) Staff on Duty except crew required for operation of flight/ training
xi) Dead Bodies
xii) AOG spares
xiii) Paying passengers and their baggage
xiv) PRM/ Incapacitated Passengers and their escorts
xv) Diplomatic Mail
298
Dead bodies may only be carried as freight in ___ in accordance with conditions laid down by the DGCA.
the baggage holds
299
9.2.5.6 Carriage of animals in passenger compartments A320/ 321
Not more than ___ containers of pets are carried at a time.
two
300
The Company aircraft do not have provision for ___ in cargo holds. Carriage of live cargo in the hold is not permissible.
temperature regulation
301
Note: While the company does not accept live animals as cargo (A320/321 and ATR 72), few live shipments which do not fall under category of live animals and do not require temperature control are permitted to be carried as Cargo. Example:
live fish seeds, shrimps, baby fish, live/ fresh fish, crabs, etc.
302
In case of severe brake overheat, ___ should result in tyres deflating and should prevent tyres burst.
fuse plugs melting
303
If a tyre is inflated, do not go near the area around the wheel for ___.
about one hour /
the front or rear and not from the side of the wheel.
304
Do not apply the extinguishing agent directly into the heat pack of the brake or into the wheel. This can cause ___ to the stressed parts. Especially, do not use CO2 as this has a strong cooling effect which is not the same in all areas. It can cause an explosion in the stressed parts.
thermal shock
305
In case cargo compartment smoke warning occurs with cargo door closed, the ground crew should be informed not to
open the door of the affected cargo compartment unless passengers have disembarked and fire-fighting services are present.
306
If the smoke warning is displayed on ground with cargo compartment door open, the aircraft extinguishing agent should
not be discharged. Ground crew should be requested to investigate and to fight the smoke source.
307
Engine tailpipe fire being an internal engine fire, does not require discharge of the engine fire-extinguishing agent. The agent has an effect on the nacelle fire only. ___ by the flight crew is the normal and most effective action.
Engine motoring
308
9.2.8.2.5 ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE
External fire agents can cause severe corrosive damage and therefore should only be considered if fire persists after flight crew procedure application or if no bleed air source is available to motor the engine. In such a case, ___ should be sprayed in engine exhaust nozzle.
Halon or CO2
309
9.2,10 Servicing of Airplanes Guidance on this is available in:
i) Aircraft Handling Manual
ii) Maintenance Manual
310
Cockpit crew must be in possession of the following mandatory documents prior to the flight:
4 items
i) Passenger manifest (with lead Cabin Crew)
ii) Crew Manifest
ili) Load and Trim Sheet
iv) NOTOC
Special Load notification
DGR notification (if carried)
311
The PIC shall give a written request to the Chief Aerodrome Security Officer (or any
other authorized Officer of Aviation Security Group) to disembark any person from
the aircraft on grounds of
risk to safety and security of the passengers and the crew.
312
9.3.2 Refusal of embarkation: En-route off loading
The PIC can refuse to carry or to off-load at any aerodrome any person if, in his opinion, the conduct, status, age or mental or physical condition of the person is such as to:
- render him incapable of caring for himself without special assistance of
Cabin Crew.
- cause discomfort or make himself objectionable to other passengers.
- involve any hazard or risk to himself or to other persons, to property or to the aircraft.
- he fails to observe instructions of the crew.
313
Passenger after boarding the aircraft; does not want to continue with the journey and intends to disembark at the point of origin or at transit station due to unforeseen circumstances. a) Permissible reasons:
i) When passenger or his companion has extreme medical condition; the doctor available at the station will be called on-board to examine the passenger.
ii) When the passenger has been informed of a sudden demise or an emergency involving immediate/ close family member.
314
9.4 SELF-DISEMBARKATION: PASSENGERS
After Doors closed: The decision to disembark a passenger who
needs immediate medical attention or in deep distress due to a family situation at home, rests with the PIC in consultation with the crew (and available doctor on board, if any).
315
9.4 SELF-DISEMBARKATION: PASSENGERS
This policy shall not be applicable in case of any inordinate delay due reasons such as
IROPS or diversion, where criteria for permitting self-disembarkation of a passenger would depend on the situation existing and extent of delay.
316
9.6 ILLNESS/ INJURY/ MEDICAL EMERGENCY IN FLIGHT/ GROUND
It is the PIC's responsibility to decide if
an immediate diversion and landing is required. Such a situation can be considered as an "Emergency".
317
In case, a passenger decides not to continue his journey, PIC will ensure that Airport Services have off loaded his checked-in baggage and cabin baggage. A revised ___ may be considered to ascertain that all necessary actions have been completed.
security release certificate
318
9.6.3 RESPONSE TO A MEDICAL SITUATION
If the cabin crew are given sufficient time to evaluate the situation at hand; a fair number of unnecessary turn backs/ Diversions can be avoided. It is obligatory on part of the PIC to
gather complete information before deciding to turn back/ divert.
319
RESPONSE TO A MEDICAL SITUATION
Air/ Ground turn back/ diversion should be considered only when
the condition poses a danger to the life of the passenger.
320
Suggested communication between the PIC and Cabin Crew:
To indicate when someone is unwell during taxi (or during any other stage of the flight)
"A passenger seated on ___ is unwell, please standby I shall revert post investigation."
321
Suggested communication between the PIC and Cabin Crew:
To indicate positive departure of aircraft when situation is under control (during taxi)
"Ready for takeoff."
322
Suggested communication between the PIC and Cabin Crew:
To indicate return when sick passenger requires hospitalization or urgent ground medical attention (during any stage of the flight)
"The passenger requires urgent ground medical assistance."
323
A passenger can be declared dead on board the aircraft only by a ___. If a medical practitioner is not on board and passenger is suspected to be dead, must be treated as a medical emergency and the Cabin Crew is to commence and continue CPR until a doctor declares that the passenger is dead.
certified medical practitioner
324
9.7 DEATH IN-FLIGHT/ GROUND
PIC shall send a message to the OCC and station of intended landing by any available means. The PIC, other crew and passengers, if required, witnessing the death will furnish necessary information regarding
the time, circumstances of death, etc.
325
9.7 DEATH IN-FLIGHT/ GROUND
The PIC must complete a report in a specified form ___ which records the name of the deceased person, nationality, the time of the death, location and registration of the aircraft. One copy of this report is to be given to ground authorities at destination and another to Chief of Flight Safety through Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) at the earliest.
(FSF 006)
326
9.7.1 Disinfesting the aircraft
In case of a Death on-board the Aircraft, getting the Aircraft Disinfested is mandatory prior to operating the next flight.
To avoid the AOG situation or delay, the aircraft can be disinfested by using ___ in the aircraft.
Bacillol 25 spray (Ready to use Surface & Equipment Disinfectant)
327
9.8 NOTIFICATION OF SUSPECTED COMMUNICABLE DISEASE
The PIC of an aircraft must promptly report a suspected communicable disease to ATC to facilitate provision of medical equipment and personnel for the management of public health risk on arrival of aircraft. Transmission to ATC must contain the following information but not limited to:
The aircraft's call sign, aerodrome of departure, destination aerodrome, estimated time of arrival, number of persons affected, number of persons on board, nature of public health if known and the words "communicable disease".
328
___ are e-cigarettes, personal vaporizers, vape pens, e-cigars, e-hookah, or vaping devices etc. that produce an aerosolized mixture containing flavoured liquids and nicotine that is inhaled by the user.
Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS)
329
PIC will be given the Flight delay information (Previous sector) (for all the previous legs the aircraft has flown) along with ___ before the flight.
METAR
330
The reasons for late arrival from previous station shall be conveyed by the flight crew through an announcement in the aircraft during pre-flight preparation, wherein:
a) The accumulated delay could be due to multiple reasons.
b) If there are multiple reasons, only two most significant ones are to be quoted for the delay.
c) If the delay duration is significant, PIC may include the duration of delay
331
9.12 LIVE HUMAN ORGAN TRANSPORTATION
Process to be followed by Pilot-in-Command
Basis advance information / NOTOC request ATC for ___ to expedite the process.
priority start-up and landing
332
Rescue aircraft belonging to permanent Search and Rescue Units use the call sign ___. If more than one aircraft is engaged on Search and Rescue duties, a serial number is added to the basic call sign.
ZIGZAG
333
11.1.5.1 Minimum Cockpit Experience (Domestic)
The operating crew shall have minimum ___ hrs total cockpit experience on type wherein PIC hours are considered from RELEASE on type and Co-pilot hours are considered after ENDORSEMENT on type.
500
334
11.1.5.1 Minimum Cockpit Experience (International)
The operating crew shall have additional experience on type before being planned for international flights as under:
PIC 100 hours as PIC
Co-Pilot Line Release
335
11.1.6.2 One way Command
The pilot whose name appears on ___ as PIC shall only log the flight time as PIC.
FRC
336
11.2.1 Succession in command
The following shall be the immediate succession in command in the event of incapacitation/ death of the PIC until instructions are received from Senior Vice President (Flight Operations):
i) Co-Pilot
ii) Safety Pilot (In case of a training flight) if available
iii) ACM Examiner/ Instructor/ LTC
iv) ACM Line Captain rated on aircraft, if available
1. Safety Pilot, if available, shall take over the command.
2. ACM First Officer, if available, shall assist the Co-Pilot.
3. A pilot with a current command endorsement on type, if on board, may be instructed to assume Command. Alternatively, the Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) may instruct any senior pilot on board to assume command.
4. Any Pilot who so assumes Command shall not handle the controls if he does not hold a current endorsement on type.
337
A pilot can fly with CA 35 for a maximum of ___ months from the date of issue.
03
338
The pre-flight breath test will be carried out by ___ type breath analyzer equipment at a designated preflight room. Preflight/ Post flight medical test is to be done only in the "Auto" mode.
ALCO-SENSOR
339
Taxi fuel, which shall be the amount of fuel expected to be consumed before
take-off taking into account local conditions at the departure aerodrome and auxiliary power unit (APU) fuel consumption.
340
Trip fuel, which shall be the amount of fuel required to
enable the aeroplane to fly from take-off or the point of in-flight re-planning until landing at the destination aerodrome taking into account the operating conditions.
341
Contingency fuel, which shall be the amount of fuel required to
[Route Reserve (RTE RSV) in CFP]
(5% of the trip fuel or 200 Kg whichever is higher.)
compensate for unforeseen factors. Shall not be lower than the amount required to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions;
342
CONTINGENCY FUEL
Unforeseen factors are those which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome, such as deviations of
- an individual aeroplane from the expected fuel consumption data,
- deviations from forecast meteorological conditions,
- extended taxi times before take-off, and
- deviations from planned routings and/ or cruising levels.
343
DESTINATION ALTERNATE FUEL
i) Where a destination alternate aerodrome is required, the amount of fuel required to enable the aeroplane to
- perform a missed approach at the destination aerodrome,
- climb to the expected cruising altitude,
- fly the expected routing,
- descend to the point where the expected approach is initiated; and
- conduct the approach and landing at the destination alternate aerodrome; or
344
DESTINATION ALTERNATE FUEL
where a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome, the amount of fuel required to
enable the aeroplane to fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, or
345
DESTINATION ALTERNATE FUEL
where the aerodrome of intended landing is an isolated aerodrome; the amount of fuel required to
fly for two hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel,
346
final reserve fuel, which shall be the amount of fuel calculated using
estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome or the destination aerodrome, when no destination alternate aerodrome is required; the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
347
additional fuel, which shall be the supplementary amount of fuel required if the minimum fuel calculated is not sufficient to:
i) allow the aeroplane to descend as necessary and proceed to an alternate aerodrome in the event of engine failure or loss of pressurization, whichever requires the greater amount of fuel based on the assumption that such a failure occurs at the most critical point along the route: fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1 500 ft) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, and make an approach and landing,
ii) allow an aeroplane engaged in EDTO to comply with the EDTO critical fuel scenario as established,
iii) meet additional requirements not covered above.
348
Discretionary fuel, which shall be the extra amount of fuel to be carried at the discretion of
the pilot-in-command.
349
For a flight to be conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules, at least one destination alternate aerodrome shall be selected and specified in the operational and ATS flight plans, unless: a) The duration of the flight from the departure aerodrome, or from the point of in-flight re-planning to the destination aerodrome is such that, taking into account all meteorological conditions and operational information relevant to the flight, at the estimated time of use, a reasonable certainty exists that:
i) the approach and landing may be made under visual meteorological conditions; and
ii) separate runways are usable at the estimated time of use of the destination aerodrome with at least one runway having an operational instrument approach procedure; or
350
For a flight to be conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules, at least one destination alternate aerodrome shall be selected and specified in the operational and ATS flight plans, unless:
The aerodrome is isolated. Operations into isolated aerodromes do not require the selection of
a destination alternate aerodrome(s) and shall be planned in accordance with following criteria:
i) for each flight into an isolated aerodrome a point of no return shall be determined; and
ii) a flight to be conducted to an isolated aerodrome shall not be continued past the point of no return unless a current assessment of meteorological conditions, traffic, and other operational conditions indicate that a safe landing can be made at the estimated time of use.
351
12.1.2 DESTINATION ALTERNATE AERODROME CONSIDERATION
Separate runways are two or more runways at the same aerodrome configured such that
if one runway is closed, operations to the other runway(s) can be conducted.
352
12.1.2 DESTINATION
ALTERNATE AERODROME CONSIDERATION
The company is operating to ___ isolated aerodromes.
0 / NIL
353
Two destination alternate aerodromes shall be selected and specified in the operational and ATS flight plans when, for the destination aerodrome:
i) meteorological conditions at the estimated time of use will be below the operator's established aerodrome operating minima for that operation; or
ii) Meteorological information is not available.
354
Cost index (CI) is a number presenting the ratio of
the time-related cost of an airplane operation and the cost of fuel. The value of the CI reflects the relative effects of fuel cost on overall trip cost as compared to time-related direct operating costs.
355
In case of a diversion, alternate sector will be flown at
system default Cost Index 0.
356
Cost Index Computed Econ climb, cruise and descent speeds will be maintained above ___. ATC mandated speeds are to be maintained in terminal areas.
FL100
357
The result of engine-deterioration analysis is an adjustment factor that needs to be applied to all fuel burn calculations for a specific aircraft and is called ___.
PERF Factor
358
A flight should not land at destination with fuel below
Min Destination FOB; Alternate + Final Reserve Fuel.
359
The amount of EXTRA FUEL for each flight is arrived at after extensive analysis to include all probable delay factors (such as
extended taxi times, APU usage, airport capacity constraints, holding over destination due congestion and/or weather, standard instrument departure and arrival procedures, and other real-time factors prevailing for a particular flight e.g. Cold Weather Operations from an Airfield))
360
There may be instances (e.g. ___ ) when a suitable destination alternate is not available then the requirement laid down in 12.1.2 (b) must be considered keeping in view the forecast meteorological conditions en-route and at destination at the expected time of arrival and for a period of two hours thereafter will assure a safe landing.
Port Blair
361
The PIC should have sufficient reasons to justify this additional uplift ___. Crew is expected to mention adequate reasons.
CREW DISCRETIONARY FUEL
362
Fuel consumption for every sector is recorded and consumption pattern is reviewed, every ___ days, to check for any variations or alarming trend, which may need immediate action.
ten
363
Company flight plan calculates fuel from take-off to ___ at destination. An extra fuel is added to cater for ___
1500ft & IAP/SID/STARS.
364
___ (A320/A321) shall be added respectively for a flight being conducted in Cold Weather operations.
500 Kg
365
Flights with no alternate available
Minimum Fuel:
a) Taxi Fuel
b) Trip Fuel
c) Route Reserve (RTE RSV)/ Contingency fuel
d) Fuel for missed approach at Destination
AND ___
e) Fuel for 02 hours at Normal Cruise Consumption
366
Depending on operational requirements (e.g. ___ ), the company will stipulate the amount of fuel that can be tankered on a specific sector based on MTOW, Landing weight limitations or the fuel requirement for the subsequent sector.
no fuel at destination and/ or the fuel cost differential
367
Block Fuel (Total fuel rounded off to next ___) will be the amount of fuel at chocks off.
hundred
368
The pilot will cross check ___ at each check point so as to monitor fuel consumption and be alerted to any fuel leakage.
the fuel remaining and fuel consumed
369
The flight crew is to record on the OFP the fuel quantity and time at a regular interval of approximately ___ minutes and/ or over the closest waypoints.
30
370
A diversion should be initiated at a time such that
minimum of 30 minutes holding fuel at 1500 ft is available at the alternate.
371
Consequent to adoption of Amendment 36 to ICAO Annex 6 Part I, a three-step process has been introduced whereby the Flight crew notifies ATC of the progression of their Fuel State when it has been determined by the crew that they are nearing a critical Fuel situation.
a) PIC shall request delay information from ATC when unanticipated circumstances may result in landing at the destination aerodrome with less than the final reserve fuel plus any fuel required to proceed to an alternate aerodrome. (In the Indian airspace a 10 min notice to MDF is relayed to the ATC).
b) PIC shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring MINIMUM FUEL when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than the planned final reserve fuel.
C) PIC shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting 'MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL', when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made, is less than the planned final reserve fuel.
372
The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that
all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than the planned final reserve fuel. This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur.
It is also recommended that while declaring "Minimum Fuel" pilot should report endurance in minutes. This is primarily to enable ATC to conduct efficient sequencing.
373
It is important to note that in this case, the MINIMUM FUEL phraseology was used as intended to convey the fuel status of the aeroplane. It was neither
a declaration of urgency nor an emergency declaration and the aeroplane was treated as cleared of keeping the same approach sequence.
374
The MINIMUM FUEL declaration was simply used by the PIC to make ATC aware that
circumstances had reached a point where any further change to the current clearance could have resulted in an emergency due to fuel.
375
12.10 RE-DISPATCH POLICY AND PROCEDURE
Re-dispatch is a means of carrying reduced
contingency fuel in comparison to a standard flight plan by taking advantage of inflight replanning while complying with DGCA CAR.
376
Under re-dispatch, the flight is dispatched to be flown to the re-dispatch point (RDP) under Part-I of a two-part flight plan. RDP is the decision point at which the decision is made to
continue to the destination or to an enroute airport for refuelling
377
Refuelling Alternate: An Alternate airport at which
the aircraft would be able to land should it become impossible or inadvisable to land at the refuelling airport on a flight dispatched using re-dispatch.
378
Refuelling airport: An Aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land enroute for refuelling if the minimum fuel required to proceed to destination is not met at the Re-Dispatch Point.
379
Flight crew shall identify flights to be flown using re-dispatch by checking for a
re-clear message in the first page of CFP that highlights "Decrease in enroute reserve fuel due to authorized re-clear",
380
Flight crew shall ensure that information on latest meteorological conditions prevailing at re-fuelling airport are obtained through D-ATIS, ATC or ACARS from company at least ___ prior to the flight's arrival at RDP and prior to executing the re-dispatch flight.
one hour
381
If the AFOB is lesser than fuel required to continue to destination at RDP and diversion to refuelling airport is necessitated, PIC should inform ATC using the phraseology:
"IFLY XXXX REQUEST CLEARANCE TO DIVERT TO FILED RE-DISPATCH AIRPORT XXXX FOR REFUELLING".
382
Re-dispatch procedure may be applied to all flights within the network with a flight time beyond
03 Hrs 30 minutes.
383
All redispatch flight plans contain the re-clear message in the first page of CFP stating
"PLS NOTE DECREASE IN ENRT RES DUE AUTHORIZED RECLEAR"
384
Criterion for selection of airports for Re-dispatch
- Refuelling airport and destination airport should be at a distance of at least 50NM.
- The refuelling airport, refuelling alternate, destination and destination alternate should be four different airports.
385
Re-dispatch is not planned for:
* flights arriving into Hong Kong,
* flights arriving into airports in China and
* flight arriving into VIDP (between November-February)
* During en-route adverse weather conditions
386
13.2.3 Crew protective breathing equipment
This equipment protects the eyes, nose and mouth of each crewmember while on
duty and to provide oxygen for a period of not less than ___.
15 minutes
387
14.1.3 Policy for using standard weights
Standard weights for passengers and crew
- Crew
- Adults (Male and Female)
- Child (between 2 and 12 years)
- Infant (less than 2 years)
85 Kg (75+10 Kg)
75 Kg
35 Kg
10 Kg
Note: The above weights include hand baggage
388
The PIC shall sign the Load and Trim sheet after having checked it for correctness. PIC is to ensure that the Load and Trim Officer's name, signature, approval number along with the PIC's
name,
signature,
ATPL number,
date and time (UTC)
389
14.1.7 LOAD AND TRIM SHEET LAST MINUTE CHANGE (LMC) PROCEDURES
Last Minute Change means any change concerning
Crew Count & Traffic Load: passengers, baggage, cargo occurring after the issuance of the Load and Trim sheet.
390
LOAD AND TRIM SHEET
A Last Minute Change is permitted only if the changes of the load are no greater then ___ for A320/321 and is within prescribed limits:
MZFW, TOW & LW are not exceeded
No loading limitation is exceeded
ZFW CG and TOW CG remain within allowed limits
500Kg
391
14.1.7 LOAD AND TRIM SHEET LAST MINUTE CHANGE (LMC) PROCEDURES
Only ___ LMC change is permitted. Fresh Load and Trim sheet is required for ___ change. Any last-minute change in ___ will warrant issuance of a new 'load and trim' sheet.
one
second
'fuel'
392
Standard Specific gravity ___ is used in the Load & Trim Sheet for computing weight & Index of fuel and oil. The specific gravity is indicated in the ___.
(0.785kg/I)
fuel uplift section of the tech log
393
14.3.1 Edition Number of Load & Trim Sheet
The Load & Trim application, used to generate Load Sheet (ACARS, automated or Mobile device) is designed in a way, that it increases the Edition Number each time the Load & Trim Staff ___
saves the data in the system.
394
The ___ is the most cost effective and efficient mode.
Minimizing the use of ___ reduces the cost by a big margin.
- Mobile App to print Load & Trim sheet through blue tooth printer
- ACARS Load sheet using A4 printer
395
In case of an exigency, such as normal communications system failure a pilot may SELF-DISPATCH. The PIC will ensure that:
5 items
i) Flight plan is filed with the local ATC,
ii) A copy of the printout of FMS generated Operational Flight Plan is provided to Load & Trim staff at the departure airport and advise load & trim staff to file such flight plans along with the station copy of signed Load & Trim sheet,
iii) The PIC will establish timely communication with the operational control facility as soon as possible after commencement of the flight,
iv) The PIC will advise the contents of the flight plan to operational control,
v) A written report outlining the circumstances will be forwarded to Flight Operations as soon as possible after the termination of the flight.
396
In the event of a computer failure and Flight Dispatch is unable to produce electronic flight plans, Flight Dispatch will use the ___ by applying an appropriate route reserve based on current weather conditions and applicable
NOTAMs on the route to be flown.
historical Flight Plan Data
397
16.2.2 Manual Flight Planning
Accuracy of the flight plan may be confirmed using any or all the procedures below as required:
After building the flight plan in the FMS, crew will take a printout of the FMS flight plan and use it to
monitor/ record the progress of flight. Post flight, all such print outs will be placed in the flight folder.
398
17.0 STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES FOR EACH PHASE OF FLIGHT
Deviation from SOPs is often the starting point of contributory factors that culminate into an incident or accident. Most incidents and accidents do not occur because of a single event but are because of
a series of events that are often linked to nonadherence to SOPs
399
Crew Resource Management is the effective utilisation of
all available resources (crew members, aircraft systems and supporting facilities etc) to achieve safe and efficient operations.
400
The basic elements of CRM to be understood and applied during the line operations are as under but not limited to:
Teamwork
Communications
Workload and automation management
Situational awareness
Aeronautical decision making
Conflict resolution
Leadership and team management
Fatigue and stress management
401
Crew Reporting time
The reporting time shall be in accordance with Chapter 2, however, at all stations the PIC and co-pilot shall be at the aircraft at least ___ prior to departure time for the A320/ 321
35 minutes
402
Minimum Aerodrome fire fighting category required is
6/ 7 for A320/ 321. City standby cannot be considered for this purpose.
403
17.1.2.2 Performance limited airfields
Dibrugarh (VEMN), Jammu (VIJU), Patna ( VEPT), Dehradun (VIDN), Port Blair (VOPB), Silchar (VEKU), Srinagar (VISR), Rajkot (VARK) Lengpuil (VELP), Kathmandu (VNKT), Leh (VILH)
404
At planning stage, no performance limited airfield shall be filed as
Destination/ Takeoff Alternate.
405
VNKT (Kathmandu), VELP (Lengpui), VILH (Leh) have been mentioned separately despite being Performance Limited Airfields as the requirements for
Cat 'C' airfields are governed by OC 2 of 2012.
406
In case of PIC incapacitation, the crew who are not qualified to land at that airfield, should consider diversion to
suitable alternate airfield.
407
17.1.6.1 Global Reporting Format
GRF is a standardized report which uses a common language for
disseminating the conditions of runways. The GRF forms the essential link between the runway condition and aircraft performance.
408
GRF requires familiarization of five fundamental elements:
a) Runway surface conditions / 4 RWY SFC conditions: Dry, Wet, Slippery Wet, Contaminated.
b) Runway surface descriptors / 9 descriptors: Compacted snow, Dry snow, Frost, Ice, Slush, Wet, Standing water, Wet Ice, Wet Snow.
c) Runway condition report (RCR) / 2 Sections: Aircraft performance calculation section (Mandatory); and Situational awareness section (Optional)
d) The Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM),
e) Runway condition code (RWYCC) / to permit an operational aircraft performance calculation by the flight crew.
409
In the case of different RWYCCs on different thirds, the basic recommendation is to use
the lowest one for performance determination.
410
In written RCR format, the lower runway designator is always used. If the opposite end R/W is in use, the sequence of the RWYCC, percentage of contamination coverage and depth of the loose contaminants of the different thirds of the runway is
to be read backwards.
In ATIS or any ATS verbal communication, the sequence given will be for the operational Runway in use.
411
Flight Deck will be manned whenever re-fuelling is in progress with passengers on board, embarking or disembarking. the cabin crew updated. In the rare case that operating crew is not available, the ___ will man the cockpit.
engineering staff
412
Engineering staff will collect the fuel chit from the pilot(s) indicating the final fuel figure, duly signed by the PIC. This will be the 'signal' of
the operating PIC being in command including all the responsibilities.
413
The cockpit crew will cross check requisite fuel on board and put the Seat Belt sign 'On' as an indication to the cabin crew that
re-fuelling is over.
414
During the period of re-fuelling at least one pilot shall be in the cockpit and maintain due vigilance. During the entire process the Emergency Exit Light switch is to remain in
ARM position.
415
It is reiterated that if passengers are either on board or embarking or disembarking, engineering is to make sure that the bowser is not connected to the aircraft and no re-fuelling is to be initiated until and unless
the cockpit is manned.
416
17.1.7.1.1 Cockpit cabin communication on commencement of fueling/ re-fueling
Inform the Cabin Crew by any of the means:
1) Announce on PA "Refueling in progress"
2) On intercom
3) Personally
417
Indication for completion of refuelling is when 'REFUELG' Memo disappears or confirmation from ground. Select 'Seat Belt' Sign On and ensure 'NO PED'/ 'No Smoking' Sign/ 'NO DEVICE' On. ___ is required to indicate completion of fuelling.
No verbal intimation
418
The ATC flight plan must be filed at least ___ hour before the Estimated Off-Block Time (EOBT)
03
419
The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable in the event of a delay for which a flight plan has been submitted: ___ hour in excess of the estimated off-block time for a controlled flight
one
420
ATC may initiate an amended clearance for traffic requirement and if concurrence between the PIC and an ATC controller is not possible, the flight is continued under
the emergency authority of the PIC.
421
An ATC clearance is not an authorisation for a pilot to deviate from any regulation or to conduct an unsafe operation. If due to severe weather, an immediate deviation is required, ___ will be exercised and ATC advised accordingly. A pilot should question any clearance or any part of a clearance that he does not understand.
the pilot's emergency authority
422
Flight crew are to restrict the aircraft rate of Climb/ Descend to 1500 feet/ min or less, by ___ to the assigned altitude/ flight level.
2000 feet
423
The Technical Log page has three copies
- White copy Aircraft Records
- Yellow copy Departing Station
- Green copy Remains in the FRB
424
When the ADD/CDD page of FRB is changed the new book should indicate all
the deferred maintenance or a signed statement indicating NO DEFERRED MAINTENANCE from previous book.
425
For the purpose of ___, Engineering requires to be informed whenever TOGA power is used in A320/ 321.
Engine Condition Monitoring
426
In transit, if a snag arises, either pilot will
go to the step ladder and inform the Lead Cabin Crew to call for the engineer.
Do not wait for the FRB to be delivered in the cockpit to report such a snag.
427
Any cabin defect items affecting the aircraft airworthiness, including but not limited to Emergency Lights, Passenger Address System, Passenger Warning Signs, Toilets, Oxygen, Safety Equipment, Interphone, Doors, Bulkheads, Seat structures, Windows, must be transferred by the PIC to
the Aircraft Technical Log Sector Record page.
428
All CB resets (successful/ unsuccessful) must be mentioned in the ___, not limited to the ones mentioned in the QRH.
Technical Log
429
Any abnormal occurrences such as Heavy landing (actual/ suspected), flight through severe turbulence, lightning strike, wildlife strikes , mo/ Vfe exceedance, any ECAM that appeared either momentarily during flight or remains post landing (to cover failure, duration, effect on operations), spurious/ actual EGPWS warnings/ cautions, and RAs must be reported in
Technical Log.
430
If no defect or abnormality is observed during flight, a ___ Report must be entered in the PDR.
Sector Snag NIL
431
Prior To signing Security Clearance, the PIC will ensure with the lead that
passengers are seated and cabin is ready for closing aircraft doors.
432
Ground Initiated
When the ground wishes to re-establish communications with the airplane the sequence shall be as follows: i) The ground crew shall attract the attention of the cockpit crew by flashing the signal wands at night, or by waving the headset by day. ii) The airplane acknowledges by
flashing Nav and logo light.
433
Cockpit Initiated
When there is a need to re-establish communications between the cockpit and the ground, a visual signal should be used. i) Nose/ landing/ Runway turn off lights shall ___ while on the bay. Use of these lights may have a blinding effect on the ground personnel.
not be used
434
After the PM has read back the taxi clearance, the PF will
repeat aloud his understanding of the clearance and only after that shall the airplane be taxied out.
435
When two airplane are taxiing, the following airplane should maintain a minimum distance of
200 ft (60m).
436
Planning for taxi operations is an integral part of the Flight Crew's flight planning process. Planning should be done in two main phases.
First, anticipate aerodrome surface movements by doing pre-taxi or pre-landing planning based on information on the automatic terminal information service (ATIS), previous experience at that aerodrome, and review of the aerodrome chart. Second, once taxi instructions are received, the pre-taxi plans should be reviewed and updated as necessary.
437
Flight Crew should use a ___ process for actively monitoring and updating their progress and location during taxi.
"continuous loop"
This includes knowing the aircraft's present location and mentally calculating the next location on the route that will require increased attention.
438
After landing, when you are on an exit taxiway that is between parallel runways, taxi your aircraft clear of the landing runway unless
you are constrained by a hold-short line associated with the adjacent parallel runway.
439
The primary way the Flight Crew and AT communicate is by voice. The safety and efficiency of taxi operations at aerodromes with operating control towers depend on this
"communication loop"
440
Maintain a "sterile" cockpit. Flight crewmembers must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by
non-flight related matters, such as eating meals, engaging in non-essential conversation, or reading material not related to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft.
441
Readback all hold short and runway crossing instructions and clearances, all takeoff and landing clearances, including the
runway designator
442
Unless a special procedure specifies or in an emergency, no turn after take-off shall be executed below
500 ft AGL (A320/ 321)
443
The PM shall call ___ before assigned level, the interception of any cleared/ desired track and carry out the R/T.
1,000 ft
444
The Indian airspace is classified as class C and D. Class D airspace restricts a speed limit of 250k below ___, for IFR flights. In Class C airspace ECON speed/ ATC requested speed may be followed, as per respective Class C limit.
FL 100
445
17.3.1.10 ATS Air Space in India
The ATS airspace in India is designated and classified into
Class C, D, E, F, and
G.
446
In-flight diversion may be required for following situations but not limiting to:
- Operational or weather conditions (Destination weather deterioration, inflight weather)
- Technical reasons (systems degradation),
- Loss/ partial thrust on one engine,
- Emergencies necessitating landing at a suitable alternate/ nearest airfield,
- Passenger in need of immediate medical assistance,
447
The least turbulence in a thunderstorm mass is found at times, ___. This space, though cloud filled, may be upto a mile and a half in width and if it were possible to accurately locate this area, it is probable that most thunderstorms could be circumnavigated with relative ease.
between the cells
448
If practical flight through thunderstorm areas should be avoided, especially at levels at which the outside air temperature is between
plus 5 and minus 5 degrees centigrade.
449
Downdrafts start approximately one third way down the cloud and accelerate to almost ground level. The earth surface then causes the downdraft to spread out laterally causing areas of violent windshear. Flight in the ___ of thunderstorms should be avoided at all times.
lower two thirds
450
Hail forms in the thunderstorm cell which is in the building stage and falls from it, when the cell has progressed to the ___.
matured stage
451
All incidents of lightning strikes should be reported in the
PDR for maintenance action.
452
GAIN AND INTENSITY WEATHER RADAR
In manual mode, the ___ is the most significant means of regulating radar performance. It allows manual adjustment of the radar sensitivity for more detailed assessment of weather conditions.
gain control
453
In some WX radars, colour ___ is provided to represent WET turbulent air flow that in essence indicates a large variation in rain drop movement with associated turbulence.
Magenta
454
Maximum precipitation is likely to occur between
18000 and 32000 ft
455
Best search tilt at high altitude is achieved with the antenna adjusted just low enough to
paint on ground return at the outer edge of the scope.
456
Approximate distances from the contour edge of the red area by which the weather is to be avoided:
- During departure/ arrival/ 10000ft 5nm
- Above 10000ft and below 25000ft 10nm.
- Areas of steep gradient, scallops, hooks and fingers 20nm at all altitudes
- Above 25000ft 20nm. (Above 35,000ft an additional margin may be considered)
457
If required to overfly a mature cell, stay above the top by at least
5000ft.
458
17.3.6.3.1 Terminology for reporting the Intensity of Ice
i) Traces of Ice
ii) Light Ice
iii) Moderate Ice
iv) Severe Ice
459
17.3.6.3.1 Terminology for reporting Type of ICE
i) Rime Ice
ii) Clear Ice
iii) Mix Ice
460
When the minima is below 800 m visibility, landing is not authorised unless
RVR information is available.
461
If turbulence intensifies to a degree where turbulence in excess of moderate may be encountered, it is recommended that holding be made with
flaps up at the turbulence penetration target speed. In this case ATC should be informed.
462
Jet streams stronger than ___ (at the core) are apt to have areas of significant turbulence near them in the sloping Tropopause above the core, in the jet stream front below the core, and on the low pressure side of the core.
110 KTs
463
CAT is also related to vertical shear. From the winds aloft charts or reports, compute the vertical shear in Knots per thousand feet, if it is greater than ___, turbulence is likely.
5 Kts per thousand feet
464
When the airshaft of a microburst reaches the ground, it mushrooms outward carrying with it a large number of falling rain droplets. The radar is able to measure the droplets speed variations thus assessing wind variations. This forward-looking capability to assess wind variations is carried out through the
Predictive Windshear System (PWS).
465
The rotation should be normal and FD command should be followed, as the FD is certified to have windshear handling capability. In fact the FD pitch mode ensures
the best aircraft climb performance.
466
During approach if windshear is likely, delay landing or divert to another airport until the conditions are more favourable.
Select the ___ landing flap position consistent with the field length.
minimum
467
Predictive windshear aural warning is provided ___, in case the aircraft is likely to encounter windshear.
"Windshear Ahead"
468
If the predictive windshear aural warning is generated during take-off roll, the PIC should
reject the take-off (the aural warning is inhibited above 100 kt).
469
In case aircraft enters windshear before V1, detected by pilot observation, with significant airspeed variations and the PIC decides that there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the airplane, he should
initiate a reject take-off.
470
If the aircraft encounters windshear after V1, the crew should
select maximum rated thrust and rotate smoothly at a normal rate towards the target pitch attitude indicated by the FD bar. The configuration should not be changed until definitely out of the shear as the operation of the landing gear doors induces additional drag.
471
___ protection in fly by wire aircraft allows the PF to pull safely full aft stick, if needed, to follow FD pitch order or to rapidly counteract a down movement. This provides maximum lift with no fear of stalling the aircraft.
The high angle of attack
472
Over Indian subcontinent following two types of jet streams are prominently active:
i) Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) occurs in winter season
ii) Tropical Easterly Jet Stream (TEJ) occurs in rainy season.
473
Flight in areas of known volcanic activity must be avoided. The areas are notified by
Class 1 NOTAMS and SIGMET messages.
474
The presence of volcanic ash may be indicated by:
- Smoke or dust appearing in the cockpit. An acrid odour similar to electrical smoke
- Multiple engine malfunctions, such as stalls, increasing EGT, torching from tailpipe, flameout, etc.
- At night, St. Elmo's fire/ static discharges, observed around the windshield, accompanied by a bright orange glow in the engine inlets.
475
Engines are very slow to accelerate to idle at high altitude, which may be interpreted as
a failure to start or as an engine malfunction.
476
All cases/ encounters of volcanic ash will be reported to Flight Safety on form
FSF 019.
477
When approaching a squall a line, enter at ___ to the wind shift line because this flight path involves the shortest distance through the zone.
a right angle
If the clouds can be topped, 'ON TOP' flight is recommended.
478
Blowing sand (BLSA) is described similarly to blowing dust (BLDU), but it is more ___
localized
479
These local storms raise loose dust from the ground up to heights of over 10,000 ft. They are hence called dust storms. In northern India summer dust storms of this type are known by the local name of ___
"Andhis" (blinding storms).
480
When conditions favourable for tornado formation occur over the sea, the funnel sucks up sea spray and water which may reach up to the base of the main cloud. This phenomenon is known as a
water spout.
481
Every year, during the months March to May, West Bengal, adjoining Bihar, Orissa, Jharkhand and North East States are affected by violent thunderstorms which cause considerable aviation hazards and life. These are called ___ because they often approach a station from North Westerly direction.
Nor'westers / 'Kalbaishakis'.
482
The conditions most favourable to wave formation over mountainous areas are
a layer of stable air at mountain-top altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.
483
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as standing
lenticular clouds.
However, these observations should not be used to estimate the strength of the vertical motions or associated turbulence.
484
In meteorology, air temperature at the earth's surface is normally measured at a height of about ___ above the ground.
1.20 m (4ft)
485
A temperature inversion will result in a reduction of the thrust only when
performing a maximum take-off thrust during hot days, i.e., the actual ambient temperature is above TREF (Flat rating temperature).
486
In the event of temperature inversion, the climb performance will be affected in the cases where
the thrust is affected. However, to affect the aircraft performance, a temperature inversion must be combined with other factors.
487
A temperature inversion could become a concern during the takeoff only in the following worst cases with all of these conditions put together:
- The engine failure occurs at V1,and
- Take-off is performed at maximum take-off thrust, and
- High OAT (close to or above TREF for A320/ 321), and
- The take-off weight is limited by obstacles, and
- The temperature inversion is such that it results in the regulatory net flight path margin cancellation and leads to fly below the regulatory net flight path.
488
The airport authority uses a surface friction testing vehicle to determine the runway surface friction characteristics in respect of wet paved runways at airports in India. When the surface friction level drops below a specific level, ___ will be initiated by the airport authority. Appropriately when required NOTAM will be originated with the information that RWY may be slippery when wet.
maintenance action
489
Runway Condition Code (RwyCC): The RwyCC code reflects the summary of
mu (u) Values (runway friction coefficient reported numerically), contaminant observations, and braking action reports. The RwyCC code levels vary between a low of zero to a high of six.
490
Contaminated runway means a runway of which
more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the contaminants.
491
Aircraft operations (Taxi, Take-off and Landing) are permitted on Contaminated Runways with performance level reported up to
"Medium to poor" also designated as Runway Condition Code '2' in accordance with the RCAM (eQRH/ FCOM) and/ or equivalent ESF/AIREP. Operations on runways with performance level reported as 'Poor' (Code 1) and 'Nil' are prohibited.
492
If there is likelihood of moderate/ heavy rain, Flight crew must perform a conservative backup in-flight landing performance assessment associated with
Braking Performance Level, i.e. 'Medium to Poor' in addition to the one for 'Reported' runway condition. This back up assessment is to be carried out before TOD.
493
If the Runway Condition is reported as "Slippery wet"/ "Slippery when wet" (NOTAM or other sources), determine the landing distance in accordance with:
Slippery wet Medium (Code 3) equivalent to 'Medium'
494
17.3.6.12.3 Runway condition multiple reports in different performance categories
The flight crew downgrades primary Braking Performance Level, if:
- A Pilot Report of Braking Action (AIREP) is available and corresponds to a lower Braking Performance Level
- A SNOWTAM includes a lower RwyCC, or the ESF corresponds to a lower Braking Performance Level.
The flight crew must NOT UPGRADE a primary Braking Performance Level using a AIREP, ESF or any other complementary information.
495
Monsoon Operations
Minimum total cockpit experience level of the PIC and the Co-Pilot should not be less than ___ hours on type.
500
496
STL is not permitted in actual monsoon conditions. However, this does not apply to
PICs/UT PICs flying under supervision.
497
Monsoon Operations
ILS approaches are to be preferred to non-precision approaches. In case of NPA, they should be flown as CDFA. RNP approaches should be preferred over the other NPAs. Optimum level of automation should be used.
Early stabilised approaches are recommended. Go Around in case of long float is mandatory.
498
In case of suspected windshear TOGA thrust is recommended and the acceleration altitude may be modified to
1500ft to ensure SRS windshear guidance.
499
The auto brake DECEL light might not illuminate, if
at least 80% of the desired deceleration rate is not achieved, therefore deceleration should be confirmed by the speed trend arrow and the deceleration felt by the crew.
500
When the aircraft is parked on the ground during heavy rain, rainwater can seep into the avionics ventilation system via
the open skin air inlet valve.
501
The 'EXTRACT' push button on the overhead 'VENTILATION' panel should be switched to 'OVRD' and Parking Brakes should be ON (when parked) to
prevent rainwater from entering the avionics ventilation system. The 'EXTRACT' push button should be restored to 'AUTO' if heavy rain stops or after the aircraft is airborne.
502
If the runway is contaminated, in addition to the General conditions at sub para a) above, the following shall also apply:
i) For approach and landing; Minimum CAT I conditions are prevailing.
ii) No visual approaches are to be conducted.
iii) Single Engine Taxi is not permitted.
iv) Use of TOGA thrust is mandatory for take-off.
v) Autoland is not permitted
vi) Maximum speed for Runway vacation is restricted to 10 kts
503
The following equipment must be fully serviceable for flights to and from aerodromes with forecast or actual adverse weather conditions irrespective of the type of aircraft:
i) Weather RADAR
ii) Windshield wipers on both sides
504
Following devices shall be serviceable for contaminated runway operations:
- Wheel Brakes (Normal and Alternate for AIRBUS)
- Anti-Skid
- Nose wheel steering
505
17.3.6.12.8 Airfields prohibited from contaminated runway operations contaminated runway operations are prohibited on undermentioned airfields.
Patna, Jammu, Dibrugarh, Dehradun, Bagdogra, Srinagar, Port Blair, Pune, Mangalore, Kozhikode, Rajkot, Kathmandu, Leh & Lengpui.
506
Excessive braking in crosswinds will lead to the aircraft drifting away from the centreline. Do not decrab completely as the aircraft will yaw on the slippery runway due to
its weathercock stability.
507
After landing in heavy slush, do not retract the slats and flaps or flaps as applicable to
allow ground personnel to clear ice and slush from slats and flaps before full retraction. Taxi with caution to parking area as flaps extended provides a much reduced ground clearance.
508
17.3.6.14 Aquaplaning (Hydroplaning)
Aquaplaning is really a loose assortment of three different but related phenomena:
a) Dynamic aquaplaning, which occurs with standing water on the runway.
b) Viscous aquaplaning, which can occur on smooth runways with very shallow water depths.
c) Reverted rubber or steam aquaplaning, which requires a locked wheel skid on a damp or wet runway.
509
Dynamic aquaplaning results from high airplane speeds on flooded runways. As the airplane accelerates for takeoff,
a fluid wedge forms that progressively separates the tyre footprint area from the runway surface.
The tyre aquaplaning speed, Vp (Kts) has been determined to be nine times the square root of the main gear tyre pressure in psi.
510
Viscous Aquaplaning
Water on newly surfaced asphalt runways, or touch down areas with heavy coating of rubber from repeated wheel spin ups, forms a tenacious film that can completely separate tyres from pavement at speeds at least ___ below Vp. Unlike dynamic aquaplaning, very little water is required.
35%
511
Steam aquaplaning has been measured to below 20 Kts ground speed in some cases.
When runways are damp or wet, the heat from a locked wheel position produces
steam in the tyre footprint area that may revert the rubber to gummy material and trap steam, which then superheats at temperatures upto 260 degree centigrade and lifts the tyre clear off the pavement.
512
Since Vp is directly related to tyre pressure, it might seem logical to increase the pressure and thereby raise Vp for your aircraft. In fact that would work, although any increase in pressure will also decrease dry runways braking coefficient because
over inflation lessens the overall contact area of the tyre which in turn reduces fraction.
513
Tyres with deep radial ribs may not be as deep as the pooled water on the runway, they will still function to relieve the build up of that fluid wedge which acts to separate tyre and runway, by providing
a low pressure escape route for the water.
514
Runways with ___ provide the best protection against all three forms of aquaplaning.
lateral grooves
515
An analysis of historical data on incidents has shown that the months of ___ have the highest risk for bird strike.
July, August and September
516
Every aircraft in flight generates wake turbulence caused primarily by
a pair of counter rotating vortices trailing from the wing tips.
517
17.3.7 Wake Turbulence
(H) Heavy: MTOW
≥ 136000 kg
518
Separation by time (non-radar)
Wake turbulence separation minima given below define a minimum separation time between two aircraft during take-off and landing to cope with wake turbulence:
- Arriving aircraft
Arriving aircraft
Medium behind Heavy aircraft: 2 minutes
519
Wake turbulence separation minima given below define a minimum separation time between two aircraft during take-off and landing to cope with wake turbulence:
- Departing aircraft
The minimum separation time is 2 minutes (or 3 minutes if take off is from an intermediate part of the runway) for a Light or Medium aircraft behind a Heavy aircraft.
520
Wake turbulence separation minima
Two parallel runways have no influence on each other if they are separated by
more than 760 m (2500 ft) and if the flight path of the second aircraft does not cross the flight path of the preceding aircraft by less than 300 m (1000 ft).
521
Separation by time (non-radar) Wake turbulence separation minima
- Departing and landing in opposite direction
The minimum separation time is 2 minutes
522
Radar separation wake turbulence
When Wake turbulence is not the criteria, a standard separation of ___ minimum shall be applicable.
3NM
523
Radar separation wake turbulence
Leading aircraft category
Heavy & Following aircraft category Medium
Separation minimum:
5 NM
524
Radar separation wake turbulence
Leading aircraft category Medium & Following aircraft category Medium Separation minimum:
3 NM
525
Non Radar Wake Turbulence Longitudinal Separation Minima
Arriving Aircraft
The following non-radar separation minima should be applied to aircraft landing behind an A380-800 aircraft:
MEDIUM aircraft behind an A380-800 aircraft:
3 minutes;
526
A minimum separation of ___ should be applied for a MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind an A380-800 aircraft when the aircraft are using: the same runway;
3 minutes
527
A separation minimum of ___ should be applied for a MEDIUM aircraft when taking off behind an A380-800 aircraft from: an intermediate part of the same runway;
4 minutes
528
Radar separation wake turbulence
Leading aircraft A380-800 & Following aircraft category Medium Separation minimum:
7 NM
529
PICs are advised not to be hesitant in the use of "Fasten Seat Belt" sign when turbulence is anticipated. Cabin crew should also be advised of
the cause of turbulence, expected duration and probable intensity.
530
The Safety Harness (shoulder straps and seat belts) shall be worn during condition of sterile cockpit, that is from
engine start to 10,000 ft AAL in climb, from 10,000 ft AAL to engine shut down in descent,
531
Whenever seat belt sign is switched "ON" except when procedurally needed AND THE PIC HAS INDICATED requirement of seat belts for the Cabin crew as per guidance given in para 17.3.9.2, all cabin service/sales will be
immediately stopped and all trolleys stowed and secured.
532
Whenever the sign is "ON" the Lead Cabin crew shall check with the PIC if they can continue
normal cabin service. Cabin crew are permitted to carry out normal cabin duties whenever the Seat Belt sign is switched "ON" procedurally and when authorized by the PIC to do so.
533
Degree of turbulence which may be categorized as follows:
a) Light Chop
b) Light turbulence
c) Moderate chop
d) Moderate turbulence
e) Severe turbulence
f) Extreme turbulence
534
It is emphasised that in case of moderate or more severe turbulence it is obligatory on the part of PIC to switch on the Fasten Seat Belt sign and to announce
'Cabin crew, return to your seats, seat belts required'.
535
'Cabin crew, return to your seats, seat belts required' will signal the cabin crew that
it would be unsafe for them and the passengers to move around.
536
On exiting an area of moderate turbulence, if the PIC feels that as a measure of abundant caution he would desire to keep the Seat Belt sign ON (Just in case) he may permit Cabin crew movement in the cabin by announcing
'Cabin crew, seat belts are not required' followed by 'Passengers, please remain seated with your belts fastened'.
537
___ are bulletproof and fully compliant with rapid decompression requirements.
Cockpit doors
538
If there are no passengers on board such as on ferry flights the Cockpit door will be
kept open at all times.
539
The Cockpit door will only be opened on instructions from the PIC. Cabin crew must
seek permission to enter the Cockpit over the intercom.
540
Prior to departure / At the aircraft:
The PIC shall brief the Cabin crew on
- Aircraft registration,
- Bay Number,
- SET if conducted,
- Taxi Time,
- Sector Time,
- Normal/ Emergency/ Hijack cockpit entry procedure,
- En-route Weather
541
The Lead Cabin crew will ascertain as to when meals and beverage should be served to cockpit crew. Suggested time being either
after take-off (post switching off of Seat Belt sign) or after completion of passenger service.
542
The cockpit should be cleared (trays, cutlery etc.) at or before the announcement from the cockpit:
"Cabin crew to prepare for arrival".
543
No merchandise sale/ service is permitted if
the Seat Belt sign is switched on and the PIC has advised the Cabin crew 'to be seated & fasten seat belts'. The trolleys are to be stowed and secured under these circumstances.
544
Before entry to the cockpit, Cabin crew will ensure that
the LAV and forward galley area is vacant. The forward LAV is to be locked.
545
Cockpit Entry procedure Emergency access
In case the cockpit door is being opened from the cabin by using the Emergency Access Code,
the buzzer will sound continuously in the cockpit and the 'OPEN' light will flash on the central pedestal's cockpit door panel.
546
Once all passengers have boarded and the airplane is ready to depart, the PIC will announce
"Cabin crew close doors", followed by "Cabin crew arm slides".
547
The 'SEAT BELTS' Sign should be switched off in climb upon crossing 10,000 ft AAL. This also indicates the end of
the sterile cockpit.
548
Whenever the Lead/ Cabin crew is urgently required in the cockpit, the PIC will announce,
"Lead to the Cockpit"
549
At the top of descent, the PF will announce,
"Cabin crew to prepare for arrival".
550
Five minutes before landing the PF will announce
"Cabin crew to your seats for landing."
551
Except when LVO are in progress, during the after landing flow, the PM is to switch the 'NO PED'/ 'NO DEVICE' Switch to
Off. This will serve as a signal for the Lead Cabin crew to make the required announcement on cellular phone usage.
552
In case Low Visibility Operations are in effect at the airport of landing, the Lead Cabin Crew is briefed about the autoland as a matter of procedure during the approach preparation. This will serve as her Standing Order that
passengers are to be informed that PEDs may only be used once the aircraft is parked at the stand and cabin doors are opened. In these cases the PED switch is to be turned off only once parked at the stand.
553
The "no contact period" is defined as:
"From commencement of take-off to gear gear up (approx 30 sec after getting airborne), and: From gear down to the end of landing roll (approx 30 sec after landing)."
The Cabin crew must inform the PIC whenever smoke, fire, unusual sounds or other life threatening conditions are observed immediately (through the interphone) except during "no contact" take-off and landing phases.
554
17.3.10.13 Procedure when one pilot leaves the cockpit (2 Crew cockpit)
Exit
i) The remaining flight crew members shall
- Use seat belt and harnesses;
- Use headset
555
17.3.10.14 Three crew cockpit
If a third member is present i.e. ACM, Observer, Supernumerary etc. travelling in the cockpit, a Cabin crew
will not be required.
556
17.3.11.4.2 Security check at the airport
While travelling on personal travel as ACM, on a via flight, for example travelling to Pune from Delhi via Nagpur and in the same aircraft, there is no need to
disembark and get another ACM slip stamped in Nagpur.
557
PIC cannot authorise priority allocation of a cabin jump seat for a pilot travelling as
ACM for personal travel.
558
Baggage entitlement for the ACM occupying jump seat for personal travel is same as for
staff leisure travel
559
17.3.11.6 Dead Heading Crew Pre-embarkment security compliance
They are not to gain access to the aircraft from the airside using AEP.
As a consequence,
a passenger can be reported missing at security/ gate and a mismatch would occur between the head-count in cabin and passengers through boarding gate which is based on the stub count. The flight may suffer avoidable delay due to implementation of the Gate 'No Show' drills etc.
560
When a flight crew member does not respond normally or appropriately to
two verbal communications, incapacitation should be suspected.
561
If a cockpit crew member becomes incapacitated, the remaining flight crew member will ensure a safe flight condition. In addition:
- Declare an emergency, explaining the situation. Select the appropriate emergency code 7700 on transponder.
- Plan Diversion to a nearest suitable airport as required.
562
17.3.12.2 Flight Crew member incapacitation
The best way to request for assistance is by
the PA and/or 'EMER' call. If the PA system is used then the call shall be: 'Lead to Cockpit'
563
17.3.12.3 Removal of the incapacitated crew from the cockpit
If it is not possible to remove the incapacitated crew member,
one Cabin crew shall remain in the cockpit to take care of him/her.
564
17.3.12.10 Actions during Abnormal/ Emergency situation
In case of abnormal/ emergency situation Golden Rules are predominant.
a) FNC
b) FORDEC
c) NITES
565
Passengers may be permitted to use their mobile phones after
landing after having cleared the active runway with no other runway/ intersections to cross.
566
Any PED events related to suspected or confirmed PED interference, smoke or fire caused by PED shall be reported to
Flight Safety on Form FSF-001.
567
The following pre-flight announcement and demonstration are to be carried out for each sector to be operated:
i) Seat Belts and exit locations
ii) Oxygen system and its usage
iii) Floatation Devices/Life Jackets
568
For flights conducted below ___ AMSL a demonstration on the use of Oxygen is not mandatory.
10,000 ft
569
17.3.14.2 Passenger information announcements
In any irregular operations and/or when delays occur, you MUST keep updating the passengers every
10 to 20 minutes.
570
The guidelines for pre-flight, en-route, descent, landing and Departure delay announcements have been place at
Annexure 7.
571
In the event of an electrical failure or non-availability of PA system, the Cabin crew should use
the hand megaphone provided.
572
ATC delay announcements
Care must be taken not to attribute these delays to ATC. The DGCA has instructed that these delays be attributed to
air traffic congestion and not ATC while informing the passengers.
573
The restrictions on photography at a Government aerodrome as specified in rule 13 of the said rules shall not apply to the terminal buildings of:
i) Civil aerodromes; and
ii) Civil enclaves at defence aerodromes.
574
At civil aerodromes, Passengers visiting Flight Deck may take pictures with the permission of
PIC provided the aircraft is on ground with engines shut and Doors are open. It is mandatory that company authorized personnel should be present in this case.
575
The Crew: The crew are not to indulge and take photographs during
any phase of flight i.e. from the time the aircraft doors are closed till these are opened for passenger disembarkation.
576
All Indian Registered aircraft shall carry medical supplies as follows:
a) First-aid kits for carriage on all aircraft,
b) Medical Kit for carriage where the aircraft is authorized to carry more than 100 passengers, on a sector length of more than two hours, and
c) A universal precaution kits for carriage on all aircraft that require a cabin crew member.
d) Automated External Defibrillators (AED) is mandated for scheduled operators engaged in international operations.
577
First-aid kit: A kit containing such items which can be used for
the purpose of firstaid treatment of injuries which may occur in flight or as a result of minor accidents.
PAX 101 - 200 FAK (2) MED KIT (1)
PAX 201 - 300 FAK (3) MED KIT (1)
578
Medical kit: A kit containing
such life saving drugs intended to be administered only by a qualified medical practitioner if and when available.
579
Universal precaution kit: A kit for the use of cabin crew members in managing
incidents of ill health associated with a case of suspected communicable disease, or in the case of illness involving contact with body fluids.
580
The number of First Aid Kit and Medical Kit to be carried on board the aircraft shall be as follows:
A320
a) One First Aid Kit and one Medical Kit in Forward galley
b) One First Aid Kit and one Universal Precaution Kit in the aft Galley
581
The number of First Aid Kit and Medical Kit to be carried on board the aircraft shall be as follows:
A321
a) One First Aid Kit and one Medical Kit in Forward galley
b) One First Aid Kit in the hat rack space above mid cabin exit
c) One First Aid Kit and one Universal Precaution Kit in the aft Galley
582
The contents of Emergency Medical Kits shall be examined and certified by Registered Medical Practitioners/ Company Medical Officers once in content
a year
583
17.4.1 Low Visibility Operations (LVO) include:
a) CAT II/III Landings
b) Low visibility take off
c) Low visibility Taxi
584
During low visibility taxi operations when RVR is below 400m, flightcrew shall conduct all checklists with
the aircraft stopped, keeping ATC informed.
585
Decision Height
Definition:
Decision height is the wheel height (measured by radio-altimeter) above the runway elevation by which a Go Around must be initiated unless adequate visual reference has been established and the aircraft position and approach path have been assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach and landing in safety.
586
In Decision Height (DH) definition, runway elevation means the elevation of the
highest point in the touchdown zone.
587
In Category II operations, DH is always limited to
100ft or Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH), whichever is higher.
588
Alert Height
Definition:
An Alert Height is a height above the runway threshold, based on the characteristics of the airplane and its fail-operational automatic landing system, above which a Category III approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment.
589
Alert Height Concept (A320/321)
Alert height is a height defined for
Category III operations with a fail operational landing system.
590
Above AH, a Go Around must be initiated if
a failure* affects the fail operational landing system.
*(The list of these failures is mentioned in the AFM)
591
Below AH, the approach will be continued (except if
AUTOLAND warning is triggered
592
MINIMUM APPROACH BREAK-OFF HEIGHT (MABH)
The Minimum Approach Break-off Height (MABH) is the lowest height above the ground, measured by radio altimeter, such that if a missed approach is initiated without external references:
- in normal operation, the aircraft does not touch the ground during the procedure
- with an engine failure during a missed approach, it can be demonstrated that taking this failure probability, an accident is extremely improbable.
593
The MABH or the altitude loss during automatic go around can be used to determine
the minimum DH in CAT III operation.
594
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is the range over which a pilot of an aircraft on the centreline of the runway can see
the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline.
595
RVR is not the Slant Visual Range (SVR). SVR is the range over which a pilot of an aircraft can see
the markings or the lights as described in RVR definition (in the final stages of approach or landing)
596
The LVO Status of an aircraft can be affected due to following reasons:
Only for initial certification corresponding reference, quoting FRB page number, is to be made in
the Form LVO_C (part of on-board forms).
597
For training and qualification purposes it is permissible to use Autoland at or above
CAT I conditions, subject to various limitations.
598
In order to keep the aircraft's Autoland status valid approved pilots are expected to do an Autoland every ___ days to authorised runways.
30
599
Sticker CAT I Only. This will indicate to the crew that the aircraft is
not LVO capable; therefore neither a practise nor an actual LVO Approach or Autoland is authorised.
600
Sticker AUTOLAND DOWNGRADED. This will indicate to the crew that
although the aircraft is LVO and Autoland capable yet an actual approach with Autoland below CAT minimums is not authorised. To restore its Autoland capability a satisfactory practice Autoland must be performed at the earliest.
601
If the autoland status has expired/downgraded, crew must perform a practice auto land only when
the ADD/CDD/notices to crew section advises 'crew to carry out practice auto land' and the aircraft is placarded as 'AUTOLAND DOWNGRADED'.
602
A procedure has been established to monitor the performance of the Automatic Landing System of each aircraft. The continuous monitoring shall permit the detection of any decrease in the level of safety before it becomes hazardous.
The monitoring shall be continuous and data shall be retained for a period of
at least 01 year.
603
Each FMGC can make an assessment of its own landing categories depending on
the availability of aircraft systems and functions.
604
The FLARE mode is initiated at a given radio altitude (RA), which can be either advanced or delayed as a function of
V/S. A higher V/S in the last part of the approach due to terrain profile before the runway threshold or higher descent glide slope angle will cause the flare mode to engage earlier than usual.
605
After Auotland, if the flight crew does not disconnect the AP at the end of the rollout, and uses the nosewheel steering handwheel to taxi the aircraft off the runway, the following will occur:
- The AP will try to steer the aircraft back to the runway centerline, if the nosewheel steering handwheel is released and the aircraft heading is less than 20 degrees off the runway centerline.
- The AP will automatically disconnect, if the aircraft heading is 20 degrees or more off the runway centerline.
606
A Go Around initiated below the Minimum Approach Break-off Height (MABH), whether auto or manual, may result in
ground contact.
607
If the touchdown occurs after GA is engaged the AP remains engaged in that mode, and ATHR remains in TOGA. Ground spoilers and auto brake are ___
inhibited
608
Between 50 and 40 feet: Check ___ is Displayed on the FMA.
"FLARE"
If NO FLARE mode at 30 FT, discontinue the approach or perform a manual landing if visual references are acquired.
609
17.4.11 Required equipment for CAT II/III
In general there are three possible responses to the failure of any system, instrument or element during the approach:
- Continue the approach up to the planned minima.
- Revert to higher minima and continue, if failure occurs above 1000'
AGL
- Go Around & reassess the capability, if failure occurs below 1000' AGL.
610
17.4.11 Required equipment for CAT II/III
If a failure occurs above 1000 ft AGL the approach may be continued after
reverting to a higher DH, provided the appropriate conditions are met.
611
17.4.11 Required equipment for CAT II/Ill
Below 1000 ft (and down to 100 ft/ Alert Height when in CAT 3 DUAL for A320/ 321) the occurrence of any failure implies
a Go Around, and a reassessment of the system capability.
Below 1000 ft enough time is not available for the crew to perform the necessary switching to check system configuration & limitations and brief for minima.
612
Practice Auto Approaches, at or above CAT minimum, can be carried out on
any ILS equipped runway.
613
Practice Auto Approach Auto Land for A320/ 321 can only be carried out on the runways mentioned placed at
Annexure 16
614
At night in low visibility conditions, ___ can be detrimental to the acquisition of visual reference. Reflected light from water droplets or snow may actually reduce visibility.
landing lights
- Landing lights would therefore not normally be used in LVTO weather conditions.
615
Before planning a Low Visibility Take-off Flight Dispatch will be responsible to ensure that:
PIC and Co-Pilot is qualified and authorised
616
Consider the following during the low visibility taxi operation:
5 items
- Taxi Speed is restricted to 10 Kts
- Single Engine Taxi Out or Taxi IN is not permitted when Visibility < 400m.
- Use airport specific low visibility taxi charts (jeppesen charts depicting taxi routing for departure & arrival during LVP),
- If in doubt, stop aircraft and discuss position with ATC.
- In case of extremely low Visibility hindering taxi operations, stop the aircraft and request for FOLLOW ME assistance.
617
After selecting APU BLEED ON, Engine 1(2) MASTER SW is to be set to OFF after a minimum time interval of
5 seconds.
618
"Reaching Level Altitude 4000." The call should be made when
less than 1000' from an assigned level and 500' from an assigned altitude.
619
17.7.5 RT OPERATING TECHNIQUE
Be alert for stuck mike buttons. If suspected it might be necessary to
select intercom or unplug the mike.
620
Readability Tests
For test transmission the call ___ shall be used.
"RADIO CHECK"
621
The total Radio Communication Failure Procedure for each airport which differs with the ICAO procedures is given in
the 'Emergency' Section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual.
622
17.7.8 Total communication failure
b) If in IMC or when the pilot of an IFR flight considers it inadvisable to complete the flight in accordance with (a) above:
i) In airspace where radar is not used in provision of air traffic control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 20 minutes following the aircraft's failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point and thereafter adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan;
ii) In airspace where radar is used in the provision of air traffic control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes following:
The time the last assigned level or minimum flight altitude is reached; or
The time the transponder is set to code 7600; or
The aircraft's failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point; whichever is later, and thereafter adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan;
v) Commence descent from the navigation aid or fix specified in (iv) at, or as close as possible to, the expected approach time last received and acknowledged; or, if no expected approach time has been received and acknowledged, at, or as close as possible to, the estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan;
vi) Complete a normal instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigation aid or fix; and
vi) Land, if possible, within 30 minutes after the Estimated Time of Arrival specified in v) or the last acknowledged Expected Approach Time, whichever is later.
623
17.7.8.2 Air Ground communication failure
i) When an airplane station fails to establish contact with the aeronautical station on the designated frequency, it shall attempt to establish contact on another frequency appropriate to the route.
ii) If the attempts specified under (i) above fail, the airplane station shall transmit its message twice on the designated frequency(ies), preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND" and, if necessary, include the addressees) for which the message is intended.
iii) In addition, the aircraft, when forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome, shall keep a watch for such instructions as may be issued by visual signals.
624
17.7.8.3 Receiver failure
i) When an airplane station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, it shall transmit reports at the scheduled times or positions, on the frequency used, preceded by the phrase "Transmitting Blind Due To Receiver Failure".
ii) An airplane which is provided with Air Traffic Control or advisory service shall, in addition to complying with (a) above, transmit information regarding the intention of the PIC with respect to the continuation of the flight of the aircraft.
iii) When an airplane is unable to establish communication due to airborne equipment failure, it shall, when so equipped, select the appropriate SSR code to indicate radio failure (7600)
625
Air Traffic Control position reports should be given in the following form:
a) Flight Identification
b) Position
c) Time
d) Altitude
e) Name and ETA over next ATC Reporting Time
626
When in Radar Control, Position Report should not be made unless
requested by ATC.
627
17.11 CRITICAL PHASES OF FLIGHT (STERILE COCKPIT)
Critical phases of flight are defined as all ground operations from
'start up to shut down' and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 ft AAL except cruise flight.
628
17.12.2 Controlled Rest on The maximum duration of a sleep period, has been chosen to prevent
a condition of deep sleep, which has a consequential long recovery time (Sleep inertia).
629
Controlled rest shall only be used on a flight sector with a minimum duration of
3 hours.
630
Controlled rest shall commence after reaching
Top of Climb (TOC) and will terminate 30 minutes before planned Top of Descent.
631
Controlled rest periods must be no longer than
40 minutes with another 20 min for orientation before resuming flight deck duties. These 20 minutes can be part of 30 minutes required prior to Top of Descent.
632
Controlled rest shall not be used over the flight segments that require
the use of decompression escape routes, while manual fuel transfer/fuel balancing is taking place or any other operational requirement wherein a pilot crosscheck is required.
633
In order to establish a frequent check without disturbing the resting crew, the non-resting cockpit crew shall call the Lead Cabin crew every
20 minutes by night and 30 minutes by day.
634
During controlled rest, the non-resting pilot must perform the duties of the PF and PM. He should exercise control of the aircraft for entire duration and maintain full situational awareness wherein:
iv) ___ are not permitted.
Altitude changes
635
At Top of Descent for the last sector, in the series of flights operated, the Lead Cabin crew will hand over
the completed log to PIC for counter signature and submission with other flight documents.
636
17.12.3 Interaction Log
will be maintained for a period of ___ months at Dispatch.
03
637
17.14 SHUT DOWN AND POST FLIGHT
Any defects observed during the flight shall be entered in
the Pilot Defect Report (PDR) and countersigned by the PIC.
638
The PIC must submit a trip report after (CTR) every flight or series of flights bringing to the attention of all administrative issues where necessary corrective action is considered important and in the interest of the airline. This may be filled in
the hard copy along with CFP documents or a mail may be sent to ctr@goindigo.in.
639
When the airplane is under the guidance of the marshaller or is being towed etc. the marshaller is responsible for
collision avoidance.
640
Wing walkers are mandatory only at
domestic airports during night, low visibility operations or bay not being clear.
641
Hand signals will be used during day time but properly lighted wands/ sticks are mandatory during
night and low visibility.
642
The destination/ alternate weather, if received through ACARS print out; ___ may be recorded on the flight plan.
the reference date and time
643
ACARS captures time OUT (Chocks OFF) and IN (Chocks ON) based on the following logic:
a) Time OUT
Last Parking Brake OFF time with aircraft reaching 02 Kts of ground Speed.
b) Time IN
Time registered is Last parking brake set ON time, with one cabin door open. Parking brakes released in between does not impact the registered time.
644
Incorrect TIME OUT may be triggered, in case:
i) The parking brake is not set ON prior to Cabin doors closure.
ii) After Cabin doors are closed the parking brake is set OFF prior to obtaining ATC clearance. The ACARS will record an OUT incorrectly since the aircraft has not started moving with the intent of flight.
645
Crew are expected to monitor on MCDU ACARS page, if incorrect OUT IN message has been transmitted inadvertently. In such cases, they must send an ACARS message to OCC notifying correct timings and also ensure that only the correct timings are mentioned in the technical log which is the base document for
all aircraft / engine / crew flight hours FDTL computations.
646
A CTR is to be filed only for any operational or administrative occurrences, for example:
- A Tow tractor not available for pushback
- Any flight delay
- Catering for crew not uplifted
647
Safety Report is required for the following examples:
- Unruly passengers, TCAS, EGPWS, incursions, Ground Turn backs, Bird Strike are reportable incidents, hence a relevant Safety report
- Any other concern which hampers the safety of flight like a depression in a taxiway, wrong markings etc. needs to be addressed to Flight Safety.
648
To enhance the flight crew terrain awareness, a callout ___, should be announced by the first crewmember observing the radio altimeter activation at 2500 ft height AGL.
"Radio altimeter alive"
649
The PM will call 1,000 ft to any assigned altitude and will also call deviations of more than ___ from any assigned altitude.
200 ft.
650
Whenever an ACAS resolution advisory (RA) is triggered the pilot is required to follow the RA and is authorised to deviate from an ATC clearance however ATC is to be informed as soon as possible by a call
"TCAS RA"
651
While using EFB, since database has been crosschecked during preflight, only
the serial number of Jeppesen charts need to be verified.
652
Crew Briefing shall address and include, as a minimum:
a) The technical status of the aircraft unless reviewed in conjunction with another checklist or procedure,
b) Normal and non-normal departure and approach considerations,
c) A flight deck jump seat occupant safety briefing.
653
23.0.2.1 Threats-Plan-Consideration
Threats
Follows the LAW OF PRIMACY i.e.
information presented first is better retained
654
23.0.2.1 Threats-Plan-Consideration
Consideration
Follows the PRINCIPLE OF RECENCY, i.e.
information presented last also is well retained.
655
All contingency briefs (MEM Items, Take-off safety briefing and GA actions) must be seat oriented/role oriented (Each pilot will call out his/her actions). Procedures or manoeuvres such as these should be rehearsed using
touch drills. i.e. touching the relevant controls as one talk's through a drill or manoeuvre that may need to performed. This ensures both pilots are primed
656
The first brief of the day is to include a review of the actions in the event of an emergency before, at or after the
decision speed (V1), reject take off procedure and emergency evacuation procedure. Each crew member will call out and review his actions as PF/PM.
657
23.1 DEPARTURE BRIEFING
First sector of the flight the crew will review the
reject, engine out, evacuation procedure before engine start.
658
23.2 ARRIVAL BRIEFING
The PM will cross check the FMS approach procedure prior to the arrival briefing. It is recommended that the briefing should be completed prior to reaching
TOD
659
25.0 STABILISED APPROACH PROCEDURE
A good landing is not one that the passengers perceive as a soft landing, but one that is
made at the correct point on the runway with the correct flight parameters.
660
25.0.1 Approach monitoring
The Pilot flying shall start adjusting his scan for outside visual cues from
500' above minimums and remain on instrument up to 100' above minimums.
661
25.1.1 Stabilized approaches conditions/ requirements The following Stabilisation thresholds need to be met:
a) ILS/ Fully Managed NPA 1000 ft AAL
b) All other NPAs FAF
c) Visual 500 ft AAL
d) Circling Not approved by DGCA
662
25.1.1 Stabilized approaches conditions/ requirements
If ATC requests a speed constraint that is not compatible with speed and thrust stabilization at 1 000 ft AAL, a later speed and thrust stabilization is acceptable, provided that:
- The aircraft is in deceleration toward the target approach speed
- The flight crew stabilizes speed and thrust as soon as possible and not later than 500 ft AAL
663
25.1.2 Significant Deviation in approach
The PM will make callouts for the following conditions during final approach:
11 items
- Approach speed Decreases below Speed Target 0 Kt or
increase above Speed Target +10 Kt
- Rate of descent V/S more than 1000 ft/ min
- Bank Angle greater than 7°
- Pitch Attitude Lower than -2.5° or higher than +10°
Lower than -2.5° or higher than +7.5° (A321)
- Localiser ½ dot deviation
- Glide slope ½ dot deviation
- Cross track XTK greater than 0.1 nm
- VDEV when vertical deviation is greater than ½ dot
- Course Greater than ½ dot or 2.5° (VOR) or 5° (ADF)
- At Alt check points Ft High/ Low
- Thrust Any significant deviation from average thrust setting
664
___ turns on the Final Approach is prohibited. A missed approach must be executed whenever the airplane is not stabilized during this phase.
360°
665
25.1.3 Flight parameters during Go-Around
During a Go Around, the PM will make callouts for the following conditions:
3 items
- Bank: If the bank angle becomes greater than 7°
- Pitch: If the pitch attitude becomes greater than 20° up or less than 10° up
- Sink Rate: If there is no climb rate
666
26.0 LIMITATION ON HIGH RATES OF DESCENT NEAR THE SURFACE
The Company policy prohibits high rate of descent near the surface. Normally below 1000' AGL the rate of descent must not exceed
1000 fpm unless the specific procedure demands.
667
The MAP may be overflown at an altitude/height greater than that required by the procedure; but if a turn is involved, the turn must not take place before
the MAPt, unless otherwise specified in the procedure.
668
A 'Missed Approach'/ 'Go Around' initiated below MDA/H or the DA/H will not be classified as
an incident. However, such events will be examined but shall not invite any punitive action and reported only for data collection.
669
The following steps are recommended progressively if flight safety continues to be threatened:
- First call "Approach not stabilized."
- Second Call If insufficient, incorrect or no response from flying pilot; loudly say "Go Around".
- If no response from PIC, PM shall announce, loudly "My controls" and transmit to ATC "Go Around" and immediately initiate appropriate Go Around procedure safely with all available automation.
670
27.3 COMMENCEMENT AND CONTINUATION OF APPROACH
Approach ban point:
The point on a final approach where the reported weather conditions at the runway must meet the applicable minima so as to be able to meet regulatory requirements for continuing an instrument approach to a landing.
671
27.3.1 Company Policy Approach Ban:
The PIC shall not commence an instrument approach if the reported RVR/Visibility is below the applicable minimum.
672
27.3.1 Company Policy Approach Ban
If, after commencing an instrument approach, the reported RVR/Visibility falls below the applicable minimum,
the approach shall not be continued into the final approach segment.
673
27.3.1 Company Policy Approach Ban
If, after entering the final approach segment, the reported RVR/visibility falls below the applicable minimum,
the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.
674
27.3.1 Company Policy Approach Ban
The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that
the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained
675
27.3.2 Controlling RVR
The touch-down zone RVR is always
controlling. If reported and relevant, the midpoint and stop-end RVR are also controlling.
676
27.3.2 Controlling RVR
If the RVR falls below the minimum in a CAT III approach without DH,
a missed approach must be initiated.
677
Threshold Crossing Height (TCH) is the theoretical height above the runway threshold at which the aircraft glide slope antenna would be, if the aircraft maintained the trajectory established by the mean ILS glide slope. For a nominal glide path, the TCH is normally ___.
50 feet
678
27.5 SUBSEQUENT APPROACHES
After two Missed Approaches, if executed due to marginal weather conditions,
it is mandatory to divert.
679
28.0.2 Instrument Approach Procedures Types Classified as:
3 items
- Non-precision approach (NPA)
- Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV)
- Precision approach (PA)
680
Except for approaches with Auto Land in RVR below 550M, or while carrying out practice auto land or raw data approaches in VMC the autopilot must be used until
DH/MDA and/or until the landing is assured
681
28.2.1 ILS Approaches Category
Decelerated ILS approaches are recommended. While carrying out a decelerated approach it is recommended that aircraft is configured by
1500 ft and to be stabilised by 1000 ft AAL.
682
If an approach is not flown using the CDFA technique, while calculating the minima, it is to be ensured that the minimum RVR is increased by
400 m, provided the resulting RVR/CMV value does not exceed 5000m.
683
If a Non-Precision approach has platform height less than 2000', the approach shall be
early stabilised.
684
28.3.2 VOR/ DME
On the PERF APP page, the MDA will be increased by
50 ft to cater for a height loss at MDA in case of a Go Around.
685
28.3.3 NDB Approaches
Passage over the stations must be shown by reversal of the ADF needles before
descent is initiated to the altitude shown on the approach chart.
686
28.6 TOUCHDOWN POINT
All landings are to be made within the touchdown zone which is
normally 3000 ft from the landing end threshold. The company recommends that all approaches are flown to the 1000' marker as aiming point.
687
If the PF does not respond to 2 calls on a significant deviation the PM should be alert for subtle incapacitation. If the PM does not give the standard call,
the PF shall give the call.
688
29.4 VISUAL ILLUSIONS
The typical illusions in approach are:
- Depth & distance illusions
- Sloping terrain
- Width of the Runway
- Fog Effect
- Bright Lights
689
A "Black Hole Approach Illusion" can happen during a final approach at night (no stars or moonlight) over water or unlighted terrain to a lighted runway beyond which the horizon is not visible. When peripheral visual cues are not available to the pilot to orient himself relative to the earth he may have the illusion of
being upright and may perceive the runway to be tilted.
690
Pilot can't take any training to keep from experiencing this illusion. The best defence is knowledge and avoidance.
Some conditions make the "Black Hole" effect more pronounced. Be alert for the Illusion when observing these conditions:
- An Airport that is on the near side of a brightly lit city with few or no terrain features or lights between the airplane and the airport. The brightness of the city lights will give the impression that they are closer than they actually are.
- An airport that is on the coast or in very sparsely settled terrain. This is the classic black hole scenario.
- A night with extremely clear air and excellent visibility. One of the things Pilots use to judge distance is the normal hazing that distance provides. When the air is extremely clear, this lack of hazing makes things appear much closer than they are.
691
29.4.6.1 Coping with black hole illusion
The most obvious action to keep from Black Hole Illusion is to avoid long, straightin approaches. The Black Hole Illusion disappears within
2 to 3 miles of an airport.
Following VASI/PAPI indications while approaching will avoid getting into black hole approach illusion.
692
GPWS warnings must never be ignored. A ___ shall be initiated in any case if cause of warning cannot be identified immediately.
go-around
693
30.3 ENHANCED GPWS
The EGPWS or TAWS (Terrain Avoidance and Warning System) is a Terrain Awareness and Alerting system providing terrain alerting and display functions. It uses
airplane inputs including geographical position, altitude, attitude, air speed and glide slope deviation. These are used with internal terrain, obstacles & airport databases and the modelling of aircraft climb performance capability of the aircraft to predict potential conflict between the airplane flight path and the terrain or an obstacle. A terrain or an obstacle conflict results in a visual and audio caution or warning alert.
694
The GPWS provides ground proximity visual and audio alerts based on
the radio altimeter readouts.
695
EGPWS uses the ___ position of the airplane in conjunction with the internal terrain, obstacles and airport database to provide predictive warnings.
GPS/FMS
696
Terrain clearance Floor feature provides an additional element of protection by
alerting the pilot of possible premature descent for non-precision approaches.
697
Runway Field Clearance Floor provides protection when
a runway is at an elevation significantly higher than the surrounding terrain like in the case of Mangalore or Calicut, by referring to the Geometric Altitude in lieu of the Radio Altimeter.
698
Only Enhanced GPWS (EGPWS) also called TAWS (Terrain Avoidance and Warning System) have a forward-looking facility, therefore including a predictive terrain hazard warning function so that some cautions and warnings may be given
if the airplane is approaching sharply rising terrain.
699
The EGPWS Data base is maintained and updated by
engineering department.
700
(ALAR) and (CFIT) reduction tool kit abbreviation:
- Approach and Landing Accident Reduction
- Control Flight into Terrain
701
There have been incidents in which a QNH setting has been erroneously used as a QFE or QNE setting. This results in the airplane being flown
lower than the required altitude.
702
ACAS is the nomenclature of ___, TCAS is the nomenclature of the ___.
ICAO
FAA
703
Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)
An airplane system based on
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder signals, which operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting airplane that are equipped with SSR transponders.
704
ACAS I
An ACAS which provides information as an aid to 'see and avoid' action but
does not include the capability for generating resolution advisories (RAs).
705
ACAS II
An ACAS which provides
vertical resolution advisories (RAs) in addition to the traffic advisories. TCAS II with change 7 is equivalent to ACAS II.
706
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR):
A Surveillance Radar System which uses
transmitters/ receivers (interrogators and transponders)
707
The company aeroplanes are equipped with ACAS II which utilizes software version
7.1
708
Any pilot experiencing RA WHICH REQUIRES A DEVIATION from the current ATC instructions or clearance, while flying in Indian Airspace, shall file a report on
R/T with the handling Air Traffic Control Unit in India followed by a written report to the DGCA and Airports Authority of India within 24 hrs of the incident.
709
When the TCAS is operating in TA ONLY mode, the ___ is inhibited.
AP/FD TCAS mode
710
31.7.5 TCAS 'RA' Compliance versus Airplane Performance Restrictions
During take-off climb or in final landing configuration at airports with elevations above
5300 ft. MSL, or temperatures outside the range of ISA + 27.8° C.
711
The recommended R/T phraseology for some scenarios of TCAS advisories are as under:
- TCAS RA
- CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURNING TO
(Assigned clearance)
- CLEAR OF CONFLICT (assigned clearance) RESUMED
- Unable, TCAS RA
712
If there is proximate traffic, in adjacent level to the set altitude during climb or descent, then the crew must reduce the aircraft rate of climb or descent as applicable to
1500 ft per minute or less when the airplane is within 2000 ft of the level off altitude unless otherwise instructed by ATC (DGCA Operations Circular 07)
713
The CAR requires that Pilot experiencing RA while flying in Indian airspace, shall file a report on
R/T with the handling Air Traffic Control Unit followed by a written report to the DGCA and Airports Authority of India.
714
When Dangerous Goods being carried as cargo require intimation to the PIC, the ___ must be duly filled and accepted by the PIC.
NOTOC (Special Load Notification to Captain)
Three copies of the NOTOC must be filled:
One copy to be retained by the departure airport,
One copy for the PIC and
One copy for the arrival station.
715
The NOTOC is not required for Dangerous Goods shown in
Table 9.5 A of IATA DR manual given in Appendix 6 of this Chapter.
716
___ is standard form which will be used to report all Dangerous Goods incidents.
The Dangerous Goods Occurrence Report (FSF-011)
717
35.1.5.1 Carriage of tyre assemblies as cargo
a) The inflated tyre assemblies are forbidden to be carried if it is:
i. Unserviceable
ii. Damaged
iii. Inflated above the maximum rated pressure
718
As company policy, whenever a tyre assembly is carried on board the aircraft, a notation of such carriage is to be made under the
'Supplementary Information' on the Load & Trim Sheet. No separate "Special Load Notification" or NOTOC is required.
719
35.2.3 Carriage of arms etc. by approved security personnel
A notification to that effect will be handed over to the PIC prior to the departure of the flight. Such notification shall include:
i) The number of authorized armed persons on board the aircraft;
ii) The location(s) of such persons.
720
From the crew's perspective, the three major forms of unlawful interference are:
i) Unruly passenger
ii) Hijacking
iii) Bomb threat
721
36.2.4.3 Refusal of embarkation/ En-route off loading
Does not apply to persons under the influence of drugs who are subject to such condition following
emergency medical treatment after commencement of the flight or to persons under medical care and accompanied by personnel trained for that purpose.
722
The PIC has the authority to divert the flight to disembark the passengers if
in his opinion the safety and orderly conduct of the flight is likely to be affected.
723
If the passenger continues with his disruptive behaviour, and does not comply with the instructions given by Cabin Crew even after the warning, then the Lead must fill ___ and handover the passenger to security on arrival. The PIC must be kept informed at all times.
FSF 014
724
All Cabin Crew are trained accordingly for the use of Restraining device called ___ and an un-restraining device called ___ available on board all aircraft in the IFS document.
Tuff Tie
Tuff Cut
725
In case of a serious incident with unruly passengers the PIC will request assistance on arrival.
At the bay, PIC to request through PA announcement for all passengers to remain seated till
the security team enters the aircraft to escort the accused out of the aircraft.
726
In the event a passenger is declared as gate-no-show, it shall be ensured that
the "no passenger no baggage" rule is strictly implemented.
727
37.3.3.1 Bomb on Board
Maintain existing cabin altitude because it will prevent
the activation on an altitude-sensitive bomb.
If terrain and fuel requirements permit descend the aircraft to the cabin altitude + 2500' and maintain delta P at 1 PSI.
728
37.3.3.1 Bomb on Board
Maintain delta P at 1 PSI,
It will minimise
the effect of explosion.
729
37.3.3.3 Least Risk Bomb Location (LRBL)
Recommended least risk area:
A320/ 321 RH Aft Cabin Door
730
A checklist for Flight Crew regarding in-flight chemical/ biological weapons is placed at
OM A 37.3.7
731
Navigation systems based on GPS with Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring (RAIM) will not require
accuracy checks
732
Aircraft-based augmentation system (ABAS)
An augmentation system that
augments and/ or integrates the information obtained from other GNSS elements with information available on board the aircraft.
733
Critical DME.
DME facility that, when not available, results in
navigation service which is insufficient for DME/ DME and DME/DME/IRU-based operations along a specific route or procedure. For example, standard instrument departures and arrivals (SID/STAR) may be published with only two DMEs, in which case, both DMEs are critical.
734
DME/DME (D/D) RNAV. Area navigation that uses
the line of sight of at least two DME facilities to determine aircraft position.
735
DME/DME/Inertial (D/D/I) RNAV Area navigation that uses
the line of sight of at least two DME facilities to determine aircraft position, along with an inertial reference unit (IRU) that provides sufficient position information in areas without DME coverage (DME gaps).
736
Fault detection and exclusion (FDE) Is a function performed by some on board GNSS receivers, which can
detect the presence of a faulty satellite signal and automatically exclude it from the position calculation. In addition to the total number of satellites needed for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM), at least one more available satellite is required (6 satellites).
737
Flight technical error (FTE) The FTE is the accuracy with which
an aircraft is controlled as measured by the indicated aircraft position, with respect to the indicated command or desired position.
738
FTE is sometimes referred to as
Path Steering Error (PSE)
739
Indian SBAS is called GAGAN;
GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation
740
At present, GAGAN allows APV-1/ Cat 1 Type 'A' approach upto a DH of
250ft with a visibility minima close to ILS approach. Restriction of 250ft DH is limited only to GAGAN operations and not to SBAS operations in general.
741
Initial approach fix (IAF)
Fix that marks the beginning of the
initial segment and the end of the arrival segment, if applicable. In RNAV application, this fix is normally defined as a "fly-by waypoint".
742
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) A technique used in a GNSS receiver/processor to determine the integrity of its navigation signals, using
only GPS signals or GPS signals enhanced with barometric upper-air data. At least one additional available satellite is required with respect to the number of satellites that are needed to obtain the navigation solution.
743
Total System Error (TSE) Is the difference between the true position and the desired position. This error is equal to the vector sum of
path definition error (PDE), flight technical error (FTE) and navigation system error (NSE).
744
Each Navigation Specification has a designator. e.g. RNAV 5, RNP1, RNP APCH, RNP AR APCH. The number in the designator represents
the minimum lateral navigation accuracy in nautical miles (nm) that must be maintained for at least 95% of the flight time.
745
The ___ specification is limited to use on STARs, SIDs, the initial and intermediate segments of IAPs and the missed approach after the initial climb phase. Beyond 30 NM from the ARP, the accuracy value for alerting becomes 2 NM.
RNP 1
746
40.2.1.6 Operating Procedures RNAV/RNP Specifications
A320/ 321 are approved for
RNAV 1 & 2, RNAV 5, RNAV 10, RNP 1 & 2, RNP APCH (LNAV/ VNAV).
747
40.2.2.9 Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures (SLOP)
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures in Oceanic and Remote Continental Airspace a SLOP is approved procedures that allow aircraft to fly on a parallel track to
the right of the center line relative to the direction of flight.
In relation to a route or track, there are three positions that an aircraft may fly: along centerline/ 1 nm/ 2 nm right.
Offsets are not to exceed 2 nm right of center line.
748
Pilots may apply an offset outbound at the permitted SLOP entry point, but must return to center line at the SLOP exit point in the route as given in
ATC section of Jeppesen
749
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures in Oceanic and Remote Continental Airspace
This procedure does not require
ATC clearance and it is not necessary to advise ATC.
750
The RNAV 5 also referred as
B-RNAV has identical requirements.
751
40.2.3 RNAV 5
If ATS issues a heading assignment taking the aircraft off a route, the pilot should not modify
the flight plan in the RNAV system until a clearance is received to re-join the route or the controller confirms a new clearance. When the aircraft is not on the published route, the specified accuracy requirement does not apply.
752
If the accuracy check confirms that RNAV-5 capability is lost, or if both FMGCs have failed, inform the ATC and revert to
conventional navigation.
753
The following amber alert message will be displayed on EWD and master caution light will flash amber and an aural single chime alerts is associated to the alert in case of navigation equipment failure:
GPS 1, GPS 2, FMS 1, FMS 2, GPS LOSS, FMS 1+2.
754
40.2.4 RNAV 1 & 2
RNAV 1 & 2 specifications are implemented for terminal area like
SIDs, STARs and ATS routes. It also applies to Instrument Approach Procedures up to the FAF.
755
40.2.4 RNAV 1 & 2
The manual entry or creation of new waypoints by manual entry, of latitude and longitude or rho/theta values is
not permitted.
Additionally, flight crew must not change any RNAV SID or STAR database waypoint type from a fly-by to a flyover or vice versa.
756
Crew may notice a slight difference between the navigation information portrayed on the chart and their primary Navigation Display (ND). Differences of 3 degrees or less may result from
the equipment manufacturer's application of magnetic variation and are operationally acceptable.
757
For normal operations, cross-track error/deviation (the difference between the RNAV system computed path and the aircraft position relative to the path, i.e. FTE) should be limited to
± ½ the navigation accuracy associated with the procedure or route (i.e. 0.5 NM for RNAV 1, 1.0 NM for RNAV 2)
758
Brief deviations from this standard (e.g. overshoots or undershoots) during and immediately after procedure/route turns, up to
a maximum of one times the navigation accuracy (i.e. 1.0 NM for RNAV 1, 2.0 NM for RNAV), are allowable.
759
The creation of new waypoints by manual entry into the RNAV system by the flight crew would
invalidate the route and is not permitted.
760
In the event of a predicted, continuous loss of appropriate level of fault detection of more than
five minutes for any part of the RNP1 operation, the flight plan should be revised (e.g. delaying the departure or planning a different departure procedure).
761
When flying in an RNP environment, the crew can insert the appropriate RNP value (1) in the REQUIRED ACCUR field of the PROG page.
When HIGH is displayed,
the RNP requirement is estimated to be fulfilled.
762
When flying in an RNP environment, the crew can insert the appropriate RNP value (1) in the REQUIRED ACCUR field of the PROG page.
When LOW is displayed, the RNP requirement is estimated not to be fulfilled. Then:
- The crew crosschecks navigation with raw data, if available,
- If the crosscheck is negative, or if raw data is unavailable, the crew informs the ATC.
763
RNP APCH can be classified as:
RNP APCH operations down to LNAV and LNAV/VNAV minima.
RNP APCH operations down to LPV minima. (ATR 72-600)
764
i) Flight technical error (FTE)
FTE relates to the air crew or autopilot's ability to
follow the defined path or track, including any display error.
765
When Barometric VNAV is used for vertical path guidance during the final approach segment, deviations above and below the Barometric VNAV path must not exceed
± 75 ft
766
When Barometric VNAV is used for vertical path guidance during the final approach segment, deviations above and below the Barometric VNAV path must not exceed
± 75 ft
767
ii) Navigation system error (NSE)
NSE refers to the difference between
the aircraft's estimated (FMGS) position and actual position. It can be monitored by tracking estimated position error (EPU) on both MCDU as well as ND indication.
768
Navigation system error (NSE)
Accuracy can be monitored on PROG page. When EPE (ESTIMATED value) becomes greater than the REQUIRED value, ___ is displayed.
DOWNGRADE massage (amber)
When accuracy improves to the required value ACCURACY UPGRADE massage (white) is displayed on MCDUs and NDs.
769
ili) Path definition error
PDE occurs when the path defined in the RNAV system does not correspond to
the desired path, i.e. the path expected to be flown over the ground. Path definition error (PDE) is considered negligible due to the quality assurance process (NAV DATABASE INTEGRITY VALIDATION PROCESS) and crew procedures.
770
iv) GPS accuracy and integrity monitoring
When both GPS accuracy and integrity requirements are met, the Confidence Status on GPS position is designated as
GPS PRIMARY, displayed on PROG page.
771
If both GPS accuracy and integrity requirements are not met and GPS/IRS mode is lost; ___ is triggered on MCDU and ND of the affected side. It cannot be cleared from ND.
"GPS PRIMARY LOST" message (amber)
772
"Direct to" clearances may be accepted to the IF provided that the resulting track change at the IF does not exceed
45 degrees
Note: "Direct to" clearance to FAF is not acceptable.
773
Flight Crew while conducting a LNAV, LNAV/VNAV procedure must check the Final APP is engaged and the required nav performance/ accuracy is indicated as
0.3 nm
774
During the RNP APCH procedure, lateral deviation must be ensured to be suitable for the navigation accuracy associated with the various segments of the procedure (i.e. ___ for the initial and intermediate segments, ___ for the FAS down to LNAV or LNAV/ VNAV minima and ___ for the missed approach segment).
± 1.0 NM
± 0.3 NM
± 1.0 NM
775
40.2.6.3.6 Baro-VNAV specific procedures
Flight crew needs to adjust for any cold temperature correction required at all minimum altitudes/heights published and revert to use of the temperature adjusted LNAV MDA. This includes:
- The altitudes/heights for initial and intermediate segments;
- The DA/H; and
- Subsequent missed approach altitudes/heights.
776
40.2.6.3.6 Baro-VNAV specific procedures
The VPA of the final approach path is protected against the effects of cold temperatures by
the procedure design.
777
Temperature affects the indicated altitude.
When the temperature is above than standard (ISA conditions), the aircraft will be flying ___ the indicated altitude. When the temperature is below the standard, the aircraft will be flying ___ the altitude indicated in the altimeter.
above
below
778
40.2.7 RNP 2 OPERATING PROCEDURE
RNP 2 is primarily intended for a diverse set of en-route applications, particularly in geographic areas with
little or no ground Nav aid infrastructure, limited or no ATS surveillance, and low to medium density traffic. Use of RNP 2 in continental applications requires a lower continuity requirement than used in oceanic/remote applications.
779
RNP 2 specification can be applied for applications in
oceanic, continental and in airspace considered by a State to be remote.
780
40.3 RNAV SUBSTITUTION TO FLY CONVENTIONAL INSTRUMENT PROCEDURE UP TO FINAL APPROACH SEGMENT OF ILS APPROACH
The operations Circular provides guidance regarding the suitability and use of RNAV systems to
fly conventional instrument approach procedures only up to FINAL APPROACH FIX in the event of either ground based or air borne equipment failure of conventional Nav Aids like VOR or NDB.
781
The minimum navigation equipment required to enter RNAV1/RNAV2 airspace is:
- One FMGC
- One MCDU
- One GPS
- Two IRS
- One FD in NAV mode
- Two NDs (the temporary display of ND information via the PFD/ND switch is permitted on one side).
782
40.3.2 SUBSTITUTE OR ALTERNATE MEANS OF NAVIGATION
A Suitable RNAV System may be used as a substitute or an alternate means of navigation as under:
i) As a SUBSTITUTE Means of Navigation when:
3 items
- A VOR, DME, VOR/DME or NDB is out-of-service, i.e., the Navigation Aid (NAVAID) information is not available;
- An aircraft is not equipped with ADF, VOR or DME; or
- The installed ADF, VOR or DME on an aircraft is not operational.
(For example, if equipped with a suitable RNAV system, a pilot may hold over an out-of-service NDB)
783
40.3.2 SUBSTITUTE OR ALTERNATE MEANS OF NAVIGATION
A Suitable RNAV System may be used as a substitute or an alternate means of navigation as under:
ii) As an ALTERNATE Means of Navigation when:
A VOR, DME, VOR/DME, NDB, outer marker or middle marker is operational and the respective aircraft is equipped with operational navigation equipment that is compatible with conventional NAVAIDs. (For example, a pilot may fly a procedure or route based on operational VOR using that RNAV system without monitoring the VOR)
784
40.3.3 SUBSTITUTE OR ALTERNATE MEANS OF NAVIGATION
a) Permitted USES
i) Determine aircraft position relative to or distance from a VOR, NDB, DME fix; a named fix defined by a VOR/DME, VOR radial, or NDB bearing,
ii) Navigate to or from a VOR, or NDB and,
iii) Hold over a VOR, NDB or DME fix.
iv) Fly an arc based upon DME.
785
An otherwise suitable RNAV system cannot be used for the following:
3 items
i) NOTAMed Procedures.
(For example, to navigate on a procedure that is based upon a recently decommissioned NAVAID or a procedure affected by an expired or unsatisfactory flight inspection)
ii) Substitution on a Final Approach Segment. Substitution for the NAVAID (for example, a VOR or NDB) providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment
iii) Lateral Navigation on LOC-Based Courses. Lateral navigation on LOC based course (including LOC back-course guidance) without reference to raw LOC data.
786
In the event of loss of navigation capability of the RNAV system, for proceeding safely to a suitable airport and completing an instrument approach;
- an acceptable installation requires dual GNSS but no
additional navigation equipment is required
787
In the event of loss of navigation capability of the RNAV system, for proceeding safely to a suitable airport and completing an instrument approach;
An aircraft equipped with GNSS-based area navigation systems requires
operative VOR and/or ADF navigation equipment suitable for the intended en route, terminal, and approach operations, including any alternates.
788
Use of an RNAV system as a substitute means of navigation may be applicable to normal in-flight use, to continuation of flight after failure, or to dispatch with inoperative conventional capability if
consistent with the applicable MEL for the aircraft type.
789
40.3 RNAV SUBSTITUTION TO FLY CONVENTIONAL INSTRUMENT PROCEDURE UP TO FINAL APPROACH SEGMENT OF ILS APPROACH
40.3.5 ALTERNATE AIRPORT CONSIDERATIONS
For flight planning, any required alternate aerodrome must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not require the use of
GPS.
This restriction includes conducting a conventional approach at the alternate airport using a substitute means of navigation that is based upon the use of GPS.
(For example, these restrictions would apply when planning to use GPS equipment as a substitute means of navigation for an out-of-service VOR that supports an ILS missed approach procedure at an alternate airport. In this case, some other approach not reliant upon the use of GPS must be available)
This restriction does not apply to RNAV systems using TSO-C145/-C146 GAGAN equipment.
790
40.3.6 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SPECIFIC SENSOR INPUTS For all RNAV systems, substitute and alternate means of navigation must be discontinued upon
loss of integrity (for example, RAIM alert) or unacceptable degradation of system performance.
791
40.3.6 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SPECIFIC SENSOR INPUTS
RNAV systems using GNSS input may be used as an ALTERNATE MEANS OF NAVIGATION without restriction provided the aircraft is fitted with
the equipment for the underlying navigation aid, the system is operative and the ground-based navigation aid is operative.
792
40.3.6 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SPECIFIC SENSOR INPUTS
GNSS will be used as a SUBSTITUTE OR ALTERNATE MEANS OF NAVIGATION where
As part of flight planning, a prediction for GNSS integrity availability is obtained
793
40.3.6 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SPECIFIC SENSOR INPUTS
RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU, without GPS input, may be used as an ALTERNATE MEANS OF NAVIGATION where
valid DME/DME position updating is published as available (for example, by NOTAM or authorization).
794
In order to use a substitute means of navigation on departure procedures, with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU, without GPS input, position of aircraft navigation system must be confirmed, within
1,000 feet, at the start point of take-off roll. The use of an automatic or manual runway update is an acceptable means of compliance with this requirement. A navigation map display may also be used to confirm aircraft position, if pilot procedures and display resolution allow for compliance with the 1,000-foot tolerance requirement.
795
40.3.7 SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS TO FLY RNAV SEGMENTS PUBLISHED ON ILS PROCEDURES
In order to fly RNAV transitions to an ILS final approach or RNAV missed approach segments of an ILS procedure, pilots must comply with the operating requirements. RNAV systems used for this type of operation must allow for a means to establish on the ILS final approach course with
minimal overshoot or undershoot.
796
RVSM airspace is defined as an airspace or route where airplanes are vertically separated by
1000 ft between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive.
797
In regard to the application of RVSM procedures in Indian FIRs aircraft shall be categorized as follows:
i. RVSM Approved Aircraft, which have gained a RVSM approval
ii. Non-RVSM Approved Aircraft which do not have a RVSM approval, or equipment failure
iii. Approved Non-RVSM Aircraft which have gained an approval to flight plan in exclusive RVSM airspace, as per special coordination procedures.
798
41.1 SYSTEM DESCRIPTION AND EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENT
Equipment requirement:
(Refer FCOM PRO SPO 50)
in addition 2 systems required are:
Secondary Surveillance Radar Transponder and
Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS II)
799
In the RVSM airspace, it shall be ensured that all aircraft authorized for such operations are equipped to:
i) Indicate to the flight crew the flight level being flown;
ii) Automatically maintain a selected flight level;
iii) Provide an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight level, with the threshold for such alert not to exceed 300 feet.
iv) Automatically reporting pressure altitude.
800
41.0 REDUCED VERTICAL SEPERATION MINIMUM (RVSM)
Provide an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight level, with the threshold for such alert not to exceed ___.
300 feet
801
The ___ equipment fulfils the monitoring requirement, where in a large number of aircraft are covered on day to day basis, which is more than the requirements specified by the monitoring agency.
ADS B
802
41.4 PROCEDURE FOR REPORTING OF ALTITUDE KEEPING ERRORS If an aircraft exhibits height deviations which are in magnitude equal to or, greater than, the following criteria, the errors need to be monitored, reported and recorded.
i) Total vertical error 300 ft
ii) Altimetry system error 245ft
iii) Assigned altitude deviation 300 ft
803
41.5 RVSM PROCEDURE
41.5.1 Pre-Flight
Check that the letter ___ is written in field 10 of the ATC Flight Plan to
indicate RVSM capability.
"W"
804
41.5.3 Within RVSM airspace
Autopilot shall remain engaged during level cruise, except when circumstances
such as
the need to re-trim the aircraft or turbulence require disengagement.
805
41.5.4 Transition between Flight Levels
During cleared transition between levels, the aircraft should not overshoot or
undershoot the assigned FL by more than
150Ft.
806
If the pilot is notified by ATC of an assigned altitude deviation which exceeds ___
ft then the pilot should take action to return to cleared flight level as quickly as
possible.
± 300
807
41.6 CONTINGENCY PROCEDURES - RVSM
If prior clearance cannot be obtained, the following contingency procedures should be employed until a revised clearance is received. In general terms, the aircraft
should be flown
at an offset level and on offset track where other aircraft are less
likely to be encountered.
808
41.6 CONTINGENCY
PROCEDURES - RVSM
Specifically, the pilot shall:
- Leave the cleared track or ATS route by initially turning at least 30° to the
right or to the left, in order to establish and maintain a parallel, same
direction track or ATS route offset 5.0 NM.
- Establish communications with and alert nearby aircraft by broadcasting
on the frequencies in use and at suitable intervals on 121.5 MHz
- Turn on all aircraft exterior lights
- Keep the SSR transponder on at all times and, when able, squawk 7700
- Advise air traffic control of any deviation from their
assigned clearance; distress signal (MAYDAY) or urgency signal (PAN PAN) preferably spoken three times,
shall be used,
809
41.6 CONTINGENCY
PROCEDURES RVSM
The direction of the turn should be based on one or more of the following factors:
i. aircraft position relative to any organized track or ATS route system;
ii. the direction of flights and flight levels allocated on adjacent tracks;
iii. the direction to an alternate airport,
iv. any strategic lateral offset being flown, and
v. terrain clearance;
810
41.6 CONTINGENCY
PROCEDURES RVSM
41.6.2 Actions to be taken once offset from track
Factors for the pilot to consider when deviating from the cleared track or ATS route or level without an ATC clearance include, but are not limited to:
- operation within a parallel track system;
- the potential for user preferred routes (UPRs) parallel to the aircraft's track or ATS route;
- the nature of the contingency (e.g. aircraft system malfunction); and
- weather factors (e.g. convective weather at lower flight levels).
811
41.6 CONTINGENCY
PROCEDURES RVSM
Once established on a parallel, same direction track or ATS route offset by 5.0 NM, either:
Descend below FL 290, and establish a 500 ft vertical offset
812
41.6.3 Contingency scenarios RVSM
41.6.4 Loss or degradation of altimetry system
Scenario 1
The pilot is unsure of the vertical position of the aircraft due to ___, or
Unsure of the capability to maintain cleared flight level (CFL) due to .
the loss or
degradation of all primary altimetry systems
turbulence or
loss of all automatic altitude control systems
813
41.6.3 Contingency
scenarios RVSM
41.6.4 Loss or degradation
of altimetry system
Scenario 2
There is a failure or loss of accuracy of one primary altimetry system (e.g. greater
than
200 Ft difference between primary altimeters.
814
41.6.3 Contingency
scenarios RVSM
41.6.5 Expanded equipment failure and turbulence encounter scenarios
5 Scenarios
- Scenario 1 All automatic altitude control systems fail (e.g. automatic altitude hold)
- Scenario 2 Loss of redundancy in primary altimetry systems
- Scenario 3 All primary altimetry systems are considered unreliable or fail
- Scenario 4 The primary altimeters diverge by more than 200ft (60m)
- Scenario 5 Turbulence (greater than moderate) which the pilot believes will
impact the aircraft's capability to maintain flight level.
815
41.7 CONTROLLER/ PILOT RVSM PHRASEOLOGY
For a pilot to report when severe turbulence affects the capability of an aircraft to maintain height-keeping requirements for RVSM
UNABLE RVSM DUE TURBULENCE
816
41.7 CONTROLLER/ PILOT RVSM PHRASEOLOGY
For a pilot to report that the aircraft equipment has degraded enroute below that required for flight within the RVSM airspace.
UNABLE RVSM DUE EQUIPMENT
817
41.8 WEATHER DEVIATION PROCEDURE
Actions to be taken if a revised air traffic control clearance cannot be obtained:
Until an ATC clearance is received the pilot shall take the following actions:
i) if possible, deviate away from an organized track or route system;
ii) establish communications with and alert nearby aircraft
iii) watch for conflicting traffic both visually and by reference to ACAS
iv) turn on all aircraft exterior lights
v) for deviations of less than 5.0 NM from the route, remain at the level assigned by ATC;
vi) for deviations of greater than, or equal to 5.0 NM, initiate a level change in accordance with table given below;
[Easterly Left Descend heading 300Ft]
[Easterly heading Right Climb 300Ft]
[Westerly Left Climb 300Ft heading]
[Westerly Right Descend 300Ft]
viii) when returning to track or ATS route, be at its assigned flight level when the aircraft is within approximately 5.0 NM of the centerline, and
818
41.9 STRATEGIC LATERAL OFFSET PROCEDURES (SLOP)
(Refer Country specific Rules and procedures Jepessen Airways Manual)
SLOP are approved procedures that allow aircraft to fly on a parallel track to
the right of the centre line relative to the direction of flight to mitigate the lateral overlap probability due to increased navigation accuracy and wake turbulence encounters.
819
SLOP are applicable only within Oceanic airspace in
Chennai, Kolkata and Mumbai FIRs beyond TMA/CTA/CTR.
820
Strategic lateral offsets shall be applicable only in Oceanic airspace, as mentioned above, and as follows:
where the lateral separation minima or spacing between route centre lines is
15 NM or more, offsets to the right of the centre line relative to the direction of flight in tenths of a nautical mile up to a maximum of 2 NM; and
821
Pilots may contact other aircraft on the inter-pilot air-to-air frequency ___ to coordinate offsets.
123.45 MHz
822
FLIGHT RELEASE
Total Number of Passengers (Count of ___ only).
Adult and Child
823
FLIGHT RELEASE CERTIFICATE
Flight Plan Notification (FIC) & Air Defense Clearance (ADC) number issued by ___ respectively.
ARO (Air Traffic Service Reporting Office) &
AFMLU (Air Force Movement Liaison Unit)
824
Additional Flight Information
## indicates the comments added in the last ___.
15 days
825
COMPUTERISED FLIGHT PLAN
Aircraft Performance Factor also known as
(BIAS Factor).
826
COMPUTERISED FLIGHT PLAN
RECALL is Reference number to recall
historical CFP.
827
COMPUTERISED FLIGHT PLAN
Validity of GRIB DATA:-First 4 digits are for date time (format ddhh) at which the data was collected. Last 2 digits denote 'Period of validity', in terms of hours elapsed after the wind data was collected.
Example: 140018, the WAFC GRIB DATA is based on 0000 UTC observation of 14. This data is valid for
18 hours from the date time, 1800 UTC. In practice, 0000 UTC data is available after 0300 UTC. The validity of the same becomes +/-3 Hrs from 1800 UTC, i.e. 1500-2100 UTC.
828
COMPUTERISED FLIGHT PLAN
Average wind component En-route (P denotes ___, M denotes ___)
Tail Wind
Head Wind
829
COMPUTERISED FLIGHT PLAN
Shear factor
This indicates different in wind speed per thousand feet of altitude. Larger Shear factors are associated with large turbulence that can be expected. It is computed by
calculating the difference of winds at 1000' above and 1000' below the planned cruise level and divide the difference by two. It is independent of direction of change.
830
LOAD & TRIM SHEET
Total No. of Passenger(s) =
Sum of all, separately for Adult, Children &
Infants
831
Manual Load & Trim Sheet
Seating
OA-60
OB-60
OC-60
CA-NIL
CO-NIL
Per zone
CA is used in case of any Non-Revenue Pax is traveling on Jump Seat in Cabin.
CO is used in case any ACM or Cockpit crew travelling on Leisure travel having authorization
832
Automated/ Computerized Load & Trim Sheet
CUSTOMER Segregation of customers 168/0/0
168 - ADULT
0 - CHILD
0 - INFANT
833
Automated/ Computerized Load & Trim Sheet
ZONE
Customers seated in each Zone (OA,OB and OC)
Zone OA(ROW no 1 to 10)
Zone OB(ROW no 11 to 20)
Zone OC(ROW no 21 to 30)
834
7. PASSENGER INFORMATION ANNOUNCEMENTS
Contents
4 Sections
- On-board Normal Announcements
- Situational Announcements (On Ground)
- Situational Announcements (In Air)
- LVO Announcements
835
7. PASSENGER INFORMATION ANNOUNCEMENTS
3 On-board Normal Announcements
- Departure announcement
- Descent: On time Arrival
- Descent: If Arrival delay is known
836
7. PASSENGER INFORMATION ANNOUNCEMENTS
3 Situational Announcements (On Ground)
- Delay:
- Return to Parking Bay
- Airplane search procedure due to expected sabotage
837
7. PASSENGER
INFORMATION
ANNOUNCEMENTS
6 Situational Announcements (In Air)
- Turbulence
- Diversion
- In case of Go Around
- Arrival Delay
- Unruly Passenger
- Suspect Sabotage
838
7. PASSENGER
INFORMATION
ANNOUNCEMENTS
3 LVO Announcements
- Departure delay
- Improvement in weather conditions and waiting for departure sequence.
- Arrival delay
839
During irregular operations, and/or when delays occur, the PIC must update the passengers every
10 to 20 minutes.
840
PA Check Procedure:
As the first announcement is made from the flight deck it is imperative to carry out a PA quality check (provided there are no passengers on board). The Lead cabin crew member will then provide feedback to the pilot using the below verbiage (via intercom):
"Captain, announcement was loud and clear"
841
Descent Announcement:
- Ensure to announce the arrival destination
- Mention the time in which descent will start and approximate time of landing
- Mention destination temperature
842
On Board Normal Operations
Welcome/ Final Call
Good morning Ladies & Gentleman, this is your Captain speaking, welcome on board. We are ready for departure. I hope you have settled down, if not, please do so at the earliest.
Cabin crew close doors.
843
PROHIBITED AREAS
Annexure & Total Items?
ANX 11
15 items
844
LIST OF BASES
Annexure & Total Items?
ANX 12
12 items
845
LIST OF AIRPORTS SUITABLE FOR PRACTICE AUTOLAND
Annexure & Total Airports?
ANX 16
17 Airports
